Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MTLE RMT MARCH 2025 > ISBB > Flashcards

ISBB Flashcards

1
Q

To reinactivate the complement system,
serum is heated at what temperature and
interval if a modified VDRL testing involving
macroscopic agglutination is used?
a. 56 C for 30 minutes
b. 56 C for 10 minutes
c. 65 C for 30 minutes
d. None of the above

A

None of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A lack of C1-INH might result in which of the
following conditions?
a. PNH
b. Atherosclerosis
c. HANE
d. Increased bacterial infection

A

HANE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A type of immunization where a
microorganism loses its pathogenicity but
retains its capacity for transient growth?
a. Live attenuated vaccine
b. Toxoid vaccine
c. Inactivated vaccine
d. Polysaccharides

A

Live attenuated vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following is associated with
defective killing by phagocytes?
a. CGD
b. SCID
c. Di George Anomaly
d. WAS

A

CGD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

These antibodies are the marker for SLE and
the antibodies are associated with
active/severe disease and has been found
almost exclusively in patients with SLE.
Although they are found in only 25-30% of
patients, the presence of these antibodies is
considered diagnostic for SLE; the antibodies typically produce a speckled
staining pattern in FANA/IIF.
a. Anti-dsDNA
b. Anti-sm
c. Anti-RNP
d. Anti-DNP
e. Anti-nucleolar

A

Anti-sm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following markers is used for
the identification of NK cells and mediates
phagocytosis and ADCC?
a. CD4
b. CD8
c. CD16
d. CD56

A

CD16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How much diluent needs to be added to
0.25 ml of serum to make a 1:20 dilution?
a. 0.5 mL
b. 4.75 mL
c. 3.8 mL
d. 5 mL

A

4.75 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In an antibody titration, a 0.2mL aliquot of a
patient’s serum sample was added to 0.8mL
of saline, and this mixture was placed into
tube #1. A 0.5mL sample was removed from
tube 1 and placed into tube 2, containing
0.5mL of saline. This procedure was
repeated through tube #10. How should the
antibody titer be reported if the last positive
reaction was observed in tube #10?
a. 640
b. 2560
c. 5120
d. 10240

A

5120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The serum of an individual who received all
doses of the hepatitis B vaccine should
contain:
a. Anti-Hbs
b. Anti-Hbe
c. Anti-HBc
d. HBsAg

A

Anti-Hbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following is indicative of a
recent infection with T. gondii?
a. Anti-Toxoplasma IgM
b. Anti-Toxoplasma IgE
c. High avidity anti-Toxoplasma IgG
d. Low avidity anti-Toxoplasma IgG

A

d. Low avidity anti-Toxoplasma IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following is indicative of a
parasitic infection?
a. Increased IgA levels
b. Increased IgE levels
c. Increased IgG levels
d. Increased IgM levels

A

Increased IgE levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A person has an infected bug bite with pain,
swelling, and redness. What is the cause of
these physical symptoms of inflammation?
a. Production of antibody
b. Secondary immune response
c. Increased blood flow and neutrophils
to site
d. Activation of NK cells

A

Increased blood flow and neutrophils
to site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the associated autoantibodies in
autoimmune hepatitis?
a. Anti-smooth muscle antibody
b. Anti-liver kidney microsomal antibody
c. Anti-liver cytosol type 1 antibody
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Destruction of the myelin sheath of axons
caused by the presence of antibody is
characteristic of which disease?
a. MS
b. CGD
c. MG
d. GPS

A

MS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the basic difference between the
RPR and VDRL tests?
a. The RPR detects antigen, whereas the
VDRL detects antibody.
b. The RPR test is read macroscopically,
whereas the VDRL is read
microscopically.
c. The RPR test is a treponemal test,
where the VDRL is nontreponemal.
d. There is no difference because they are
both non-specific test for syphilis

A

The RPR test is read macroscopically,
whereas the VDRL is read
microscopically.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the difference between
nephelometry and turbidimetry?
a. There is no difference between two
assays.
b. Nephelometry is newer example of
turbidimetry.
c. Nephelometry measures light
transmitted through a solution, and
turbidimetry measures light scattered in
a solution.
d. Nephelometry measures light scattered
in a solution, and turbidimetry
measures light transmitted through a
solution.

A

Nephelometry measures light scattered
in a solution, and turbidimetry
measures light transmitted through a
solution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Postzone causes false-negative reactions in
antibody titers. What is the remedy to
resolve this problem?
a. Excess antigen in test
b. Excess antibody in test
c. Repeat the test after a week
d. Both A and B
e. Both A and C

A

Repeat the test after a week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which Immunoglobulin best initiate the
classic complement pathway?
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. Both A and C
e. Both B and C

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which agglutination test in detecting
syphilis uses glutaraldehyde-stabilized
turkey RBCs?
a. HATTS
b. TPHA
c. MHA-TP
d. TPPA

A

HATTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following would represent a
double negative thymocyte?
a. CD2- CD3+ CD4- CD8+
b. CD2- CD3- CD4+ CD8-
c. CD2+ CD3+ CD4- CD8-
d. CD2- CD3- CD4+ CD8+

A

CD2+ CD3+ CD4- CD8-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What B cell maturation stage is
characterized by the presence of IgM and
IgD on the cell’s cytoplasm?
a. Plasma cells
b. Mature B cells
c. Immature B cells
d. Pre-B cell

A

Plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity reaction:
I. Contact dermatitis
II. Jewelry and latex
III. Poison Ivy
IV. SLE
V. Peanut allergies
a. I, II, III
b. I, II, III, IV
c. I, II, III, IV, V
d. I, II, III, V
e. I and III

