AUBF Flashcards
The principle commonly used to measure
the concentration of a particular analyte in
the chemical examination of urine is:
A. Reflectance photometry
B. Digital imaging
C. Flow cytometry
D. Auto Particle recognition
Reflectance photometry
Reactivity score: “May deteriorate”
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
4
Correct hand washing includes all of the
following, except:
A. Using warm water
B. Rubbing to create a lather
C. Rinsing hands in a downward position
D. Turning on the water with a paper
towel
Turning on the water with a paper
towel
The best way to break the chain of infection
is:
A. Hand sanitizing
B. Personal protective equipment
C. Aerosol prevention
D. Decontamination
Hand sanitizing
Bacterial growth in an unpreserved
specimen will:
A. Decrease clarity
B. Increase bilirubin
C. Decrease pH
D. Increase glucose
Decrease clarity
If a patient fails to discard the first specimen
when collecting a timed specimen, then the:
A. Specimen must be re-collected
B. Results will be falsely elevated
C. Results will be falsely decreased
D. Both A and B
Both A and B
Stamey-Mears Test for Prostatitis: Which
specimen represents the urethral
specimen?
A. VB1
B. VB2
C. EPS
D. VB3
VB1
Which of the following ketone bodies is not
detected by the ketone reagent strip?
A. β-Hydroxybutyrate
B. Acetone
C. Acetoacetic acid
D. None of the above
β-Hydroxybutyrate
What is the correct temperature of a urine
for drug testing?
A. 32.7°C - 35.5°C
B. 35.2°C - 37.5°C
C. 32.5°C - 32.7°C
D. 32.5°C - 37.7°C
32.5°C - 37.7°C
Urine specimen collection for drug testing
requires the collector to do all of the
following except:
A. Inspect the specimen color
B. Perform reagent strip testing
C. Read the specimen temperature
D. Fill out a chain-of-custody form
Perform reagent strip testing
The renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system
is responsible for all of the following except:
A. Vasoconstriction of the afferent
arteriole
B. Vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole
C. Reabsorbing sodium
D. Releasing aldosterone
Vasoconstriction of the afferent
arteriole
Secretion of renin is stimulated by:
A. Juxtaglomerular cells
B. Angiotensin I and II
C. Macula densa cells
D. Circulating angiotensin-converting
enzyme
Macula densa cells
Which of the following tubules is
impermeable to water?
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Descending loop of Henle
C. Ascending loop of Henle
D. Distal convoluted tubule
Ascending loop of Henle
Solute dissolved in solvent will:
A. Raise the vapor pressure
B. Lower the boiling point
C. Decrease the osmotic pressure
D. Lower the freezing point
Lower the freezing point
If ammonia is not produced by the distal
convoluted tubule, the urine pH will be:
A. Acidic
B. Basic
C. Hypothenuric
D. Hypersthenuric
Basic
A patient experiencing polyuria has a low
urine osmolality even after fluid restriction
and an ADH challenge test. Which of the
following conditions might the patient
have?
A. Neurogenic diabetes insipidus
B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
C. Diabetes insipidus
D. SIADH
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Renal tubular acidosis can be caused by the:
A. Production of excessively acidic urine due
to increased filtration of hydrogen ions
B. Production of excessively acidic urine due
to increased secretion of hydrogen ions
C. Inability to produce an acidic urine due
to impaired production of ammonia
D. Inability to produce an acidic urine due to
increased production of ammonia
Inability to produce an acidic urine due
to impaired production of ammonia
Which of the following produces a yellow
foam when shaken?
A. Phenazopyridine
B. Albumin
C. Protein
D. None of the above
Phenazopyridine
Which of the following is an anticoagulant
that causes an orange color in alkaline urine,
and becomes colorless in acid urine?
