IRT

Question 1

Can you commence an instrument approach to land/touch and go if the reported RVR/vis is less than the procedure minimum?

Answer 1

Yes, but the approach will not be continued below 1000ft AAL, or beyond the FAF where DH/DA or MDH/MDA is more than 1000ft AAL.

Question 2

During an approach, after passing 1000ft QFE, the reported RVR/vis falls below the procedure minimum. Can you continue?

Answer 2

Yes, you can continue to DH/DA or MDH/MDA, but must achieve the maintain the required visual references to continue below these heights/altitudes to land.

Question 3

When does a procedure classify as a ‘circling approach’?

Answer 3

When you are making an approach to a runway that is not the runway in use

or

When the FAT is > 30 deg. off the runway track

Question 4

Your MAP instructs you to climb to 500ft QNH, then left turn on to 180, climbing to 2000ft. The procedure has an MDA of 400ft, your rating adds 200ft, and DDA a further 50ft, making the minima 650ft. The MAPt is 0.5nm.

What must you be wary of upon initiating the missed approach?

Answer 4

Turning instructions in a MAP must not be carried out until past the MAPt, as the aircraft could turn before reaching a safe climb-out segment.

When you have a high minima with a lot of extra allowance, or have to conduct the MAP early on in the approach, ensure you do not carry out any turns until past the MAPt.

Question 5

What are the required visual references for a CAT I precision approach, PAR or non-precision approach?

Answer 5

Elements of the approach lighting

The threshold, its markings, lights or identification lights

The visual glide slope indicator(s), e.g. PAPIs

The touchdown zone (TDZ), zone markings or zone lights

Runway edge lights

Question 6

What conditions must be met in order to carry out a circling approach?

Answer 6

1 - The visual cct, or partial cct, is carried out at or above the specified minimum circling height/altitude and within the specified circling approach area

2 - In in-flight visibility assessed by the pilot is not less than the minimum value for circling approaches

3 - Aircraft position relative to the aerodrome or approach facility in use has been established and can be continually monitored either visually or by range and bearing

Question 7

What is the lowest circling approach MDH for a Cat B aircraft?

Answer 7

500ft

The lowest MDA is TDZE (touch down zone elevation) + 500ft

Question 8

You are flying an ILS with a DH of 230ft. Looking up at 500ft, you can make out the required visual references and convert to visual, but then cloud moving through obscures the references again. You are still above DH, can you continue the approach?

Answer 8

No

Once you convert to a visual approach you cannot revert to instruments. You should carry out the MAP if the visual references are lost. Do not convert too early to avoid being caught out.

Question 9

What are the lowest minima (DH Cat I, MDH) to which military fixed wing aircraft are authorised to make instrument approaches to land?

Answer 9

DH Cat I: 200ft, 550m RVR

MDH: 250ft, 800m RVR

DA Cat I: TDZE + 200ft, 550m RVR

MDA: TDZE + 250ft, 800m RVR

Question 10

What is the minimum cloud base at an airfield for it to be suitable as a diversion?

Answer 10

200ft above the approach minima

Question 11

What AoB is to be used when flying a hold?

Answer 11

The lowest of:

25 deg. AoB
or
AoB req. for a rate 1 turn

Max = 25 deg.

Question 12

What is defined as being ‘on-course’ during a procedure?

Answer 12

Within half scale deflection for VOR/DME or ILS, and within +/- 5 deg. of the req. final bearing for an NDB.

VOR/DME (or TACAN) = +/- 5 deg.

ILS = +/- 1.25 deg.

Question 13

What is full scale deflection on the glidepath for an ILS?

Answer 13

0.7 deg.

Question 14

What are PANS-OPS?

Answer 14

Procedures for Air Navigation Services-Aircraft Operations

Two volumes which contain the published ICAO standards

Question 15

What is the minimum climb gradient laid out by PANS-OPS for obstacle clearance during departures?

Answer 15

3.3%
(200ft/nm)

Question 16

How does a MID differ from a SID?

Answer 16

Unlike SIDs, MIDs are departures from UK military airfields only. They do not necessarily terminate at a recognised reporting point or waypoint, and hence may not be recognised for entry on a flight plan.

Question 17

If an IF departure is limited to a CAT B aircraft only, what is the max airspeed it can be flown at?

Answer 17

165 KIAS

Question 18

Where are the details on UK military instrument rating requirements and tests found?

Answer 18

RA2120

Question 19

What privileges and restrictions apply to a white IR rating?

Answer 19

Privileges:
Unrestricted White IR qualifies a pilot to operate as General Air Traffic (GAT) or OAT (Operational Air Traffic) in all classes of airspace.

Restrictions:
ADH/AM(MF) may specify restrictions that apply to the issue of the White IR according to the experience of the pilot or the limitations of the Air System type.

IR Allowance:
+200ft to minima

Question 20

What are the permitted deviation parameters during an IRT for an ILS, PAR/SRA and radio aid approach (e.g. TACAN, VOR/DME)?

Answer 20

ILS:
1/2 scale deflection of azimuth or glide path

PAR/SRA:
The correct and timely application of controller instructions

Radio Aid Approach:
+/- 5 deg. of published tracks (1/2 scale deflection)

Question 21

For an IRT for a white rating, what are the permitted deviations from headings, speeds and altitudes/FLs?

Answer 21

± 10 deg.

± 5 KIAS/0.02M

± 100ft (but ± 200ft above FL250)

+100ft to -0ft at MDH/MDA

Question 22

How long, provided you maintain currency, is the IRT valid for?

Answer 22

13 months

Question 23

What is the MAPt?

Answer 23

Missed Approach Point

MAP must be initiated at or before the MAPt in order to ensure that the minimum obstacle clearance height is not infringed.

A MAP must be carried out if the MAPt is reached before visual references are acquired.

Question 24

What defines the MAPt for a precision approach?

Answer 24

The intersection of the glidepath with the relevant DA/DH

Question 25

What defines the MAPt for a non-precision approach?

Answer 25

Defined either by a fix, a facility or by timing. Will be shown on the chart for the approach.

Question 26

For the purpose of obstacle clearance, what minimum climb gradient is assumed for a MAP?

Answer 26

2.5%

Question 27

How does a VOR work?

Answer 27

Ground beacon transmits two signals:

• Omnidirectional reference signal (30Hz FM)
• Rotating directional signal (1800RPM, 30Hz AM)

Uses phase modulation between the two signals.
Aircraft picks up the two signals and measures the phase difference, this difference equates to a magnetic bearing from the VOR, e.g. a phase difference of 90 deg. means the aircraft’s magnetic bearing from the VOR is 90 deg.

The two signals are in phase when the aircraft is due magnetic North of the VOR beacon.

Question 28

How does a DME work?

Answer 28

The aircraft (interrogator) transmits a stream of omnidirectional ‘pulse pairs’ on the interrogation carrier frequency of the ground transponder.

The spacing between individual pulses is fixed. However, the spacing between the pulse pairs is unique to the aircraft.

The ground transponder receives the interrogation signal and after 50 µs delay it re-transmits them.

The aircraft identifies its own unique stream of pulse pairs coming back on the carrier frequency, and calculates slant range using:

D (Slant Range) = S (speed of light) x T (time interval)