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MTAP 1 > ISBB > Flashcards

ISBB Flashcards

1
Q

Substances that re considered foreign to a host

A

Antigens

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2
Q

What are the 2 components of immunity?

A

Cellular Immunity
Humoral Immunity

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3
Q

The component of immunity that are made up by cells

A

Cellular Immunity

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4
Q

These are non-cellular / soluble substances that promote immunity.

A

Humoral Immunity

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5
Q

Considered as natural or non-specific immunity

A

Innate Immunity

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6
Q

Considered as acquired or specific immunity

A

Adaptive Immunity

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7
Q

Modified true or false: Magnitude or kinetics of innate immune response is altered by subsequent encounter with a foreign agent.

A

False; unaltered

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8
Q

What type of antigen has no carrier?

A

Soluble antigen

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9
Q

What type of antigen is attached to a carrier?

A

Particulate antigen

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10
Q

Which of the following does not belong to the group?

RBC, WBC, Bacteria, Charcoal, Latex, Beads, Bentonite

A

WBC

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11
Q

Autoantibody present in: Grave’s Disease

A) Anti-dsDNA
B) Anti-mitochondiral antibodies
C) Anti-TSH receptor antibodies
D) Anti-parietal cell antibodies

A

C) Anti-TSH receptor antibodies

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12
Q

Autoantibody present in: Rheumatoid arthritis

A) Anti-dsDNA; Anti-Smith
B) Antibodies to the Fc portion of IgG
C) Anti-TSH receptor antibodies
D) Anti-SSa and Anti-SSb

A

B) Antibodies to the Fc portion of IgG

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13
Q

Autoantibody present in: Myasthenia gravis

A) Anti-dsDNA
B) Anti-mitochondiral antibodies
C) Anti-TSH receptor antibodies
D) Anti-acetylcholine receptor

A

D) Anti-acetylcholine receptor

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14
Q

Autoantibody present in: Primary biliary cirrhosis

A) Anti-dsDNA
B) Anti-mitochondiral antibodies
C) Anti-beta cells
D) Anti-parietal cell antibodies

A

B) Anti-mitochondrial antibodies

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15
Q

Autoantibody present in: Chronic Active Hepatitis

A) Anti-smoothmuscle antibodies
B) Anti-mitochondiral antibodies
C) Anti-parietal cell antibodies
D) Anti-acetylcholine receptor

A

A) Anti-smoothmuscle antibodies

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16
Q

Autoantibody present in: Goodpasture syndrome

A) Anti-smoothmuscle antibodies
B) Anti-mitochondiral antibodies
C) Anti-parietal cell antibodies
D) Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies

A

D) Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies

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17
Q

Autoantibody present in: Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

A) Anti-dsDNA; Anti-Smith
B) Anti-mitochondiral antibodies
C) Anti-parietal cell antibodies
D) Anti-acetylcholine receptor

A

A) Anti-dsDNA; Anti-Smith

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18
Q

Autoantibody present in: Pernicious Anemia

A) Anti-smoothmuscle antibodies
B) Anti-mitochondiral antibodies
C) Anti-parietal cell antibodies
D) Anti-parietal cell antibodies

A

D) Anti-parietal cell antibodies

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19
Q

Autoantibody present in: Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis

A) Anti-smoothmuscle antibodies
B) Anti-microsomal antibodies
C) Anti-parietal cell antibodies
D) Anti-acetylcholine receptor

A

B) Anti-microsomal antibodies

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20
Q

Autoantibody present in: Multiple Sclerosis

A) Anti-smoothmuscle antibodies
B) Anti-mitochondiral antibodies
C) Anti-myelin sheath antibodies
D) Anti-acetylcholine receptor

A

C) Anti-myelin sheath antibodies

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21
Q

Autoantibody present in: Sjorgen’s syndrome

A) Anti-SSa and Anti-SSb
B) Anti-mitochondiral antibodies
C) Antibodies to the Fc portion of IgG
D) Anti-dsDNA; Anti-Smith

A

A) Anti-SSa and Anti-SSb

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22
Q

Which HLA class is found in all nucleated cells?

A

HLA Class I

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23
Q

Which HLA class is found in cells like the dendritic cells and macrophages?

A

HLA Class II

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24
Q

Modified True or False: Major histocompatibility complexes are polymorphic

A

True

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25
Q

How likely is it to find another person with a matching MHC type?

A

1:100,000

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26
Q

What do T Cells use to discriminate self from non-self?

A

MHC or HLA

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27
Q

Out of all people, who are most likely that is compatible with a patient’s HLA?

A

Sibling/s

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28
Q

Which of the following is not included in the imporance of MHC / HLA molecules?

Antigen presentation
Antibody production
Paternity exclusion testing
Organ Transplantation
Predisposition to diseases
Vaccine development
Transfusion

A

Antibody production
Vaccine development

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29
Q

These cells are cells that have encountered an antigen

A

Activated cells

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30
Q

Do platelets have HLA / MHC? If so, why?