A. Phenazopyridine
B. Phenindione
C. Nitrofurantoin
D. Acriflavine
Phenindione
Struvite calculi are frequently accompanied
by urinary infections involving the following
bacteria, except:
A. Proteus
B. Klebsiella
C. Escherichia coli
D. None of the above
Escherichia coli
When calibrating a refractometer using 9%
sucrose, it should give a specific gravity reading
of:
A. 1.000
B. 1.015
C. 1.022
D. 1.034
1.034
The principle of refractive index is to
compare:
A. Light velocity in solution with light Velocity in
solids
B. Light velocity in air with light velocity in
solutions
C. Light scattering by air with light scattering by
solutions
D. Light scattering by particles in solution
Light velocity in air with light velocity in
solutions
A specimen containing 1 g/dL protein and 1
g/dL glucose has a specific gravity reading of 1.030 using a refractometer. Calculate the
corrected reading.
A. 1.023
B. 1.027
C. 1.029
D. 1.032
1.023
Which of the following will react in the
reagent strip specific gravity test?
A. Glucose
B. Radiographic dye
C. Protein
D. Chloride
Chloride
A patient with a 2+ protein reading in the
afternoon is asked to submit a first morning
specimen. The second specimen has a negative
protein reading. This patient is:
A. Positive for orthostatic proteinuria
B. Negative for orthostatic proteinuria
C. Positive for Bence Jones protein
D. Negative for clinical proteinuria
Positive for orthostatic proteinuria
The reagent strip test for nitrite uses the:
A. Greiss reaction
B. Ehrlich reaction
C. Peroxidase reaction
D. Pseudoperoxidase reaction
Greiss reaction
The most common component of renal
calculi is:
A. Calcium oxalate
B. Magnesium ammonium phosphate
C. Cystine
D. Uric acid
Calcium oxalate
Which of the following crystals are
dumbbell-shaped and found primarily in alkaline
urine?
A. Calcium carbonate
B. Calcium oxalate
C. Calcium phosphate
D. A and B
Calcium carbonate
The primary component of urinary mucus is:
A. Bence Jones protein
B. Microalbumin
C. Uromodulin
D. Orthostatic protein
Uromodulin
Which of the following is reported as
quantity per low power field?
A. RBCs
B. Oval fat bodies
C. Abnormal crystals
D. Bacteria
Abnormal crystals
Cerebrospinal fluid is found between the:
A. arachnoid and dura mater.
B. arachnoid and pia mater.
C. pia mater and dura mater.
D. pia mater and choroid plexus.
arachnoid and pia mater.
When choroid plexus cells and ependymal
cells are present in the CSF, they:
A. Are often clinically significant.
B. Represent the demyelination of nerve tissue.
C. Can closely resemble clusters of malignant
cells.
D. Indicate breakdown of the blood-brain
barrier
Can closely resemble clusters of malignant
cells.
Which of the following proteins in the CSF is
used to monitor the integrity of the blood-brain
barrier?
A. Albumin
B. Transthyretin
C. Transferrin
D. Immunoglobulin G
Albumin
Which of the following tubes could be used
for a bacterial culture of serous fluid?
A. EDTA
B. Sodium citrate
C. Sodium fluoride
D. Sodium heparin
Sodium heparin
Thoracentesis refers specifically to the
removal of fluid from the:
A. Abdominal cavity
B. Pericardial cavity
C. Peritoneal cavity
D. Pleural cavity
Pleural cavity
Which of the following anticoagulants does
not have the potential to precipitate out in
crystalline form when used for synovial fluid
specimens?
A. Sodium citrate
B. Sodium heparin
C. Lithium heparin
D. Potassium oxalate
Sodium heparin
A synovial fluid specimen has a high cell
count and requires dilution to be counted.
Which of the following diluents should be used?
A. Normal saline
B. Dilute acetic acid (2%)
C. Dilute methanol (1%)
D. Phosphate buffer solution (0.050mol/L)
Normal saline
Differentiation of synovial fluid crystals,
based on their birefringence, is achieved using:
A. transmission electron microscopy.
B. phase-contrast microscopy.
C. direct polarizing microscopy.
D. compensated polarizing microscopy
compensated polarizing microscopy
The primary function of semen is to:
A. Nourish the spermatozoa.
B. Coagulate the ejaculate.
C. Transport the spermatozoa.
D. Stimulate sperm maturation
Transport the spermatozoa.
Which of the following conditions adversely
affects the quality of a semen specimen?