A

I, II, III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A positive result in Agglutination inhibition
test is indicated by:
a. Presence of agglutination
b. Absence of agglutination
c. Presence of hemolysis
d. Absence of hemolysis

A

Absence of agglutination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A positive result in Complement Fixation
test is indicated by:
a. Presence of agglutination
b. Absence of agglutination
c. Presence of hemolysis
d. Absence of hemolysis

A

Absence of hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

MHC class I-deficient diseased cells trigger
and activate:
a. B cells
b. T cells
c. NK cells
d. Interferon

A

NK cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Hybridoma is produced from the fusion of:
a. T cells and plasma
b. B cells and plasma
c. Myeloma and plasma cells
d. Myeloma and T cells

A

Myeloma and plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Reverse passive agglutination:
I. Antigen is attached to a carrier
particle.
II. Antibody is attached to a carrier
particle. III. Agglutination occurs if the patient
antibody is present.
IV. Agglutination occurs if the patient
antigen is present.
a. I, III
b. II, IV
c. I, IV
d. II, III

A

II, IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

. RF is associated with which immunoglobulin
classes?
a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgA
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following does not
characterize T cell function?
a. Produce and secrete immunoglobulins
b. Develop killer cells that produce
cytokines
c. Suppress the immune response
d. Develop helper cells

A

Produce and secrete immunoglobulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

During the “window phase” of HBV
infection, which of the following may be the
only detectable marker?
a. Anti-HBc
b. Anti-HBe
c. Anti-HBs
d. HBsAg

A

Anti-HBc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the following statements
regarding immunogenicity is true:
a. The immunogen must be recognized by
the body as nonself.
b. The immunogen must be greater than
10 Da.
c. Proteins and carbohydrates are the
most immunogenic, whereas lipids and
nucleic acids are weakly immunogenic.
d. The more complex a molecule, the
more immunogenic it becomes

A

The immunogen must be greater than
10 Da.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The interaction between individual antigen
and antibody molecules depends on several
types of bonds, such as ionic bonds,
hydrogen bonds, hydrophobic binds, and
van der Waals forces. How is the strength of
this attraction characterized?
a. Avidity
b. Affinity
c. Reactivity
d. Valency

A

Affinity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What disease is indicated by a high titer of
anti-Sm antibody?
a. MTCD
b. RA
c. SLE
d. Scleroderma

A

SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which immunoglobulin can cross the
placenta? *
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgE

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following is not a type 1
hypersensitivity reaction? *
a. Asthma
b. Hay Fever
c. Serum Sickness
d. Urticaria

A

Serum Sickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following is associated with
MHC class I? *
a. HLA-A, B, C
b. Exogenous
c. Endogenous
d. A and B
e. A and C

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which CD4:CD8 ratio is most likely in a
patient with AIDS? *
a. 1:2
b. 2:1
c. 1.5:1
d. 1:1.5

A

1:2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Antigenic groups identified by different sets
of antibodies reacting in a similar manner to
certain standard cell lines best describes:
a. Cytokines
b. CD
c. Neutrophil granules
d. Opsonin

A

CD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The action of CRP can be distinguished from
that of an antibody because:
a. CRP acts after the antibody appears
b. Only the antibody triggers the
complement cascades
c. Binding the antibody is calcium
dependent
d. CRP acts before the antibody appears

A

CRP acts before the antibody appears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When combining acid and water, *
a. Acid is added to water
b. Water is added to acid
c. Water is slowly added to acid
d. Both solutions are combined
simultaneously

A

Acid is added to water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

If a serological test is positive for an
individual who does not have a particular
disease, the result was caused by a problem
with:
a. Sensitivity
b. Specificity
c. Accuracy
d. Poor pipetting

A

Specificity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which technique represents a singlediffusion reaction?
a. RID
b. Ouchterlony diffusion
c. Immunoelectrophoresis
d. Immunofixation electrophoresis

A

RID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which of the following correctly describes
reverse passive agglutination?
a. It is a negative test.
b. It can be used to detect autoantibodies.
c. It is used for identification of antigens.
d. It is used to detect sensitization of RBC.

A

It is used for identification of antigens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which of the following statements
accurately describes competitive binding
assays?
a. Excess binding sites for the analyte are
provided.
b. Labeled and unlabeled analyte are
present in equal amounts.
c. The concentration of patient analyte is
inversely proportional to bound label.
d. All the patient analyte is bound in the
reaction

A

The concentration of patient analyte is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

In a noncompetitive enzyme immunoassay,
if a negative control shows the presence of
color, which of the following might be a
possible explanation?
a. No reagent was added.
b. Washing step were incomplete.
c. The enzyme was inactivated.
d. No substrate was present.

A

Washing step were incomplete.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

. Which of the following would support the
diagnosis of drug-induced lupus?
a. Antihistone antibodies
b. Antibodies to smith antigen
c. Presence of RF
d. Antibodies to SS-A and SS-B antigens

A

Antihistone antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The process whereby the leukocyte
squeezes in ameboid fashion across the
endothelial cells. This almost always
happens at endothelial cell borders.
a. Chemotaxis
b. Vasodilation
c. Transmigration
d. None of the above

A

Transmigration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

. Colostrum:
a. Active natural immunity
b. Active artificial immunity
c. Passive natural immunity
d. Passive artificial immunity

A

Passive natural immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

In primary biliary cirrhosis, which of the
following antibodies is seen in high titers?
a. Antimitochondrial
b. Anti-smooth muscle
c. Anti-DNA
d. Anti-parietal cell

A

Antimitochondrial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Live attenuated vaccine:
a. Rabies
b. Tetanus
c. Hepatitis B
d. Measles

