IRT 170 Flashcards

0
Q

What is the minimum RVR for approach single pilot, and where is this referenced?

A

It is 800m, OR the minimum RVR stated for the approach, and this information is found in EU OPs, page L254/67 . If we have a suitably advanced autopilot capable of flying full ils approaches, then we can make an approach with a lower RVR.

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1
Q

Define the instrument flight rules and what is the source document for them?

A

The rules are included in ENR 1.3 of the AIP in more detail, and are also found in section six of the ANO.

Not less than 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within 5 miles (exceptions being specific routes allowing this, take off and landing, being below 3000’ and clear of cloud and with 800m vis [vmc in other words])
Adheres to an appropriate quadrantal or semi circular track. Note you do not have to adhere to a quadrantal if following instructions from ATC, following enroute holding patterns, or following procedures in accordance with an aerodrome instruction.
Must have submitted a flight plan if transiting, leaving or entering controlled airspace
Shall comply with ATC and notified procedures
Should inform air traffic of time and position and level if required to do so by an ATS.

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2
Q

Converting RVR to and from met vis is in EUOPS also, on page 84 subpart E. It is dependent on runway lighting available.

A

Unless the ATIS specifically states the number being reported is an RVR, then it is assumed to be met vis which is being reported. If an airfield has High intensity approach and runway lights operating, the met vis can be multiplied by 1.5 during the day or 2.0 during the night to give an equivalent RVR. This information is found in the aerodrome operating minima in the aerodrome section of the UK AIP.

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3
Q

in which source document can you find rules regarding performance planning for your FTO’s training aircraft on a public transport flight?

A
  • I think the answer to this is in the Aircraft Flight Manual. Here you can find/ work out climbing rates, fuel burn, cruise settings and one engine climb rates, as well as takeoff and landing performance.
    The actual RULES however are found in EUOPs subpart H.
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4
Q

What configuration is the aircraft considered to be in for landing performance calculations?

A

According to the flight manual in the Performance section under 5.3.11 the conditions are:
Power levers both IDLE
Flaps set LANDNG
Runway level, asphalt surface, dry.

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5
Q

If you are expecting a strong crosswind on the main runway at your destination, are there any special planning allowances when considering secondary runways?

A

-AD alternate planning requirements:
EU-Ops 1.295- selection of aerodromes
EU-Ops 1.297- planning minima for IFR flights
EU-Ops 1.225- Aerodrome operating minima
I can’t currently find a good answer to this. I think that the only considerations would be selecting a runway that is long enough, strong enough and is facing into wind, while taking into account slope and surface type and performance factors

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6
Q

What are your take off minima, and where do you find them written down?

A

CTC SOPs are found in the Operations manual. They state:
“The weather at the time of Take-off must not be less than the landing minimum requirements, both in terms of RVR and cloud base. If either the actual weather at the time of take off is only marginally above the minima required, or the forecast weather at the time of landing is close to the minima required, adequate planning for a suitable alternate must be made.”
Check the plates for all the relevant minima if it looks as though an approach will be unlikely (low cloud base, that is that covers more than half the sky, eg BKN, or a low reported visibility below 2000m).
Other Take off minima information are found in EU-Ops but no specific figures as in NZ.

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7
Q

Where can you find the list of documents to be carried on a Public Transport flight in the UK?

A

Ops 1.125 OR in the ANO:
Schedule 9, on a public transport flight:
Wireless radio license
Non-EASA aircraft, carry the national certificate of airworthiness for the aircraft
Licenses of the members of the flight crew
A copy of the load sheet if it exists
One copy of the maintenance review of the aircraft
The technical log

According to CTC OPs, we carry:
For flights beginning and ending at the same aerodrome and that do not go outside EU airspace, (including the channel islands and the isle of man) we must carry:
EASA certificate of airworthiness
Airworthiness Review certificate

If the flight is due to land away, but not outside of UK airspace we must carry:
EASA certificate of airworthiness
Airworthiness review certificate
Certificate of maintenance review
Aircraft Radio License
Technical log
Pilot licences.