A. The use of silastic condoms
B. The time of day the collection is obtained
C. The collection of the specimen in a glass
container
D. The storage of the specimen at refrigerator
temperatures
The storage of the specimen at refrigerator
temperatures
Specimens can be screened for the presence
of fructose using the ____________ that
produces an orange color when fructose is
present:
A. Benedict’s test
B. Seliwanoff’s test
C. Resorcinol test
D. Clinitest
Resorcinol test
Which of the following best represents a
hemothorax?
A. Blood HCT: 42 Fluid HCT: 15
B. Blood HCT: 42 Fluid HCT: 10
C. Blood HCT: 30 Fluid HCT: 10
D. Blood HCT: 30 Fluid HCT: 20
Blood HCT: 30 Fluid HCT: 20
Non-motile sperm can persist for ____ after
intercourse.
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 3 days
D. 7 days
3 days
Given the following information, calculate
the sperm concentration: dilution, 1:20; sperm
counted in five RBC squares on each side of the
hemocytometer, 80 and 86; volume, 3 mL.
A. 80 million/mL
B. 83 million/mL
C. 86 million/mL
D. 169 million/µL
83 million/mL
Which of the following organisms is
adversely affected if a vaginal secretion
specimen is refrigerated?
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Candida albicans
C. Gardnerella vaginalis
D. Trichomonas vaginalis
Trichomonas vaginalis
Which of the following substances is
responsible for the foul, fishy odor obtained
when the “whiff ” test is performed on vaginal
secretions?
A. Lactic acid
B. Polyamine
C. Trimethylamine
D. Hydrogen peroxide
Trimethylamine
Which of the following proteins is used as a
marker of rupture of membranes in pregnant
women?
A. Fetal fibrinogen
B. Fetal fibronectin
C. Alpha-1 microglobulin
D. Placental alpha microglobulin-1
Placental alpha microglobulin-1
Amniocentesis is usually performed at 15 to
18 weeks’ gestation to determine which of the
following conditions?
A. Fetal distress
B. Fetal maturity
C. Genetic disorders
D. Infections in the amniotic fluid
Genetic disorders
The following are correctly matched, except:
A. Bilirubin: Ictotest
B. Ketones: Acetest
C. Glucose: Clinitest
D. None of the above
None of the above
What is the primary inorganic component of
urine?
A. Water
B. Sodium
C. Chloride
D. Urea
Chloride
The inability to convert dietary foodstuffs
into readily absorbable substances is called
intestinal:
A. Inadequacy
B. Hypermotility
C. Malabsorption
D. Maldigestion
Maldigestion
An alternate method that can minimize the
occurrence of the “pass-through phenomenon”
during a Clinitest is:
A. Using two drops instead of five drops of
urine
B. Using five drops instead of two drops of urine
C. Using three drops instead of five drops of
urine
D. Using three drops instead of six drops of
urine
Using two drops instead of five drops of
urine
The ultimate goal of urinalysis automation:*
A. Reduce man-power
B. Color discrimination
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Color discrimination
In a brightfield microscope, which lens
produces the secondary image magnification?
A. Condenser
B. Eyepiece (ocular)
C. Numerical aperture
D. Objective
Eyepiece (ocular)
I. Two types of interference-contrast
microscopy are available: modulation contrast
(Hoffman) and differential-interference contrast
(Nomarski).
II. Bright-field microscopes can be adapted for
both methods.
A. The first statement is correct
B. The second statement is correct
C. Both statements are correct
D. Both statements are incorrect
Both statements are correct
Which of the following casts signify extreme
urine stasis and is known as “renal failure
casts”?
A. Granular casts
B. Waxy casts
C. Fatty casts
D. Broad casts
Broad casts
Identify the crystal:
- Coffin-lid (normal)
- X-shaped, Fern-like (dissolving)
A. Struvite
B. Apatite
C. Calcium oxalate
D. Calcium phosphate
Struvite
The major variable in urinalysis testing is the
conscientiousness of the laboratory personnel
in:
A. Interpretation of color reactions
B. Identification of abnormal crystals
C. Identification of casts
D. All of the above
Interpretation of color reactions
Which of the following parameters in the
reagent strip should be read within 30 seconds?
