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MTLE RMT MARCH 2025 > AUBF > Flashcards

AUBF Flashcards

1
Q

The principle commonly used to measure
the concentration of a particular analyte in
the chemical examination of urine is:
A. Reflectance photometry
B. Digital imaging
C. Flow cytometry
D. Auto Particle recognition

A

Reflectance photometry

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2
Q

Reactivity score: “May deteriorate”
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

4

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3
Q

Correct hand washing includes all of the
following, except:
A. Using warm water
B. Rubbing to create a lather
C. Rinsing hands in a downward position
D. Turning on the water with a paper
towel

A

Turning on the water with a paper
towel

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4
Q

The best way to break the chain of infection
is:
A. Hand sanitizing
B. Personal protective equipment
C. Aerosol prevention
D. Decontamination

A

Hand sanitizing

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5
Q

Bacterial growth in an unpreserved
specimen will:
A. Decrease clarity
B. Increase bilirubin
C. Decrease pH
D. Increase glucose

A

Decrease clarity

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6
Q

If a patient fails to discard the first specimen
when collecting a timed specimen, then the:
A. Specimen must be re-collected
B. Results will be falsely elevated
C. Results will be falsely decreased
D. Both A and B

A

Both A and B

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7
Q

Stamey-Mears Test for Prostatitis: Which
specimen represents the urethral
specimen?
A. VB1
B. VB2
C. EPS
D. VB3

A

VB1

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8
Q

Which of the following ketone bodies is not
detected by the ketone reagent strip?
A. β-Hydroxybutyrate
B. Acetone
C. Acetoacetic acid
D. None of the above

A

β-Hydroxybutyrate

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9
Q

What is the correct temperature of a urine
for drug testing?
A. 32.7°C - 35.5°C
B. 35.2°C - 37.5°C
C. 32.5°C - 32.7°C
D. 32.5°C - 37.7°C

A

32.5°C - 37.7°C

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10
Q

Urine specimen collection for drug testing
requires the collector to do all of the
following except:
A. Inspect the specimen color
B. Perform reagent strip testing
C. Read the specimen temperature
D. Fill out a chain-of-custody form

A

Perform reagent strip testing

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11
Q

The renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system
is responsible for all of the following except:
A. Vasoconstriction of the afferent
arteriole
B. Vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole
C. Reabsorbing sodium
D. Releasing aldosterone

A

Vasoconstriction of the afferent
arteriole

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12
Q

Secretion of renin is stimulated by:
A. Juxtaglomerular cells
B. Angiotensin I and II
C. Macula densa cells
D. Circulating angiotensin-converting
enzyme

A

Macula densa cells

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13
Q

Which of the following tubules is
impermeable to water?
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Descending loop of Henle
C. Ascending loop of Henle
D. Distal convoluted tubule

A

Ascending loop of Henle

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14
Q

Solute dissolved in solvent will:
A. Raise the vapor pressure
B. Lower the boiling point
C. Decrease the osmotic pressure
D. Lower the freezing point

A

Lower the freezing point

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15
Q

If ammonia is not produced by the distal
convoluted tubule, the urine pH will be:
A. Acidic
B. Basic
C. Hypothenuric
D. Hypersthenuric

A

Basic

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16
Q

A patient experiencing polyuria has a low
urine osmolality even after fluid restriction
and an ADH challenge test. Which of the
following conditions might the patient
have?
A. Neurogenic diabetes insipidus
B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
C. Diabetes insipidus
D. SIADH

A

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

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17
Q

Renal tubular acidosis can be caused by the:
A. Production of excessively acidic urine due
to increased filtration of hydrogen ions
B. Production of excessively acidic urine due
to increased secretion of hydrogen ions
C. Inability to produce an acidic urine due
to impaired production of ammonia
D. Inability to produce an acidic urine due to
increased production of ammonia

A

Inability to produce an acidic urine due
to impaired production of ammonia

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18
Q

Which of the following produces a yellow
foam when shaken?
A. Phenazopyridine
B. Albumin
C. Protein
D. None of the above

A

Phenazopyridine

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19
Q

Which of the following is an anticoagulant
that causes an orange color in alkaline urine,
and becomes colorless in acid urine?
A. Phenazopyridine
B. Phenindione
C. Nitrofurantoin
D. Acriflavine

A

Phenindione

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20
Q

Struvite calculi are frequently accompanied
by urinary infections involving the following
bacteria, except:
A. Proteus
B. Klebsiella
C. Escherichia coli
D. None of the above