If the flight is due to depart and land away and will go outside UK airspace, it must additionally carry:
certificate of registration
copy of the notified interception procedures
Other documents normally stored in the Technical log are:
Certificate of release to service,
Approval of aircraft radio installation
noise certificate
aircraft insurance certificate.

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8
Q

When does an approach ban apply and where is this referenced?

A

If the RVR is below the minima for an approach, this constitutes an approach ban, as described in EUOPs.
In EUOPs page Ops 1.405, there are specific instructions on what to do if the RVR is below minima at any stage during the approach.
The captain can choose to make an approach regardless of the RVR up until and not beyond the FAF if the RVR is below minima. Where RVR is not available, it may be derived using information kept in ops 1.430 para h. If during the approach the RVR falls to below minima, the approach may be continued to MDA or the DA. If the approach has no FAF, the pilot should make the decision to go around by 1000’agl. If the DA or MDA is above 1000’agl, then the operator (CTC) must establish a level by which a go around will be made for that procedure.
The approach can be continued below MDA or DA as long as the required visual references can be maintained.

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9
Q

What is a PEC and why should it be applied?

A

The Pressure error correction is a correction made to account for the difference of airflow over the pitot tube in the approach configuration. In slow speed configs the nose tends to raise causing the airflow to be different to normal flight. In high precision approaches this can warrant a correction needing to be made. The correction can be found in the aircraft flight manual, however there is no figure for the twinstar and as such there is no PEC.

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10
Q

If there is no published figure for your aircraft what PEC should you apply?

A

+50ft to MDA. Cannot find reference for this

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11
Q

What is the minimum use height for the Autopilot?

A

The autopilot must be disengaged before 200ft AGL below 130kt airspeed, 250 above that speed, and before reaching 200agl on departure. It must be disengaged below 800 feet AGL for all other phases of flight.

This is referenced in the CTC sops and the AFM.

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12
Q

What is the Asymmetric committal height for your FTO?

A
  • Should be in the Ops manual. Is 200 AGL.
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13
Q

When flying an asymmetric approach and the runway becomes blocked before your ACA, what will you do?

A

If the runway is blocked before ACA we will make a go around before reaching this height.

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14
Q

If the runway becomes blocked after your ACA, what will you do?

A

If the runway becomes blocked afterwards we can either reingage both engines if we are simulating asymmetric, but otherwise we must land due to insufficient performance to go around otherwise. The alternative is to risk a collision or going off the runway.

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15
Q

Why do we set 1013 on one altimeter but QNH on the second?

A

So that we always have an altitude reference even when flying on flight levels, and so that we have a reminder to reset Altimeters during checks.

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16
Q

What is the significance of the yellow arc on the ASI?

A

The yellow range of the ASI indicates the airspeed range that can only be operated in still air and with caution. I don’t think there is a “yellow arc” on the HSI?

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17
Q

What does a turn coordinator measure and what does it display?

A

The turn coordinator measures rate of turn, specifically in the horizontal plane. It is not displayed in the twin star. In order to make a rate one turn we use the slip bar, speed and bank angle to make a rate one. At 120 knots rate one is 19 degrees bank. (120/10+7). Compass turns must be made at rate one.

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18
Q

How do you check the serviceability of your navigation equipment on the ground?

A

By checking them all using the local navaids on the airfield.

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19
Q

When do you need to nominate a take off alternate and where is this referenced?

A

We need to nominate a take off alternate if for performance or meteorological reasons we are unable to land back on the same airfield. This should never be the case at CTC because our aircraft are certified to land at the max takeoff weight (see the flight manual) and we are not allowed to take off with less than the landing minima.

20
Q

When do you need to nominate a landing alternate and where is this referenced?

A

We need to nominate a take off alternate when the airfield is more than 6 hours flight time away, OR if it has less than two runways or the weather is forecast to be below either 2000 feet or circling minima plus 500, whichever is greater, and 5k vis within an hour either side of the approach time. We do not have to select an alternate if the destination aerodrome is isolated. EUOPs 1.297

21
Q

When do you need to nominate two landing alternates?