A

Measles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What kind of antigen-antibody reaction
would be expected if soluble antigen is
added to homologous antibody?
a. Precipitation
b. Agglutination
c. Complement fixation
d. Hemagglutination

A

Precipitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A specific component of the adaptive
immune system that is formed in response
to antigenic stimulation: *
a. Lysozyme
b. Complement
c. Commensal organisms
d. Immunoglobulin

A

Immunoglobulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Anti-glomerular basement membrane
antibody is most often associated with this
condition: *
a. Goodpasture disease
b. SLE
c. Celiac disease
d. Chronic active hepatitis

A

Goodpasture disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

This is a surrogate testing for HBV that is no
longer required. *
a. ALT
b. HBsAg
c. Anti-HBc
d. Anti-HBsAg

A

ALT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which WBC is not an end cell? *
a. B cell
b. Neutrophil
c. Eosinophil
d. Basophil
e. Monocyte

A

Monocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

T cells are incapable of functioning as: *
a. Cytotoxic cells
b. Helper cells
c. Phagocytic cell
d. Regulatory cell

A

Phagocytic cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Antigen receptor on T cells bind HLA class II
molecules with the help of which accessory
molecule? *
a. CD2
b. CD3
c. CD4
d. CD8

A

CD4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Flocculation test for syphilis detects the
presence of: *
a. Reagin
b. anticardiolipin
c. Cardiolipin
d. Both A and B
e. Both A and C

A

Both A and B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the purpose of the hemolytic
system in a complement fixation test?
a. To test the patient’s serum for the
presence of antibodies
b. To act as an indicator and provide a
visible reaction
c. To test the red blood cells
d. To make certain that the serum is not
anticomplementary

A

To act as an indicator and provide a
visible reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the diameter of the ceramic ring in
mm used for quantitative VDRL?
a. 14
b. 15
c. 16
d. 18

A

14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The quantitative VDRL test is performed on
all sera in which qualitative VDRL test?
a. Nonreactive
b. Reactive
c. Weakly reactive
d. Either reactive or weakly reactive

A

either reactive or weakly reactive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The reactions on DNA-methyl green
substrates when testing for the presence of
anti-DNase are: POSITIVE- NEGATIVE
A. Blue Yellow
B. Red Orange
C.Green Colorless
D.Purple Yellow

A

Green Colorless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Forssman antibodies are absorbed by:
a. Boiled beef cells
b. Guinea pig kidney antigen
c. Neither beef cells nor guinea pig kidney
antigen
d. Both beef cells and guinea pig kidney
antigen

A

Guinea pig kidney antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The Weil-Felix test is used for the detection
of which type of antibodies?
a. Salmonella
b. Mycoplasma
c. Rickettsia
d. Viral

A

Rickettsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the gold standard test for the
detection of VZV antibody?
a. FAMA
b. IFA
c. Sabin-Feldman Dye Test
d. Culture

A

FAMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How many molecules of IgM are needed to
fix complement?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

In Direct Immunofluorescent assay, ___ that
is conjugated with a fluorescent tag is added
directly to unknown ____ that is fixed to a
microscope slide.
a. Antigen, antibody
b. Antibody, antigen
c. Enzyme, antigen
d. Enzyme, antibody

A

Antibody, antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which of the tests is/are correctly matched?
*
a. Southern: DNA
b. Southern: RNA
c. Northern: DNA
d. Northern: RNA

A

Southern: DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which serum antibody response usually
characterizes the primary stage of syphilis?
*
a. Antibodies against syphilis are
undetectable
b. Detected 1-3 weeks after appearance
of primary chancre
c. Detected in 50% of cases before the
primary chancre disappears
d. Detected within 2 weeks after infection

A

Detected 1-3 weeks after appearance
of primary chancre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which tests are considered screening test
for HIV? *
a. ELISA, 4th generation, and rapid
antibody tests
b. Immunofluorescence, western blot,
radioimmuno-precipitation assay
c. Culture, antigen capture assay, DNA
amplification
d. Reverse transcriptase and messenger
RNA assay

A

ELISA, 4th generation, and rapid
antibody tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

0.2 mL of serum is transferred to tube # 1
and 3.8 mL of saline is added to dilute the sample. Determine the Dilution Factor for
tube number # 1. *

a. 3.6 mL
b. 3.8 mL
c. 1:20
d. 1:10
e. 1:4

A

1:20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Cell-mediated adaptive immunity: *
a. T cell
b. B cell
c. Dendritic cell
d. NK cell

A

T cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Immune complex: *
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV

A

Type III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What region differentiates various classes of
immunoglobulin? *
a. Constant region of the heavy chain
b. Variable region of the heavy chain
c. Constant region of the light chain
d. Variable region of the light chain

A

Constant region of the heavy chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

True about Sabin-Feldman Dye Test, except:
*
a. Measures IgG antibodies
b. Its principle involves neutralization
c. Makes use of living organism
d. Positive result: stained deeply blue
with methylene blue

A

Positive result: stained deeply blue
with methylene blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the most common complement
deficiency?
a. C1
b. C2
c. C3
d. C5

A

C2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the most severe complement
deficiency?
a. C1
b. C2
c. C3
d. MAC

A

C3

80
Q

The HLA complex is located primarily on:
a. Short arm of chromosome 6
b. Long arm of chromosome 6
c. Short arm of chromosome 9
d. Long arm of chromosome 9

A

Short arm of chromosome 6

81
Q

Used for treatment of hepatitis C and Kaposi
sarcoma:
a. IFN-alpha
b. IFN-beta
c. TNF-beta
d. TNF-alpha