A

Yes. Platelets originate from megakaryocytes, which has their own HLA

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31
Q

Describe HLA alloimmunization

A

A person has developed pultiple HLA alloantibodies

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32
Q

What may happen when the HLA of a donor graft doesn’t exactly match the host’s HLA

A

The host develops antibodies; leading to Host vs Graft disease

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33
Q

What is the difference of HVG and GVH Disease?

A

HVG is when the patient is immunocompetent; GVH is when the patient is immunocompromised

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34
Q

Heteroantigens are also known as _____________.

A

Heterologous or xenogenic antigens

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35
Q

Weil-Felix reaction for typhus fever detects antibodies for _________.

A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B) Infection mononucleosis
C) Rickettsia

A

C) Rickettsia

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36
Q

Cold agglutinin test for primary atypical pneumonia detects for the presence of _________.

A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B) Infection mononucleosis
C) Rickettsia

A

A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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37
Q

Reagent used for Weil-Felix reaction for typhus fever

A

OX-2, OX-19, OX-K

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38
Q

How does molecular size affect immunogenicity?

A

larger molecules are more immunogenic

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39
Q

Modified true or false: The amount of antigen exposed to affects the immunogenicity by stimulating an immune response

A

True

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40
Q

These are specific regions of an antibody which recognizes and binds to an antigen.

A

Paratope

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41
Q

What is the ratio of kappa and lambda in an antibody?

A

2:1

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42
Q

Each chain in an antibody has _______ and ________ regions.

A

Variable and constant

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43
Q

What enzyme hydrolyzes the antibody into 2 fragments?

44
Q

What enzyme hydrolyzes the antibody into 3 fragments?

45
Q

What are the fragments produced by pepsin?

A

Fc’ + F(ab)2

46
Q

What are the fragments produced by papain?

A

Fab + Fab + Fc

47
Q

Where is the hinge region located?

A

In between CH1 and CH2

48
Q

Where is the complement binding site for IgG?

49
Q

Where is the complement binding site for IgM?

50
Q

The variable region is located in which end?

A

Amino terminal end

51
Q

In which end of an antibody is the constant region located?

A

Carboxy terminal end

52
Q

The region for WBC binding site

53
Q

Half-life of IgG antibody

54
Q

What amino acid is responsible for the flexibility of the hinge region of an antibody?

55
Q

What antibody/ies have CH4?

56
Q

What are the antibodies that can activate the complement?

57
Q

What are the different pathways of complement activation?

A

Classical pathway
Alternative pathway
Mannan-binding lectin pathway (MBL)

58
Q

What are the stages of complement activation?

A

Recognition => Activation => Membrane attack complex

59
Q

What component of the complement protein binds to the Fc portion of IgM and IgG molecules?

A) C1q
B) C1r
C) C1s
D) C4

60
Q

What component of the complement proteins activates C1s?

A) C1q
B) C1r
C) Calcium
D) C2

61
Q

What component of the complement proteins cleaves C4 and C2?

A) C1r
B) C3
C) Calcium
D) C1s

62
Q

What are the components of the C3 convertase in the classical pathway?

63
Q

What binds the C1qrs together?

64
Q

What is the component of the complement proteins that is considered the central pivot point?

A) C5
B) C6
C) C9
D) C3

65
Q

Which component of the complement proteins initiates the membrane attack complex?

A) C4
B) C5
C) C6
D) C7

66
Q

What component of the complement proteins starts the pore formation in the cell membrane?

A) C8
B) C2
C) C6
D) C9

67
Q

What triggers the MBL pathway?

A

Mannan / Mannose

68
Q

What are the components of the complement proteins unique to the MBL pathway?

A

MBL
MASP1
MASP2

69
Q

What are the unique component of the complement proteinsthat belong to the alternative pathway?

A

Factor B
Factor D
Properdin

70
Q

What was the old name for the alternative pathway?

A

Properdin pathway

71
Q

What is the purpose of properdin?

A) Polymerizes to cause cell lysis
B) Cleaves Factor D
C) Stabilizes C1qrs
D) Stabilizes C3bBb complex

A

D) Stabilizes C3bBb complex

72
Q

In the MBL pathway, what splits the C4 and C2?

73
Q

What is the regulatory protein that inactivates C1?

A

C1 inhibitor

74
Q

A regulatory protein that cleaves C3b and C4b

75
Q

Regulatory protein that is cofactor to Factor I in inactivating C3b

76
Q

Vitronectin is a regulatory protein that prevents the attachment of __________ complex to the cell membrane

77
Q

Which regulatory protein dissociates C3 convertase?

A) S protein
B) Vitronectin
C) C4-BP
D) DAF

78
Q

The deficiency in C1 inhibitor may lead to what condition?

A) Hereditary angioneurotic edema (HANE)
B) SLE-Like syndrome
C) Glomerulonephritis
D) Severe recurrent infections

A

A) Hereditary angioneurotic edema (HANE)

79
Q

The deficiency in C5-C8 are usually found in….