A

To try to simplify the alternate requirements, we must always choose an alternate in the UK. This is unless the destination has two separate runways or is less than six hours flight time away and that the weather conditions one hour before or one hour after our expected time of arrival will be at least 2000 feet cloudbase or the circling minima +500 and visibility 5000 m.
If the weather conditions are below the above minima then we must have at least one alternate airfield. However if the weather conditions are below the appropriate planning minima then we must choose a second alternate. The planning minima are that if a category one approach is available then the conditions must be better than those required for a non-precision approach. If there is only a non-precision approach available then we must choose conditions suitable for a circling approach. If the weather is forecast to be below all minima at the destination, we must not choose it as a destination.
We must also always have a second alternate available if there is no weather information available at the destination.
If the destination is isolated we do not have to choose an alternate, however the weather conditions must be suitable as per the planning minima. The planning minima are also applicable to the destination alternate aerodrome.

22
Q

Where do you plan on finding the minima for commercial uk flights?

A

The minimal requirements are found under EU Ops. The specific minima for each aerodrome are found in the Jeppenson plates.

23
Q

What is the minimum airspeed for operation in icing condtions?

A

The minimum control speed with ice on unprotected areas is 72 kts.
The minimum is speed for inadvertent operation in icing conditions is 121kts.
The maximum airspeed for inadvertent entry into ice is 160 kts.

24
Q

How long will the fluid last in each of the three modes?

A

The Twinstar de icing system has three modes. When set to normal it lasts for 2.5 hours. When set to high it lasts for one hour. When set to Max it lasts for 30 minutes. It holds 30 m worth of antiice fluid and when the deice pressure low warning comes up we have 10litres remaining which equates to 45 minutes.

25
Q

What de icing mode should be used on the approach in icing conditions?

A

High. This is referenced in the AFM.

26
Q

How many pumps does the de-ice system have and how do they operate in each mode?

A

There are four pumps in the Twin Star and antiicing system. There are two pumps for the windshield deice system, and two for the airframe. This is for redundancy.
In normal mode two pumps operate simultaneously but only for 30 seconds on and 90 seconds off. In high mode only one pump operates but it operates continuously. In Max mode, both pumps operate, but they operate continuously.

27
Q

What does the alternate switch do?

A

The alternate switch connects the screen pump two directly to the right hand bus bar.

28
Q

What are the license privileges of the EASA instrument rating and where are they referenced?

A

Cap 804 part1, section 4 part G!!!
The privileges of a holder of an IR are to fly aeroplanes under IFR with a minimum decision height of 200’ (60m).
In the case of a multi engine IR these privelledges may be extended to decision heights lower than 200 feet when the applicant has undergone specific training with an ATO and has passed section six of the approved skills test (see the document for details, may be multi crew only). Holders of an IR may exercise their privelledges in accordance with the conditions established in appendix 8 of the JAR-FCL.

29
Q

What is the validity period of an EASA instrument rating and where is it referenced?

A

It is valid for one year. See CAP 804 part 1 section 4 part G.

30
Q

Can you still fly if your EASA class 1 medical has expired?

A

This relates to your CPL license… You can’t use your license without having a current class 1 medical certificate. See CAP 804 section 4 part N.

31
Q

What SVFR limits apply in class D airspace to a Pilot with an EASA CPL with IR and where are they referenced?

A

ENR1.2 AIP.
Russ reckons this is found in the privelledges section of our license.
SVFR eu- remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface? Not less than 3km. Can’t enter or leave a CTZ to land or take off if less than 1800 and lower than 600.
We are also allowed to fly IFR, so could submit an in flight flight plan and continue IFR.

32
Q

Having gained your IR on an MEP, are you allowed to exercise the privelledges under IFR on a SEP and where is this referenced?

A

ANO SCHEDULE 8.
JAR-FCL 1.180 privelledges and conditions.
Subject to the rating restrictions imposed by use of another pilot functioning as a co-pilot during the skill test set out in appendices one and two to JARFCL 1.210 and any other conditions specified in the JARs, the privileges of a holder of a multi engine IR are to pilot multiengine and single engine aeroplanes under instrument flight rules with aminimum decision height of 200ft.

33
Q

What separation from other aircraft is provided by ATC in class D airspace for aircraft operating IFR and where is this referenced?

A

In class D airspace, we are separated from all other IFR traffic, and are given traffic information on VFR traffic. This information is found in the AIP ENR 1.4.