A

IFN-beta

82
Q

Anticoagulant used for microlymphotoxicity
testing?
a. Heparin
b. EDTA
c. ACD
d. None

A

ACD

83
Q

This cytokine stimulates the production of
IFN-y by NK and T cells, differentiation of
naïve T cells into Th1 cells and enhances
cytolytic functions of activated NK cells and
CD8+ Tc cells.
a. IL-12
b. IL-1
c. IL-2
d. IL-6

A

IL-12

84
Q

B8:
I. Celiac Disease
II. Behcet syndrome
III. DM
IV. Addison’s disease
V. MG
a. I, II, III
b. I, III, IV
c. I, IV, V
d. I, II, III, IV, V

A

I, IV, V

85
Q

. Which of the following is a screening
serological test for HIV infection?
a. ELISA
b. Dot Blot Testing
c. Latex Agglutination
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

86
Q

_____ measure the amount of circulating
HIV nucleic acid and play an essential role in
helping physicians predict disease
progression, monitor patient response to
antiretroviral therapy, and guide treatment
decisions.
a. Quantitative NAT viral load assay
b. Qualitative Acid Test
c. Western Blot
d. ELISA

A

Quantitative NAT viral load assay

87
Q

A viral protein product of HIV that binds to
CD4+ T cells:
a. gp120
b. gp41
c. gp160
d. p24

A

gp120

88
Q

HBsAg: negative
Anti-HBc: Positive
Anti-HBs: Positive
a. Susceptible
b. Immunity due to natural infection
c. Immunity due to vaccination
d. Chronically infected

A

Immunity due to natural infection

89
Q

What is the indication that a patient
suspected of having H. pylori is positive for
CLOtest?
a. The gel will turn into a hot pink color
b. The gel will turn into a yellow color
c. The gel will remain yellow
d. The gel will remain hot pink

A

The gel will turn into a hot pink color

90
Q

This test is perform in patients suspected of
having glomerulonephritis preceded by
streptococcal skin infections, as ASO
antibodies often are not stimulated by this
type of disease:
a. Anti-DNase testing
b. ASO
c. Streptozyme Kit Testing
d. Slide agglutination test

A

Anti-DNase testing

91
Q

Which of the following statements regarding
labeled immunoassay is true, except:
a. In noncompetitive IA, excess antibody is
present.
b. In competitive IA, limited number of
antibody-binding site is present.
c. In homogenous IA, no separation step is
necessary.
d. Most immunoassays use a semi-solid
phase vehicle for separation such as
plastic beads and microtiter plates.

A

Most immunoassays use a semi-solid
phase vehicle for separation such as
plastic beads and microtiter plates.

92
Q

Errors in agglutination that can cause false
negative result:
a. Overcentrifugation
b. Autoagglutination
c. Presence of heterophile antibody
d. Inadequate washing of cells

A

Inadequate washing of cells

93
Q

Grading of Agglutination: Tiny aggregates
barely visible macroscopically; many free
erythrocytes; turbid and reddish
supernatant:
a. 1+
b. 2+
c. 3+
d. Mixed field
e. Weak

A

Weak

94
Q

Which is most likely a positive Western blot
result for infection with HIV?
a. Band at p24
b. Band at gp60
c. Bands at p24 and p31
d. Bands at p24 and gp120

A

Bands at p24 and gp120

95
Q

Which of the following is a treponemal test?
a. RST
b. RPR
c. FTA-ABS
d. VDRL

A

VDRL

96
Q

Lectin pathway C5 convertase:
a. C4b2a3b
b. iC3bBb3b
c. C3bBb
d. None

A

C4b2a3b

97
Q

Molecular Weight: IgG
a. 900,000 Da
b. 190,000 Da
c. 180,000 Da
d. 150,000 Da

A

150,000 Da

98
Q

This term refers to the variations in
constant regions:
a. Isotype
b. Allotype
c. Idiotype
d. Hinge region

A

Allotype

99
Q

*A blood donor has the genotype: hh, AB. Using antiA and anti-B antisera, the donor’s red cells will type as
group:
A. B
B. A
C. O
D. AB

A

O

100
Q

N-acetyl-D-galactosamine is the immunodominant
carbohydrate that reacts with:
A. Arachis hypogaea
B. Salvia sclarea
C. Dolichos biflorus
D. Ulex europeaus

A

Dolichos biflorus

101
Q

What should be done if all forward and reverse ABO
results are negative?
A. Perform additional testing such as typing with antiA1 lectin and anti-A,B
B. Incubate at 22°C or 4°C to enhance weak expression
C. Repeat the test with new reagents
D. Run an antibody identification panel

A

Incubate at 22°C or 4°C to enhance weak expression

102
Q

The reason that group O individuals have the most
amount of H antigen on their red cells compared to
other ABO phenotypes is:
A. Group O individuals produce more precursor type I
chain
B. Group A, B, and AB individuals are heterozygous for
the H gene
C. The O gene produces more transferase enzyme,
which produces more H antigen
D. H antigen is left unchanged by the absence of A
and/or B transferase enzymes

A

H antigen is left unchanged by the absence of A
and/or B transferase enzymes

103
Q

The purpose of testing with anti-A,B is to detect:
A. Anti-A1
B. Anti-A2
C. Subgroups of A
D. Subgroups of O

A

Subgroups of A

104
Q

What type of serological testing does the blood bank
technologist perform when determining the blood
group of a patient?
A. Genotyping
B. Phenotyping
C. Both genotyping and phenotyping
D. Polymerase chain reaction