A) Hereditary angioneurotic edema (HANE)
B) SLE-Like syndrome
C) Gonococcal infections
D) Severe recurrent infections

A

C) Gonococcal infections

80
Q

How much RPM does RPR require and for how long?

A

100 RPM for 8 minutes

81
Q

The RPM and time required for VDRL testing.

A

180 RPM for 4 minutes

82
Q

What is the optimum ph for antigen-antibody binding?

83
Q

The addition of 22% albumin reduces the zeta potential but it need a contact time of _______.

A

30-60 minutes

84
Q

How does PEG bring RBCs closer together?

A

PEG is a dehydrating agent; removing water molecules from the sample.

85
Q

The following intermolecular binding forces are present in antigen-antibody complexes, except for:

i) Hydrogen bonds
ii) Electrostatic forces
iii) Covalent bonds
iv) Van der Waals forces
v) Hydrophobic bonds
vi) London dispersion forces

A

iii and vi

86
Q

Modified true or false: After adding NSS, an intact clumping represents Rouleaux formation.

A

False; True agglutination

87
Q

Modified true or false: Rouleaux formation are sometimes caused by monoclonal gammopathies such as multiple sclerosis and Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia.

A

False; multiple myeloma

88
Q

IgM antibodies are usually ______-reactive

89
Q

What is the definition of titer?

A

The reciprocal of the highest dilution of a biological sample tht still displays a positive result

90
Q

Direct agglutination can be characterized by:

A) The use of an antigen that is artificially attached to a carrier
B) The use of an antibody that is artificially attached to a carrier
C) The use of an antigen that is naturally present in a carrier
D) The use of an antibody that is naturally present in a carrier

A

C) The use of an antigen that is naturally present in a carrier

91
Q

Indirect agglutination can be characterized by:

A) The use of an antigen that is artificially attached to a carrier
B) The use of an antibody that is artificially attached to a carrier
C) The use of an antigen that is naturally present in a carrier
D) The use of an antibody that is naturally present in a carrier

A

A) The use of an antigen that is artifically attached to a carrier

92
Q

Reverse passive agglutination can be characterized by:

A) The use of an antigen that is artificially attached to a carrier
B) The use of an antibody that is artificially attached to a carrier
C) The use of an antigen that is naturally present in a carrier
D) The use of an antibody that is naturally present in a carrier

A

B) The use of an antibody that is artificially attached to a carrier

93
Q

Washing in labeled immunoassays is an example of what step?

A

Separation step

94
Q

In the complement fixation test, hemolysis indicates a _______ result.

95
Q

Modified true or false: Symptomatic anemia starts at a hemoglobin level of <9g/dL

A

False; <7g/dL

96
Q

What is the most common immunodeficiency and is mostly asymptomatic?

A

IgA Deficiency

97
Q

Modified true or false: Patients with IgA Deficiency would produce anti-IgA when they are transfused with IgA-rich blood.

98
Q

Who should receive this blood unit: Irradiated blood components

A) Patients with bleeding due to a platelet defect
B) Chronically transfusion-dependent patients
C) Patients that may experience TRALI
D) Immunocompromised patients

A

D) Immunocompromised patients

99
Q

Who should receive this blood unit: Leuko-reduced components

A) Immunocompromised patients
B) Patients that may experience TRALI
C) Patients with von Willebrand’s disease
D) Patients with neutropenia

A

B) Patients that may experience TRALI

100
Q

Who should receive neocyte-enriched RBC blood units?

A) Patients with congenital hypogammaglobulinemia
B) Patients with neutropenia
C) Patients with symptomatic anemia
D) Patients who are chronically transfusion-dependent

A

D) Patients who are chronically transfusion-dependent

101
Q

Who should receive granulocyte concentrates?

A) Patients with congenital hypogammaglobulinemia
B) Patients with neutropenia
C) Patients with symptomatic anemia
D) Patients who are chronically transfusion-dependent

A

B) Patients with neutropenia

102
Q

Which blood unit is preferred in patients with Factor 8 deficiency?

A) Cryoprecipitate
B) Leuko-reduced components
C) Factor concentrates
D) Fresh frozen plasma

A

C) Factor concentrates

103
Q

What is the most common encountered type of transfusion reaction?

A

Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction

104
Q

The development of ABO antigen develops as early as ______.

A

37 days of fetal life

105
Q

What is the immunodominant sugar in blood group A?

A) D-Galactose
B) L-Fucose
C) N-Acetylgalactosamine
D) N-Acetylgalactosaminyl

A

C) N-Acetylgalactosamine

106
Q

What is the immunodominant sugar in blood group O?

A) L-Fructose
B) L-Fucose
C) D-Galactose
D) D-Mannose

A

B) L-Fucose

107
Q

What is the immunodominant sugar in blood group B?

A) D-Galactose
B) D-Glucose
C) L-Mannose
D) L-Fucose

A

A) D-Galactose

MTAP 1 (3 decks)

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