A. Specific gravity
B. Bilirubin
C. Ketones
D. Protein
Bilirubin
Which of the following is not a shape of
transitional epithelial cells?*
A. Caudate
B. Convoluted
C. Spherical
D. Polyhedral
Convoluted
What stain is used for confirming
hemosiderin in urine?*
A. Guaiac
B. Perl’s Prussian blue
C. Sternheimer-Malbin
D. Toluidine blue
Perl’s Prussian blue
Each kidney contains approximately how
many nephrons?
A. 0.5 – 1 million
B. 1 – 1.5 million
C. 1.6 – 1.8 million
D. 1 – 2 million
1 – 1.5 million
High protein intake causes _________ urine:
A. Alkaline
B. Acidic
C. Concentrated
D. Diluted
Acidic
Ketones is seen in urine due to:*
A. Incomplete fat metabolism
B. Fatty acid consumption
C. High carbohydrate diet
D. Low carbohydrate diet
Low carbohydrate diet
All are factors affecting the formation of
urinary crystals, except:*
A. pH
B. Solute concentration
C. Temperature
D. Protein Concentration
Protein Concentration
A large amount of white foam appears after
a urine specimen was shaken. Which of the
following is increased?
A. pH
B. Protein
C. Glucose
D. Bilirubin
Protein
Failure to mix the specimen before testing
causes a/an _______ reading that is falsely
decreased.
A. RBC and WBC
B. pH
C. Specific gravity
D. Glucose and Ketone
RBC and WBC
To ensure against runover, blotting the edge
of the strip on adsorbent paper and holding the strip ________ while comparing it with the
color chart is recommended.
A. Horizontally
B. Vertically
C. Diagonally
D. In any direction
Horizontally
Correct evaluation of urine turbidity:*
A. Against a white background
B. Against a black background
C. Light source behind analyst
D. Light source in front of analyst
Against a white background
Correct way of adding reagents together:*
A. Mix water and acid at the same time
B. Do not mix acid and water
C. Add water to acid
D. Add acid to water
Add acid to water
Which of the following is the urine specimen
of choice for cytology studies?
A. First morning specimen
B. Random specimen
C. Midstream clean catch
D. Timed collection
Random specimen
Which of the following best differentiates
pyelonephritis from cystitis?
A. Crystals
B. WBC casts
C. Ghost cells
D. Eosinophils
WBC casts
Ultrafiltration of plasma occurs in glomeruli
located in the renal:
A. Cortex
B. Medulla
C. Pelvis
D. Ureter
Cortex
What percent of the original ultrafiltrate
formed in the urinary space actually is excreted
as urine?
A. 1%
B. 10%
C. 25%
D. 100%
1%
Urine Clarity: Cloudy
A. No visible particulates, transparent
B. Few particulates, print easily seen through
urine
C. Many particulates, print blurred through
urine
D. Print cannot be seen through urine
Many particulates, print blurred through
urine
The final concentration of the urine is
determined within the:
A. Collecting ducts
B. Distal convoluted tubules
C. Loops of Henle
D. Proximal convoluted tubules
Collecting ducts
Another name for a peritoneal effusion is:
A. Peritonitis
B. Lavage
C. Ascites
D. Cirrhosis
Ascites
ANCA is diagnostic for:
A. IgA nephropathy
B. Granulomatosis with polyangitis
C. Henoch-Schönlein purpura
D. Goodpasture syndrome
Granulomatosis with polyangitis
Which of the following urine characteristics
provides the best rough indicator of urine
concentration and body hydration?
A. Color
B. Clarity
C. Foam
D. Volume
Color
Which of the following is not a characteristic
of neutrophils found in the urine sediment?
A. They are approximately 10 to 14 μm in
diameter.
B. They form “ghost cells” in hypotonic urine.
C. They shrink in hypertonic urine but do not
crenate.
D. As they disintegrate, vacuoles and blebs form
and their nuclei fuse
They form “ghost cells” in hypotonic urine.