A

Phenotyping

105
Q

A patient’s ABO blood type is determined by which of
the following?
A. Genetic inheritance and environmental factors
B. Genetic inheritance
C. Environmental factors
D. Immune function

A

Genetic inheritance

106
Q

An end-point of tube testing other than agglutination
that must also be considered a positive reaction is
called:
A. Clumping
B. Mixed field
C. Hemolysis
D. Agglutination

A

Hemolysis

107
Q

What term describes using known sources of reagent
antisera (known antibodies) to detect ABO antigens on
a patient’s red cells?
A. Rh Typing
B. Reverse Grouping
C. Direct Antiglobulin Test
D. Forward Grouping

A

Forward Grouping

108
Q

Yellow antisera: 4+; Blue antisera: 0
A. A
B. B
C. A+
D. B+

A

B

109
Q

*Biochemically speaking, what type of molecules
are Rh antigens?
A. Glycophorins
B. Simple sugars
C. Lipids
D. Proteins

A

Proteins

110
Q

*Which of the following red cell genotypes would
react negatively with anti-G?
A. R0r
B. rr
C. R2r
D. r′r

A

rr

111
Q

Which of the following phenotypes will react with
anti-f?
A. rr
B. R1R1
C. R2R2
D. R1R2

A

A. rr

112
Q

A complete Rh typing for antigens C, c, D, E, and e
revealed negative results for C, D, and E. How is the
individual designated?
A. Rh positive
B. Rh negative
C. Positive for c and e
D. Impossible to determine

A

Rh negative

113
Q

A patient types as AB and appears to be Rh(+) on
slide typing. What additional tests should be performed
for tube typing?
A. Rh negative control
B. Direct antiglobulin test (DAT)
C. Low-protein Rh antisera
D. No additional testing is needed

A

Rh negative control

114
Q

In an emergency situation, Rh-negative red cells are
transfused into an Rh-positive person of the genotype
R1R1. The first antibody most likely to develop is:
A. Anti-c
B. Anti-d
C. Anti-e
D. Anti-E

A

Anti-c

115
Q

Which technology may report an Rh-weak D positive
as Rh negative?
A. Gel System
B. Solid Phase
C. Tube Testing
D. None of these options

A

Gel System

116
Q

If a D-positive person makes an anti-D, this person is
probably:
A. Partial D
B. D-negative
C. Weak D as position effect
D. Weak D due to transmissible genes

A

Partial D

117
Q

Which of the following genes on chromosome 1
encodes for the 4 common antigen combinations ce, cE,
Ce, and CE?
A. RHD
B. RHCE
C. RHD and RHCE
D. Rhd and RHce

A

. RHCE

118
Q

Which of the following weak D donor units should
be labeled Rh-positive?
A. Weak D due to transmissible genes
B. Weak D as position effect
C. Weak partial D
D. All the above

A

All the above

119
Q

*Which antigen is destroyed by enzymes?
A. P1
B. Jsa
C. Fya
D. Jka

A

Fya

120
Q

The autoantibody most often implicated in PCH is:
A. Cold-reactive, IgG, anti-P
B. Cold-reactive, IgM, anti-P
C. Cold-reactive, IgG, anti-I
D. Cold-reactive, IgM, anti-I

A

Cold-reactive, IgG, anti-P

121
Q

A patient’s antibody identification panel
demonstrates anti-M. The antibody is most reactive
with homozygous M+ cells compared to heterozygous
M+ cells. Which of the following cells would
demonstrate the strongest reaction?
A. M-N+S-s+
B. M+N+S+s+
C. M+N-S-s+
D. M+N+S-s

A

M+N-S-s+

122
Q

In Group O individuals with Le and Se genes, what
ABH and LE antigens are present in their secretions?
A. Lea, Leb
B. Lea, Leb, H
C. Lea, H
D. Leb, H

A

Lea, Leb, H

123
Q

Which of the following statements is not true about
anti-U?
A. Is clinically significant
B. Is only found in black individuals
C. Only occurs in S-s- individuals
D. Only occurs in Fy(a-b-) individuals

A

Only occurs in Fy(a-b-) individuals

124
Q

What sample is best for detecting complementdependent antibodies?
A. Plasma stored at 4°C for no longer than 24 hours
B. Serum stored at 4°C for no longer than 48 hours
C. Either serum or plasma stored at 20°C–24°C no
longer than 6 hours
D. Serum heated at 56°C for 30 minutes

A

Serum stored at 4°C for no longer than 48 hours

125
Q

*Which of the following has been associated with
causing severe immediate HTRs?
A. Anti-JMH
B. Anti-Lub
C. Anti-Vel
D. Anti-Sda

A

Anti-Vel

126
Q

Transfusion of Chido-positive red cells to a patient
with anti-Ch has been reported to cause:
A. No clinically significant red cell destruction
B. Clinically significant immune red cell destruction
C. Decreased 51Cr red cell survivals
D. Febrile transfusion reactions

A

No clinically significant red cell destruction

127
Q

A potential donor has no exclusions, but she weighs
only 95 pounds. What is the allowable amount of blood
(including samples) that can be drawn?
A. 367 mL
B. 378 mL
C. 454 mL
D. 473 mL

A

454 mL

128
Q

Which of the following is an acceptable time in
which a unit of whole blood is collected?
A. 33 minutes
B. 25 minutes
C. 20 minutes
D. 13 minutes

A

13 minutes

129
Q

Who is the best candidate for a predeposit
autologous donation?
A. A 45-year-old man who is having elective surgery in
2 weeks; he has alloanti-k
B. A 23-year-old female leukemia patient with a
hemoglobin of 10 g/dL
C. A 12-year-old boy who has hemophilia
D. A 53-year-old woman who has septicemia