34
Q

What class of airspace is bournemouth CTR?

A

It is class D airspace.

35
Q

What class of airspace is Exeter airport in?

A

Exeter is an ATZ. An ATZ as explained in the ENR section of the AIP, section 1.4, 2.272, takes on the properties of the airspace that surrounds it. In this case that is class G airspace (uncontrolled).

36
Q

How do the ATC rules for IFR in class E airspace differ from class D and where is this described?

A

In class E airspace, Separation is provided between all flights by ATC, unlike in D where only IFR and IFR are separated. Class E is barely used in the UK, only in Ireland and Scotland in a few places. Apparently it is more of a European thing.

37
Q

Does the quadrantal rule apply beneath a TMA?

A

No, in a TMA you are under radar control and will be flying given headings and altitudes

38
Q

You are flying outside CAS IFR inbound to an airfield; what is the latest stage you should make the first call to approach control and where is this referenced?

A

Ten minutes. See AIP gen 3.3 3.7.1

39
Q

What is the significance of being issued with an expected approach time by ATC?

A

The expected approach time is the time issued by air traffic to begin the initial approach. You need to be there at that time. An approach clearance cancels any previous expected approach time given.
Can also let your passengers know when to expect landing..

40
Q

What should you do if prior to entering controlled airspace and before receiving an ATC clearance you suffer radio failure and where is this referenced?

A

Enr 1.1, 3.4.2.4.2
Except where communications failure occurs during an approach directed by radar, a flight experiencing communication failure in IMC shall:
Operate secondary radar transponder on Mode A code 7600 with Mode C.
Maintain for a period of seven minutes, the current speed and last assigned level or minimum safe altitude, if this is higher. The period of seven minutes begins when the transponder is set to 7600 and this should be done as soon as the pilot has detected communications failure.
If failure occurs when the aircraft is following anotified departure procedure such as a Standard Instrument Departure (SID) and clearance to climb, or re-routing instructions have not been given, the procedure should be flown in accordance with the published lateral track and vertical profile, including any stepped climbs, until the last position, fix, or waypoint, published for the procedure, has been reached. Then, for that part of the period of seven minutes that may remain, maintain the current speed and last assigned level or minimum safe altitude if this is higher.
Following the period of seven minutes, adjust the speed and level in accordance with the current flight plan and continue the flight to the appropriate designated landing aid serving the destination aerodrome. Attempt to transmit position reports and altitude/flight level on the appropriate frequency when over routine reporting points.

41
Q

Show me the documents that prove the aircraft is legal to fly today

A

Documents found in the tech log and in the Ops 1.125 OR in the ANO: Schedule 9, on a public transport flight:
Wireless radio license
Non-EASA aircraft, carry the national certificate of airworthiness for the aircraft
Licenses of the members of the flight crew
A copy of the load sheet if it exists
One copy of the maintenance review of the aircraft
The technical log
Show the performance documentation and mass and balance working.

Air Navigation Order. Part 21.150.4: if a flight is intended to begin and end at the same aerodrome and does not include passage over any country other than the UK, the documents may be kept at that aerodrome instead of being carried in the aircraft.

42
Q

If something were unserviceable on the aircraft, how would you determine if you could still fly?

A

Check the MEL found in the aircraft. Is kept behind the pilots seat.

43
Q

How do we record a deferred defect?

A

In the Tech log. Check with Ops/ an instructor first in order to verify the error.

44
Q

What is the maintenance cycle for your aircraft?

A

Found in the Tech log. Is the period of time between required maintenance checks for the aircraft.

45
Q

How are out of phase servicing events shown in the tech log?

A

There is a page for out of Phase items. They are items which require to be checked before/ after the major hourly aircraft inspections.

46
Q

If a fuel gauge were to be unserviceable how would you determine whether or not you could go flying?

A

Check the MEL. This is kept in the aircraft behind the pilots seat typically.

47
Q

What are the dimensions of a MATZ?

A

in the AIP, ENR 2.2-11

Generally speaking about 5 miles wide and 3000’ high.

48
Q

What are the different classes of airspace found in the UK?

A

A B C D E F G