A

Escherichia coli

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21
Q

When calibrating a refractometer using 9%
sucrose, it should give a specific gravity reading
of:
A. 1.000
B. 1.015
C. 1.022
D. 1.034

A

1.034

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22
Q

The principle of refractive index is to
compare:
A. Light velocity in solution with light Velocity in
solids
B. Light velocity in air with light velocity in
solutions
C. Light scattering by air with light scattering by
solutions
D. Light scattering by particles in solution

A

Light velocity in air with light velocity in
solutions

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23
Q

A specimen containing 1 g/dL protein and 1
g/dL glucose has a specific gravity reading of 1.030 using a refractometer. Calculate the
corrected reading.
A. 1.023
B. 1.027
C. 1.029
D. 1.032

A

1.023

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24
Q

Which of the following will react in the
reagent strip specific gravity test?
A. Glucose
B. Radiographic dye
C. Protein
D. Chloride

A

Chloride

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25
Q

A patient with a 2+ protein reading in the
afternoon is asked to submit a first morning
specimen. The second specimen has a negative
protein reading. This patient is:
A. Positive for orthostatic proteinuria
B. Negative for orthostatic proteinuria
C. Positive for Bence Jones protein
D. Negative for clinical proteinuria

A

Positive for orthostatic proteinuria

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26
Q

The reagent strip test for nitrite uses the:
A. Greiss reaction
B. Ehrlich reaction
C. Peroxidase reaction
D. Pseudoperoxidase reaction

A

Greiss reaction

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27
Q

The most common component of renal
calculi is:
A. Calcium oxalate
B. Magnesium ammonium phosphate
C. Cystine
D. Uric acid

A

Calcium oxalate

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28
Q

Which of the following crystals are
dumbbell-shaped and found primarily in alkaline
urine?
A. Calcium carbonate
B. Calcium oxalate
C. Calcium phosphate
D. A and B

A

Calcium carbonate

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29
Q

The primary component of urinary mucus is:
A. Bence Jones protein
B. Microalbumin
C. Uromodulin
D. Orthostatic protein

A

Uromodulin

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30
Q

Which of the following is reported as
quantity per low power field?
A. RBCs
B. Oval fat bodies
C. Abnormal crystals
D. Bacteria

A

Abnormal crystals

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31
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid is found between the:
A. arachnoid and dura mater.
B. arachnoid and pia mater.
C. pia mater and dura mater.
D. pia mater and choroid plexus.

A

arachnoid and pia mater.

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32
Q

When choroid plexus cells and ependymal
cells are present in the CSF, they:
A. Are often clinically significant.
B. Represent the demyelination of nerve tissue.
C. Can closely resemble clusters of malignant
cells.
D. Indicate breakdown of the blood-brain
barrier

A

Can closely resemble clusters of malignant
cells.

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33
Q

Which of the following proteins in the CSF is
used to monitor the integrity of the blood-brain
barrier?
A. Albumin
B. Transthyretin
C. Transferrin
D. Immunoglobulin G

A

Albumin

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34
Q

Which of the following tubes could be used
for a bacterial culture of serous fluid?
A. EDTA
B. Sodium citrate
C. Sodium fluoride
D. Sodium heparin

A

Sodium heparin

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35
Q

Thoracentesis refers specifically to the
removal of fluid from the:
A. Abdominal cavity
B. Pericardial cavity
C. Peritoneal cavity
D. Pleural cavity

A

Pleural cavity

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36
Q

Which of the following anticoagulants does
not have the potential to precipitate out in
crystalline form when used for synovial fluid
specimens?
A. Sodium citrate
B. Sodium heparin
C. Lithium heparin
D. Potassium oxalate

A

Sodium heparin

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37
Q

A synovial fluid specimen has a high cell
count and requires dilution to be counted.
Which of the following diluents should be used?
A. Normal saline
B. Dilute acetic acid (2%)
C. Dilute methanol (1%)
D. Phosphate buffer solution (0.050mol/L)

A

Normal saline

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38
Q

Differentiation of synovial fluid crystals,
based on their birefringence, is achieved using:
A. transmission electron microscopy.
B. phase-contrast microscopy.
C. direct polarizing microscopy.
D. compensated polarizing microscopy

A

compensated polarizing microscopy

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39
Q

The primary function of semen is to:
A. Nourish the spermatozoa.
B. Coagulate the ejaculate.
C. Transport the spermatozoa.
D. Stimulate sperm maturation

A

Transport the spermatozoa.