A

A 45-year-old man who is having elective surgery in
2 weeks; he has alloanti-k

130
Q

A woman begins to breathe rapidly while donating
blood. Choose the correct course of action.
A. Continue the donation; rapid breathing is not a
reason to discontinue a donation
B. Withdraw the needle, raise her feet, and administer
ammonia
C. Discontinue the donation and provide a paper bag
D. Tell her to sit upright and apply a cold compress to
her forehead

A

Discontinue the donation and provide a paper bag

131
Q

A donor with a physician’s request to donate for
planned surgery in 3 weeks has a hemoglobin value of
10 g/dL. What is her eligibility status?
A. Permitted to donate as an autologous donor
B. Deferred because of low hemoglobin
C. Permitted to donate with the approval of the blood
bank’s medical director
D. Permitted to donate a smaller unit of blood

A

Deferred because of low hemoglobin

132
Q

How much anticoagulant would have to be removed
from the collection bag given a donor who weighs 90 lb?
A. 12 mL
B. 15 mL
C. 20 mL
D. 23 mL

A

12 mL

133
Q

A donor bag is half filled during donation when the
blood flow stops. Select the correct course of action.
A. Closely observe the bag for at least 3 minutes; if
blood flow does not resume, withdraw the needle
B. Remove the needle immediately and discontinue
the donation
C. Check and reposition the needle if necessary; if
blood flow does not resume, withdraw the needle
D. Withdraw the needle and perform a second
venipuncture in the other arm

A

Check and reposition the needle if necessary; if
blood flow does not resume, withdraw the needle

134
Q

Which of the following information is not required
for whole blood donation?
A. Name
B. Address
C. Transfusion history
D. Sex

A

Transfusion history

135
Q
A
136
Q

Which of the following refers to a temporary
deferral?
A. Donor received varicella zoster live attenuated
vaccine
B. Donor had a confirmed positive test for HBsAg
C. Donor has a history of CJD
D. Donor was diagnosed with babesiosis

A

Donor received varicella zoster live attenuated
vaccine

137
Q

When RBCs are stored, there is a “shift to the left.”
This means:
A. Hemoglobin-oxygen affinity increases, owing to an
increase in 2,3-DPG.
B. Hemoglobin-oxygen affinity increases, owing to a
decrease in 2,3-DPG.
C. Hemoglobin-oxygen affinity decreases, owing to a
decrease in 2,3-DPG.
D. Hemoglobin-oxygen affinity decreases, owing to an
increase in 2,3-DPG.

A

Hemoglobin-oxygen affinity increases, owing to a
decrease in 2,3-DPG.

138
Q

The temperature range for maintaining red blood
cells and whole blood during shipping is:
A. 0-4 °C
B. 1-6 °C
C. 1-10 °C
D. 20-24 °C

A

1-10 °C

139
Q

. If the seal is entered or broken on a unit of Red Blood
Cells stored at 1-6 °C, what is the maximum allowable
storage period, in hours?
A. 6
B. 24
C. 48
D. 72

A

24

140
Q

A unit of Red Blood Cells that expires in 32 days has
just been irradiated. The expiration date of this unit will:
A. Remain the same
B. Be reduced by 4 days
C. Be reduced by 14 days
D. Be increased by 2 days

A

Be reduced by 4 days

141
Q

Which of the following is proper procedure for
preparation of platelets from whole blood?
A. Light spin followed by a hard spin
B. Light spin followed by 2 hard spins
C. 2 Light spins
D. Hard spin followed by a light spin

A

Light spin followed by a hard spin

142
Q

What percentage of red blood cells must be retained
when preparing Red Blood Cells Leukocytes Reduced?
A. 75%
B. 80%
C. 85%
D. 90%

A

85%

143
Q

What is a special condition for the storage of
platelets?
A. Room temperature, 20°C–24°C
B. No other components may be stored with platelets
C. Platelets must be stored upright in separate
containers
D. Platelets require constant agitation at 20°C–24°C

A

Platelets require constant agitation at 20°C–24°C

144
Q

When is the expiration date of whole blood in CPDA1 collected on August 7, 2024?
A. August 7, 2025
B. September 11, 2024
C. August 28, 2024
D. August 12, 202

A

September 11, 2024

145
Q

The most common anticoagulant used for apheresis
procedures is:
A. Heparin
B. Sodium fluoride
C. Warfarin
D. Citrate

A

Citrate

146
Q

*Cryoprecipitated AHF contains all of the following,
EXCEPT:
A. Cryoglobulin
B. Fibronectin
C. Fibrinogen
D. Red Blood Cells

A

Red Blood Cells

147
Q

*FFP is used to treat the following, EXCEPT:
A. DIC
B. Liver Disease
C. Vitamin K Deficiency
D. Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

A

Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

148
Q

Prothrombin complex concentrates are used to treat
which of the following?
A. Factor IX deficiency
B. Factor VIII deficiency
C. Factor XII deficiency
D. Factor XIII deficiency

A

Factor IX deficiency

149
Q

FFP from a Group A, Rh-positive donor may be safely
transfused to a patient who is:
A. Group A, Rh-negative
B. Group B, Rh-negative
C. Group AB, Rh-positive
D. Group AB, Rh-negative

A

Group A, Rh-negative

150
Q

Use of only male donors as a source of plasma
intended for transfusion is advocated to reduce which
type of reaction?
A. Allergic
B. TRALI
C. Hemolytic
D. TACO