Urinary casts are formed in:
A. The distal and collecting tubules
B. The distal tubules and the loops of Henle
C. The proximal and distal tubules
D. The proximal tubules and the loops of Henle
The distal and collecting tubules
Which differentiates CSF Protein from Serum
Protein:*
A. Absence of fibrinogen
B. Presence of fibrinogen
C. Presence of IgG
D. Presence of Ceruloplasmin
Absence of fibrinogen
Which of the following are tests for synovial
fluid viscosity?*
A. Ropes test
B. Mucin clot test
C. String test
D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following is the correct dilution
for a total CSF cell count on a clear fluid?
A. 1:10
B. 1:20
C. 1:100
D. None of the above
None of the above
The purpose of adding albumin to CSF
before cytocentrifugation is to:
A. Increase the cell yield
B. Decrease the cellular distortion
C. Improve the cellular staining
D. Both A and B
Both A and B
The finding of oligoclonal bands in the CSF
and not in the serum is seen with:
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Neurosyphilis
C. Cerebral hemorrhage
D. CNS malignancy
Neurosyphilis
A patient with a blood glucose of 120 mg/dL
would have a normal CSF glucose of:
A. 20 mg/dL
B. 60 mg/dL
C. 80 mg/dL
D. 120 mg/dL
80 mg/dL
Sulfosalicylic Acid Precipitation Test:
Turbidity, granulation, no flocculation
A. 6-30 mg/dL
B. 30-100 mg/dL
C. 100-200 mg/dL
D. 200-400 mg/dL
100-200 mg/dL
2.8 g of ammonium sulfate was added to a 5
mL reddish urine, and centrifuged. Upon testing
using a reagent strip for blood, which result
indicates the absence of myoglobin in the
sample?
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Faint
D. Trace
Negative
Given the following results, classify this
peritoneal fluid:
serum albumin, 2.2 g/dL; serum protein, 6.0
g/dL; fluid albumin, 1.6 g/dL.
A. Transudate
B. Exudate
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Exudate
Patients must be given explicit dietary
instructions before collecting any specimen to
be tested for 5-HIAA. The following foods should
be avoided for 3 days before and during urine
collection, except:
A. Pineapple
B. Tomato
C. Avocado
D. None of the above
None of the above
Computer-assisted semen analysis provides
objective determination of the following,
except:
A. Sperm velocity
B. Sperm trajectory
C. Sperm vitality
D. Sperm concentration
Sperm vitality
The purpose of the special mat supplied
with the Ictotest tablets is that:
A. Bilirubin remains on the surface of the mat
B. It contains the dye needed to produce color
C. It removes interfering substances
D. Bilirubin is absorbed into the mat
Bilirubin remains on the surface of the mat
Usually development is normal for the first 6
to 8 months, and often the first sign is uric acid
crystals resembling orange sand in diapers.
A. Indicanuria
B. Cystinuria
C. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
D. Argentaffinoma
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
How are specimens for FLM testing
delivered to and stored in the laboratory?
A. Delivered on ice and refrigerated
B. Immediately centrifuged
C. Kept at room temperature
D. Delivered in a vacuum tube
Delivered on ice and refrigerated
A significant rise in the OD of amniotic fluid
at 450 nm indicates the presence of which
analyte?
A. Bilirubin
B. Lecithin
C. Oxyhemoglobin
D. Sphingomyelin
Bilirubin
The presence of a fetal neural tube disorder
may be detected by:
A. Increased amniotic fluid bilirubin
B. Increased maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein
C. Decreased amniotic fluid phosphatidyl
glycerol
D. Decreased maternal serum
acetylcholinesterase
Increased maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein
All of the following are auto-classified by the
iQ200, except?
A. Unclassified casts
B. Nonsquamous epithelial cell
C. Bacteria
D. Uric acid
Uric acid
Based on the Bristol stool form scale, which
of the following describes a type 3 stool?
A. Separate hard clumps
B. Lumpy and sausage-like
C. Like a smooth, soft sausage or snake
D. A sausage shape with cracks in the surface
A sausage shape with cracks in the surface
The ΔA₄₅₀ value is determined using
amniotic fluid from a mother at 20 weeks’
gestation. Which chart(s) should be used to
assess this value and the status of the fetus?
A. Liley chart
B. Queenan chart
C. Either chart can be used.
D. More information is needed
Queenan chart