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40
Q

Which of the following conditions adversely
affects the quality of a semen specimen?
A. The use of silastic condoms
B. The time of day the collection is obtained
C. The collection of the specimen in a glass
container
D. The storage of the specimen at refrigerator
temperatures

A

The storage of the specimen at refrigerator
temperatures

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41
Q

Specimens can be screened for the presence
of fructose using the ____________ that
produces an orange color when fructose is
present:
A. Benedict’s test
B. Seliwanoff’s test
C. Resorcinol test
D. Clinitest

A

Resorcinol test

42
Q

Which of the following best represents a
hemothorax?
A. Blood HCT: 42 Fluid HCT: 15
B. Blood HCT: 42 Fluid HCT: 10
C. Blood HCT: 30 Fluid HCT: 10
D. Blood HCT: 30 Fluid HCT: 20

A

Blood HCT: 30 Fluid HCT: 20

43
Q

Non-motile sperm can persist for ____ after
intercourse.
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 3 days
D. 7 days

A

3 days

44
Q

Given the following information, calculate
the sperm concentration: dilution, 1:20; sperm
counted in five RBC squares on each side of the
hemocytometer, 80 and 86; volume, 3 mL.
A. 80 million/mL
B. 83 million/mL
C. 86 million/mL
D. 169 million/µL

A

83 million/mL

45
Q

Which of the following organisms is
adversely affected if a vaginal secretion
specimen is refrigerated?
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Candida albicans
C. Gardnerella vaginalis
D. Trichomonas vaginalis

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

46
Q

Which of the following substances is
responsible for the foul, fishy odor obtained
when the “whiff ” test is performed on vaginal
secretions?
A. Lactic acid
B. Polyamine
C. Trimethylamine
D. Hydrogen peroxide

A

Trimethylamine

47
Q

Which of the following proteins is used as a
marker of rupture of membranes in pregnant
women?
A. Fetal fibrinogen
B. Fetal fibronectin
C. Alpha-1 microglobulin
D. Placental alpha microglobulin-1

A

Placental alpha microglobulin-1

48
Q

Amniocentesis is usually performed at 15 to
18 weeks’ gestation to determine which of the
following conditions?
A. Fetal distress
B. Fetal maturity
C. Genetic disorders
D. Infections in the amniotic fluid

A

Genetic disorders

49
Q

The following are correctly matched, except:
A. Bilirubin: Ictotest
B. Ketones: Acetest
C. Glucose: Clinitest
D. None of the above

A

None of the above

50
Q

What is the primary inorganic component of
urine?
A. Water
B. Sodium
C. Chloride
D. Urea

A

Chloride

51
Q

The inability to convert dietary foodstuffs
into readily absorbable substances is called
intestinal:
A. Inadequacy
B. Hypermotility
C. Malabsorption
D. Maldigestion

A

Maldigestion

52
Q

An alternate method that can minimize the
occurrence of the “pass-through phenomenon”
during a Clinitest is:
A. Using two drops instead of five drops of
urine
B. Using five drops instead of two drops of urine
C. Using three drops instead of five drops of
urine
D. Using three drops instead of six drops of
urine

A

Using two drops instead of five drops of
urine

53
Q

The ultimate goal of urinalysis automation:*
A. Reduce man-power
B. Color discrimination
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

A

Color discrimination

54
Q

In a brightfield microscope, which lens
produces the secondary image magnification?
A. Condenser
B. Eyepiece (ocular)
C. Numerical aperture
D. Objective

A

Eyepiece (ocular)

55
Q

I. Two types of interference-contrast
microscopy are available: modulation contrast
(Hoffman) and differential-interference contrast
(Nomarski).
II. Bright-field microscopes can be adapted for
both methods.
A. The first statement is correct
B. The second statement is correct
C. Both statements are correct
D. Both statements are incorrect

A

Both statements are correct

56
Q

Which of the following casts signify extreme
urine stasis and is known as “renal failure
casts”?
A. Granular casts
B. Waxy casts
C. Fatty casts
D. Broad casts

A

Broad casts

57
Q

Identify the crystal:
- Coffin-lid (normal)
- X-shaped, Fern-like (dissolving)

A. Struvite
B. Apatite
C. Calcium oxalate
D. Calcium phosphate

A

Struvite

58
Q

The major variable in urinalysis testing is the
conscientiousness of the laboratory personnel
in:
A. Interpretation of color reactions
B. Identification of abnormal crystals
C. Identification of casts
D. All of the above

A

Interpretation of color reactions

59
Q

Which of the following parameters in the
reagent strip should be read within 30 seconds?
A. Specific gravity
B. Bilirubin
C. Ketones
D. Protein

A

Bilirubin

60
Q

Which of the following is not a shape of
transitional epithelial cells?*
A. Caudate
B. Convoluted
C. Spherical
D. Polyhedral

A

Convoluted

61
Q

What stain is used for confirming
hemosiderin in urine?*
A. Guaiac
B. Perl’s Prussian blue
C. Sternheimer-Malbin
D. Toluidine blue

A

Perl’s Prussian blue

62
Q

Each kidney contains approximately how
many nephrons?

A. 0.5 – 1 million
B. 1 – 1.5 million
C. 1.6 – 1.8 million
D. 1 – 2 million

A

1 – 1.5 million

63
Q

High protein intake causes _________ urine:
A. Alkaline
B. Acidic
C. Concentrated
D. Diluted

A

Acidic

64
Q

Ketones is seen in urine due to:*
A. Incomplete fat metabolism
B. Fatty acid consumption
C. High carbohydrate diet
D. Low carbohydrate diet

A

Low carbohydrate diet

65
Q

All are factors affecting the formation of
urinary crystals, except:*
A. pH
B. Solute concentration
C. Temperature
D. Protein Concentration

A

Protein Concentration

66
Q

A large amount of white foam appears after
a urine specimen was shaken. Which of the
following is increased?
A. pH
B. Protein
C. Glucose
D. Bilirubin

A

Protein

67
Q

Failure to mix the specimen before testing
causes a/an _______ reading that is falsely
decreased.
A. RBC and WBC
B. pH
C. Specific gravity
D. Glucose and Ketone

A

RBC and WBC

68
Q

To ensure against runover, blotting the edge
of the strip on adsorbent paper and holding the strip ________ while comparing it with the
color chart is recommended.

A. Horizontally
B. Vertically
C. Diagonally
D. In any direction

A

Horizontally

69
Q

Correct evaluation of urine turbidity:*
A. Against a white background
B. Against a black background
C. Light source behind analyst
D. Light source in front of analyst

A

Against a white background

70
Q

Correct way of adding reagents together:*
A. Mix water and acid at the same time
B. Do not mix acid and water
C. Add water to acid
D. Add acid to water

A

Add acid to water

71
Q

Which of the following is the urine specimen
of choice for cytology studies?
A. First morning specimen
B. Random specimen
C. Midstream clean catch
D. Timed collection

A

Random specimen

72
Q

Which of the following best differentiates
pyelonephritis from cystitis?
A. Crystals
B. WBC casts
C. Ghost cells
D. Eosinophils

A

WBC casts

73
Q

Ultrafiltration of plasma occurs in glomeruli
located in the renal:
A. Cortex
B. Medulla
C. Pelvis
D. Ureter

A

Cortex

74
Q

What percent of the original ultrafiltrate
formed in the urinary space actually is excreted
as urine?
A. 1%
B. 10%
C. 25%
D. 100%

A

1%

75
Q

Urine Clarity: Cloudy
A. No visible particulates, transparent
B. Few particulates, print easily seen through
urine
C. Many particulates, print blurred through
urine
D. Print cannot be seen through urine

A

Many particulates, print blurred through
urine

76
Q

The final concentration of the urine is
determined within the:
A. Collecting ducts
B. Distal convoluted tubules
C. Loops of Henle
D. Proximal convoluted tubules

A

Collecting ducts

77
Q

Another name for a peritoneal effusion is:
A. Peritonitis
B. Lavage
C. Ascites
D. Cirrhosis

A

Ascites

78
Q

ANCA is diagnostic for:
A. IgA nephropathy
B. Granulomatosis with polyangitis
C. Henoch-Schönlein purpura
D. Goodpasture syndrome

A

Granulomatosis with polyangitis

79
Q

Which of the following urine characteristics
provides the best rough indicator of urine
concentration and body hydration?
A. Color
B. Clarity
C. Foam
D. Volume

A

Color

80
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic
of neutrophils found in the urine sediment?
A. They are approximately 10 to 14 μm in
diameter.
B. They form “ghost cells” in hypotonic urine.
C. They shrink in hypertonic urine but do not
crenate.
D. As they disintegrate, vacuoles and blebs form
and their nuclei fuse

A

They form “ghost cells” in hypotonic urine.

81
Q

Urinary casts are formed in:
A. The distal and collecting tubules
B. The distal tubules and the loops of Henle
C. The proximal and distal tubules
D. The proximal tubules and the loops of Henle

A

The distal and collecting tubules

82
Q

Which differentiates CSF Protein from Serum
Protein:*
A. Absence of fibrinogen
B. Presence of fibrinogen
C. Presence of IgG
D. Presence of Ceruloplasmin

A

Absence of fibrinogen

83
Q

Which of the following are tests for synovial
fluid viscosity?*
A. Ropes test
B. Mucin clot test
C. String test
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

84
Q

Which of the following is the correct dilution
for a total CSF cell count on a clear fluid?
A. 1:10
B. 1:20
C. 1:100
D. None of the above

A

None of the above

85
Q

The purpose of adding albumin to CSF
before cytocentrifugation is to:
A. Increase the cell yield
B. Decrease the cellular distortion
C. Improve the cellular staining
D. Both A and B

A

Both A and B

86
Q

The finding of oligoclonal bands in the CSF
and not in the serum is seen with:
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Neurosyphilis
C. Cerebral hemorrhage
D. CNS malignancy

A

Neurosyphilis

87
Q

A patient with a blood glucose of 120 mg/dL
would have a normal CSF glucose of:
A. 20 mg/dL
B. 60 mg/dL
C. 80 mg/dL
D. 120 mg/dL

A

80 mg/dL

88
Q

Sulfosalicylic Acid Precipitation Test:
Turbidity, granulation, no flocculation
A. 6-30 mg/dL
B. 30-100 mg/dL
C. 100-200 mg/dL
D. 200-400 mg/dL

A

100-200 mg/dL

89
Q

2.8 g of ammonium sulfate was added to a 5
mL reddish urine, and centrifuged. Upon testing
using a reagent strip for blood, which result
indicates the absence of myoglobin in the
sample?
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Faint
D. Trace

A

Negative

90
Q

Given the following results, classify this
peritoneal fluid:
serum albumin, 2.2 g/dL; serum protein, 6.0
g/dL; fluid albumin, 1.6 g/dL.
A. Transudate
B. Exudate
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

A

Exudate

91
Q

Patients must be given explicit dietary
instructions before collecting any specimen to
be tested for 5-HIAA. The following foods should
be avoided for 3 days before and during urine
collection, except:
A. Pineapple
B. Tomato
C. Avocado
D. None of the above

A

None of the above

92
Q

Computer-assisted semen analysis provides
objective determination of the following,
except:
A. Sperm velocity
B. Sperm trajectory
C. Sperm vitality
D. Sperm concentration

A

Sperm vitality

93
Q

The purpose of the special mat supplied
with the Ictotest tablets is that:
A. Bilirubin remains on the surface of the mat
B. It contains the dye needed to produce color
C. It removes interfering substances
D. Bilirubin is absorbed into the mat

A

Bilirubin remains on the surface of the mat

94
Q

Usually development is normal for the first 6
to 8 months, and often the first sign is uric acid
crystals resembling orange sand in diapers.
A. Indicanuria
B. Cystinuria
C. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
D. Argentaffinoma

A

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

95
Q

How are specimens for FLM testing
delivered to and stored in the laboratory?
A. Delivered on ice and refrigerated
B. Immediately centrifuged
C. Kept at room temperature
D. Delivered in a vacuum tube

A

Delivered on ice and refrigerated

96
Q

A significant rise in the OD of amniotic fluid
at 450 nm indicates the presence of which
analyte?
A. Bilirubin
B. Lecithin
C. Oxyhemoglobin
D. Sphingomyelin

A

Bilirubin

97
Q

The presence of a fetal neural tube disorder
may be detected by:
A. Increased amniotic fluid bilirubin
B. Increased maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein
C. Decreased amniotic fluid phosphatidyl
glycerol
D. Decreased maternal serum
acetylcholinesterase

A

Increased maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein

98
Q

All of the following are auto-classified by the
iQ200, except?
A. Unclassified casts
B. Nonsquamous epithelial cell
C. Bacteria
D. Uric acid

A

Uric acid

99
Q

Based on the Bristol stool form scale, which
of the following describes a type 3 stool?
A. Separate hard clumps
B. Lumpy and sausage-like
C. Like a smooth, soft sausage or snake
D. A sausage shape with cracks in the surface

A

A sausage shape with cracks in the surface

100
Q

The ΔA₄₅₀ value is determined using
amniotic fluid from a mother at 20 weeks’
gestation. Which chart(s) should be used to
assess this value and the status of the fetus?
A. Liley chart
B. Queenan chart
C. Either chart can be used.
D. More information is needed

A

Queenan chart

MTLE RMT MARCH 2025 (3 decks)

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