A

TRALI

151
Q

Thawed plasma must be stored at:
A. ≥-18 °C
B. 1-6 °C
C. 1-10 °C
D. 20-24 °C

A

1-6 °C

152
Q

Which is the most likely reason frozen deglycerolized
red blood cells would be used?
A. A patient with antibodies to a high-frequency
antigen
B. Pregnant women requiring intrauterine
transfusions
C. Emergency transfusion situations
D. Group AB Rh-negative patients

A

A patient with antibodies to a high-frequency
antigen

153
Q

Which type of transplantation requires all cellular
blood components to be irradiated?
A. Bone marrow
B. Heart
C. Liver
D. Kidney

A

Bone marrow

154
Q

Select the appropriate product for a bone marrow
transplant patient with anemia:
A. RBCs
B. Irradiated RBCs
C. Leukoreduced RBCs
D. Washed RBCs

A

Irradiated RBCs

155
Q

Which fluid should be used to dilute RBCs?
A. 0.9% saline
B. 5% dextrose and water
C. Immune globulin
D. Lactated Ringer solution

A

0.9% saline

156
Q

Which of the following can be given to an apheresis
donor to increase the number of circulating
granulocytes?
A. DDAVP
B. Hydroxyethyl starch (HES)
C. Immune globulin
D. G-CSF

A

G-CSF

157
Q

The specificity of the antibody in warm autoimmune
hemolytic anemia (WAIHA) is most often associated
with which of the following blood group systems?
A. ABO
B. Kell
C. Kidd
D. Rh

A

Rh

158
Q

*The following are delayed immune transfusion
reactions, EXCEPT:
A. Hemolytic
B. TA-GVHD
C. Hemosiderosis
D. PTP

A

Hemosiderosis

159
Q

Hypotension, nausea, flushing, fever and chills are
symptoms of which of the following transfusion
reactions?
A. Allergic
B. Circulatory overload
C. Hemolytic
D. Anaphylactic

A

Hemolytic

160
Q

. A trauma patient who has just received 10 units of
blood may develop:
A. Anemia
B. Polycythemia
C. Leukocytosis
D. Thrombocytopenia

A

Thrombocytopenia

161
Q

Nonimmune hemolysis can be caused during
transfusion by:
A. Use of small bore size needle
B. Use of an infusion pump
C. Improper use of a blood warmer
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

162
Q

Transfusion reactions are classified according to:
A. Signs or symptoms presenting during or after 24
hours
B. Immune or nonimmune
C. Infectious or noninfectious
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

163
Q

With febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reactions,
except:
A. They are self-limited.
B. Fever resolves within 2 to 3 hours.
C. Treatment is required.
D. No exception

A

Treatment is required.

164
Q

The most frequent transfusion-associated disease
complication of blood transfusions is:
A. CMV
B. Syphilis
C. Hepatitis
D. HIV-1/2

A

Hepatitis

165
Q

Currently, which of the following does the AABB
consider to be the most significant infectious threat
from transfusion?
A. Bacterial contamination
B. CMV
C. Hepatitis
D. HIV

A

Bacterial contamination

166
Q

The major crossmatch will detect a(n):
A. Group A patient mistyped as Group O
B. Unexpected red cell antibody in the donor unit
C. Rh-negative donor unit mislabeled as Rh-positive
D. Recipient antibody directed against antigens on the
donor red cells

A

Recipient antibody directed against antigens on the
donor red cells

167
Q

A 10% red cell suspension in saline is used in a
compatibility test. Which of the following would most
likely occur?
A. False-positive result due to antigen excess
B. False positive result due to the prozone
phenomenon
C. False-negative result due to the prozone
phenomenon
D. False-negative result due to antigen excess

A

False-negative result due to antigen excess

168
Q

While performing an antibody screen, a test reaction
is suspected to be rouleaux. A saline replacement test is
performed and the reaction remains. What is the best
interpretation?
A. Original reaction of rouleaux is confirmed
B. Replacement test is invalid and should be repeated
C. Original reaction was due to true agglutination
D. Antibody screen is negative

A

Original reaction was due to true agglutination

169
Q

What is the purpose of the immediate spin
crossmatch?
A. Detect clinically significant alloantibodies in
recipient
B. Detect ABO incompatibility between donor and
recipient
C. Verify the correct blood sample from recipient was
collected
D. Verify the presence of IgM alloantibodies in the
recipient

A

Detect ABO incompatibility between donor and
recipient

170
Q

The crossmatch is performed using:
A. Donor’s serum and recipient’s red cells
B. Donor’s red cells and recipient’s serum
C. Donor’s serum and reagent red cells
D. Recipient’s serum and reagent red cells

A

Donor’s red cells and recipient’s serum

171
Q

A genetic state in which no detectable trait exists is
called:
A. Recessive
B. Dominant
C. Incomplete dominance
D. Amorph

A

Amorph

172
Q

Most blood group antigens are expressed as a result
of which of the following?
A. Autosomal recessive inheritance
B. X-linked dominant inheritance
C. Y-linked recessive inheritance
D. Autosomal codominant inheritance

A

Autosomal codominant inheritance

173
Q

In which of the following is the IAT utilized?
A. Reverse ABO testing
B. Immediate spin crossmatch
C. C antigen testing
D. Antibody detection (screening) test

A

Antibody detection (screening) test

174
Q

A negative result using solid phase adherence assays
will demonstrate indicator red cells as:
A. A red blood cell pellet in the bottom of the well
B. A diffuse pattern of red blood cells throughout the
well
C. Red blood cell clumps symmetrically located
throughout the well
D. A red supernatant, indicating lysis

A

A red blood cell pellet in the bottom of the well

175
Q

A false-positive indirect antiglobulin test can be the
result of:
A. Insufficient saline washing of red cells
B. Inadequate incubation time
C. Overcentrifugation
D. Dissociation of cell bound IgG

A

Overcentrifugation

176
Q
A
177
Q

A group B, Rh-negative patient has a positive DAT.
Which of the following situations would occur?
A. All major crossmatches would be incompatible
B. The weak D test and control would be positive
C. The antibody screening test would be positive
D. The forward and reverse ABO groupings would not
agree

A

The weak D test and control would be positive

178
Q

Which of the following tests is most commonly used
to detect antibodies attached to a patient’s red blood
cells in vivo?
A. Direct antiglobulin
B. Complement fixation
C. Indirect antiglobulin
D. Immunofluorescence

A

Direct antiglobulin

179
Q

Polyspecific AHG reagent contains:
A. Anti-IgG and anti-IgA
B. Anti-IgG and anti-IgM
C. Anti-IgG and anti-C3d
D. Anti-IgA and Anti-C3d

A

Anti-IgG and anti-C3d

180
Q

*Anti-Sda may be identified by neutralization with:
A. Urine
B. Hydatid cyst fluid
C. Plasma
D. Human breast milk

A

Urine

181
Q

The process of separation of antibody from its
antigen is known as:
A. Diffusion
B. Adsorption
C. Neutralization
D. Elution

A

Elution

182
Q

Which of the following antibodies does not match
the others in terms of optimal reactive temperature?
A. Anti-Fya
B. Anti-Jkb
C. Anti-N
D. Anti-U

A

Anti-N

183
Q

A request for 8 units of RBCs was received for patient
LF. The patient has a negative antibody screen, but 1 of
the 8 units was 3+ incompatible at the AHG phase.
Which of the following antibodies may be the cause?
A. Anti-K
B. Anti-Lea
C. Anti-Kpa
D. Anti-Fyb

A

Anti-Kpa

184
Q

*An Rh(+) father and an Rh(-) mother had their first
child without any complications or treatment. What are
the chances of a mother-fetus incompatibility should
they decide to have a second child?
A. 0%
B. Less than 50%
C. More than 50%
D. 100%

A

More than 50%

185
Q

A mother is group A, with anti-D in her serum. What
would be the preferred blood product if an intrauterine
transfusion is indicated?
A. O, Rh-negative RBCs, Irradiated, CMV safe
B. O, Rh-negative RBCs, Irradiated, CMV safe, HbSnegative
C. A, Rh-negative RBCs, Irradiated, CMV safe
D. A, Rh-negative RBCs, Irradiated, CMV safe HbSnegative

A

O, Rh-negative RBCs, Irradiated, CMV safe, HbSnegative

185
Q

ABO HDFN differs from Rh HDFN in that:
A. Rh HDFN is clinically more severe than ABO HDFN
B. The DAT is weaker in Rh HDFN than ABO HDFN
C. Rh HDFN occurs in the first pregnancy
D. The mother’s antibody screen is positive in ABO
HDN

A

Rh HDFN is clinically more severe than ABO HDFN

186
Q
  1. Criteria determining Rh immune globulin eligibility
    include:
    A. Mother is Rh-positive
    B. Infant is Rh-negative
    C. Mother has not been previously immunized to the
    D antigen
    D. Infant has a positive direct antiglobulin test
A

Mother has not been previously immunized to the
D antigen

187
Q

Which of the following is not true of an exchange
transfusion when an infant is suffering from HDN?
A. Removes unconjugated bilirubin
B. Reduces the amount of incompatible antibody in
the baby’s circulation
C. Removes antibody-coated red blood cells
D. Provides red blood cells of the baby’s type

A

Provides red blood cells of the baby’s type

188
Q

The etiology of HDFN is characterized by:
A. IgM antibody
B. Nearly always anti-D
C. Different RBC antigens between mother and father
D. Antibody titer less than 32

A

Different RBC antigens between mother and father

189
Q

Intravascular destruction of RBCs results when:
A. IgG sensitized red cells are destroyed by phagocytes
B. IgM antibodies activate complement to completion
C. Complement-sensitized red cells are destroyed by
phagocytes
D. IgG antibodies activate complement to C3b

A

IgM antibodies activate complement to completion

190
Q

Autoantibodies demonstrating blood group
specificity in WAIHA are associated more often with
which blood group system?
A. Rh
B. I
C. P
D. Fy

A

Rh

191
Q

The mechanism that best explains hemolytic anemia
due to penicillin is:
A. Drug-dependent antibodies reacting with drugcoated RBCs
B. Drug-dependent antibodies reacting in the
presence of drug
C. Drug-independent with autoantibody production
D. Nonimmunologic protein adsorption with positive
DAT

A

Drug-dependent antibodies reacting with drugcoated RBCs

192
Q

Immune hemolytic anemias may be classified in
which of the following categories?
A. Alloimmune
B. Autoimmune
C. Drug-induced
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

193
Q

Hemolytic transfusion reactions are the most
serious type of reactions to blood transfusion. The
majority of hemolytic transfusion reactions are caused
by which errors?
A. Blood typing
B. Antibody identification
C. Clerical
D. Crossmatching

A

Clerical

194
Q

Before blood is issued for transfusion, a patient’s
previous blood bank records must be reviewed. Which
of the following is not included in this review process?
A. ABO group and Rh type
B. Clinically significant antibodies
C. Serious adverse reactions
D. Hepatitis testing

A

Hepatitis testing

195
Q

. A diamond in a flow chart indicates:
A. An activity that is occurring
B. A decision point
C. A start or stop point in the process
D. None of the above

A

A decision point

MTLE RMT MARCH 2025 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions