ion channels to behaviour Flashcards

1
Q

What are the degrees of reductionism?

A
  • Macro anatomical
  • Micro anatomical
  • Macro molecule level
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2
Q

What is macro anatomical?

A
  • interaction of different brain areas
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3
Q

What is micro anatomical?

A
  • interaction of different brain cells
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4
Q

What is macro molecule?

A
  • interaction of individual protein molecules
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5
Q

How do neurons connect?

A
  • connect at the synapse, joining a terminal button of one neuron to the dendrite of another.
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6
Q

Structure of a neuron.
what does the soma do?
What do the dendrites do?

A
  • soma = integrates information
    dendrites = receives information from other neurons, through branches.
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7
Q

What does the axon do in the structure of a neuron?

A
  • gets information away from the cell body to another neuron.
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8
Q

What is an action potential?

A

an all or nothing response, that occurs when there is a change in charge from the resting membrane in a positive direction.

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9
Q

When is depolarisation triggered?

A
  • at 50mv
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10
Q

What is 50mv?

A
  • the threshold of excitation, meaning an action potential is triggered.
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11
Q

what is the resting membrane potential (RMP)?

A
  • the difference in the + charge outside the cell and the - charge inside the cell. called 70mv
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12
Q

Explain an ion transporter.

A
  • it moves sodium ions outside of neurons and exchange for potassium ions inside cell, creating a shift, causing more moves of sodium ions than potassium.
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13
Q

What is depolarisation?

A
  • membrane becomes less negative
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13
Q

what is the role of the post synaptic neuron?

A
  • output, receives info at the synapse, then takes info out.
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13
Q

what is polarisation?

A
  • membrane becomes more negative?
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13
Q

what does it mean to have something very localised?

A
  • movement of ions is small - more significant near membrane.
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13
Q

What two things change during action potentials?

A
  • permeability of membrane (channels open or not)
  • electrostatic pressure (membrane voltage changes)
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13
Q

What is the role of the pre-synaptic neuron?

A
  • the input, bring info into the synapse
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14
Q

what causes depolarisation?

A
  • info transfer between neurons, causes depolarisation.
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14
Q

What is hyperpolarisation?

A
  • chloride channels open - chloride ions go in and make membrane more negative, causing it to be inhibitory (less likely for APs to fire).
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15
Q

What is hyporpolarization?

A
  • Sodium channels opened, sodium flows in, causing it to be excitatory (more likely to cause AP) - the more action potentials the more likely to reach the threshold.
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16
Q

What are ligands?

A
  • a chemical that interacts with a receptor.
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17
Q

Where does the ligand interact?

A
  • at the binding site
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18
Q

Explain selectivity of binding.

A

only specific ligands will fit into specific receptor types.

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19
Q

What is Affinity?

A
  • how well a ligand binds to a receptor.
    (therefor high affinity means that receptors are saturated).
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20
Q

What are the two types of receptors?

A
  • Ionotropic receptor
  • Metabotropic receptor
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21
Q

What is ionotropic receptor?

A
  • receptor is “directly coupled” to an ion channel.
    (faster process than metabotropic).
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22
Q

What is metabotropic receptors?

A
  • it is where the ligand binds to the post synaptic neuron on the outside, changing it’s 3D shape of the receptor, activating G-protiens, that are connected to the receptor inside the neuron. Activating intracellular signalling cascade.
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23
Q

what are some reasons for why receptors can also be found on the presynaptic neuron?

A
  • due to retrograde signalling
    or
  • negative feedback.
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24
Q

what is retrograde signialling?

A
  • where the signal travels backwards from post to pre.
  • can cause an effect on synaptic plasticity.
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25
Q

What are the two types of neurotransmitters?

A
  • amino acids
  • monanimies
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26
Q

Describe Glutamate.

A
  • the most abundant NT
  • an excitatory NT
  • binds to at least 8 different receptors both ion and metabo
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27
Q

Describe GABA.

A
  • most abundant inhibitory NT
  • binds to both ion and metabo
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28
Q

Describe Glyicine.

A
  • most unusual
  • an amionacid (simplest one chemically).
  • binds to inhibitory receptors in the spinal cord.
    co-agonist with glutamate at NMDA receptors in the brain
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29
Q

Who said “Neurons that wire together, fire together”?

A
  • Donald Hebb
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30
Q

what does Long-term potentiation do?

A
  • strengthens synaptic connections
  • helps encode memories
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31
Q

What is adaptive behaviour?

A
  • experiences can be learnt
  • may allow a person to rely on other senses hearing or smell.
    (e.g., someone may rely on crossing the road by what they hear rather than actually looking left and right).
  • more dangerous now that most cars are becoming electric, meaning they are silient.
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32
Q

What is the prediction error?

A

Lambda - V

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33
Q

What does Lambda mean?

A
  • the maximum amount that could be learnt.
34
Q

What does v mean?

A
  • what has already been learnt.
35
Q

What is the learning curve?

A
  • the difference between what could be learnt take away, what we already know.
36
Q

What does blocking do in terms of learning?

A
  • if something is predicted through an already existing stimulus, than that prediction will be blocked by any type of learning, as it isn’t necessary.
37
Q

Where are action potentials recorded in?

A
  • the ventral tegmental area (VTA).
38
Q

What would happen if a prediction error was made during the blocking phase?

A
  • it results in learning as this would not usually happen.
39
Q

What is memory consolidation?

A
  • the process of making memories stronger by transferring them from the LTM into the STM.
40
Q

What are NMDA receptors needed for in memory consolidation?

A
  • for memory acquisition, which is also a key part in LTP.
41
Q

What are the different types of administration of drugs getting in the body?

A
  • oral
    rectal
    buccal
    inhalation
    injection
    muscle intramuscular
    transdermal
42
Q

What does “dose response curve” mean?

A
  • depending on the drugs half-life it may result in how frequently a person takes drugs in order to feel the effects.
43
Q

What does Potency mean?

A
  • the amount of drug required to produce a specific effect.
    (how strong something is).
44
Q

What does efficacy mean in terms of drug use?

A
  • the ability of the drug producing an effect.
45
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of route administration of oral and inhaliation?

A

Oral
+ fast, easy to take
- stomach is acidic drugs are broken down
Inhalation
+ fast, gases leave + enter lungs quickly
- can damage lungs

46
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of transdermal patches and injection?

A

Transdermal patches
+ long duration of action
- potential for allergic reaction
Injection
+ very fast, allows accurate dosage
- can cause clots and infection

47
Q

What is a direct agonist?

A
  • binds to and blocks NT receptors, preventing the NT from attaching to receptors.
48
Q

What is an indirect antagonist?

A
  • dampens NT activity by inhibiting the release/ production of NT.
49
Q

What is Allosteric modulation?

A
  • chemical modulator which binds to a different part of receptor than receptor, altering the receptor response to the NT.
50
Q

What is an inverse agonist drug?

A
  • produces the opposite physiological changes to an agonist.
51
Q

What are some factors that may contribute to different drug effects?

A
  • Individual differences
  • experience
  • context
52
Q

How can age affect drug use?

A
  • a person’s metabolism slows down giving less chance of their body breaking down the drugs. e.g., liver is weaker.
53
Q

How does sex affect drug use?

A
  • women have lower plasma volume, higher proportion of body fat and different response due to menstrual cycle.
54
Q

How much alcohol can be metabolism per hour?

A
  • 10ml of 100% ethanol can be metabolised per hour.
55
Q

How does tolerance affect a person’s drug use?

A
  • over time a person becomes use to a drug and feels affects less, meaning they have to up their dosage.
56
Q

What does Sensitisation mean in terms of drug use?

A
  • means a person is sensitive to the drug and may have to lower or keep their dosage the same.
57
Q

What is the placebo affect?

A
  • if a person is told a drug will work even tho its a sugar pill, can make a person feel better as they are expecting the drug to have an effect on them.
58
Q

What factors affect alcohol?

A
  • food in stomach
  • sex
  • heritage ( a build of acid acetaldehyde causes a person to have a hangover).
59
Q

What is cellular tolerance?

A
  • neurons adjust their function to compensate for the drug on the cell, this may consist of things such as changing the number of recpetors.
60
Q

What is the limbic system?

A
  • a group of brain structures that help regulate emotions and behaviour.
61
Q

What is the amygdala?

A
  • a almond-shape part of the brain that is responsible for emotional control, specifically for fear.
62
Q

What can damage to the amygdala cause?

A
  • can disrupt the ability to feel fear and learn from it.
63
Q

Why is fear valuable?

A
  • can help spot danger and protect yourself.
64
Q

What is memory extinction?

A
  • a conditioned response weakens overtime as it is learnt to separate a response from a stimulus.
65
Q

What is the James-Lange theory?

A
  • emotions are a result of how the brain may interpret the body’s reaction to an event.
66
Q

What are emotional responses characterised by?

A
  • subjective feeling
  • behavioural
  • physiological
  • changes in cognition
67
Q

Give some examples of fear responses?

A
  • changes in
    heart rate, blood pressure, pupil size, EEG pattern, respiratory rate and hormone secretion.
68
Q

What are some changes in behaviour that may occur due to fear?

A
  • avoidance behaviour
  • enhanced attention + memory
  • adaptive benefits (use of different senses).
69
Q

Explain what maladaptive means?

A
  • actions that prevent people from adapting or participating in different aspects of life.
70
Q

What are some maladaptive effects from fear?

A
  • phobias, PTSD and drug addiction.
71
Q

What is emotion a product of in the brain?

A
  • the brain Kluver.
72
Q

What is Bucy syndrome?

A
  • a rare brain disorder that can cause memory loss and behavioural problems.
73
Q

What does PAG stand for and what does it do?

A
  • periaqueductal grey, and it is involved in the selection of defensive emotional responses.
74
Q

What are 4 diagnostic clusters for PTSD?

A
  • flashbacks
  • avoidance
  • negative cognitions
  • arousal (more reactive)
75
Q

What is a difference between PTSD and non- PTSD patients in terms of activation levels?

A
  • lower activation of VMPFC in PTSD patients.
76
Q

What is the difference between PTSD vs(non) patients in their Pre-frontal cortex?

A
  • Non-PTSD patients still have a working PFC meaning they can rain in excessive emotion, whereas PTSD patients have no control over their PFC.
77
Q

If PTSD patients have no activity in the PFC where do they have activity?

A
  • they have higher activity in the amygdala.
78
Q

What is Noradrenaline?

A
  • a chemical created in your nerve endings to help a person stay focused and alert.
79
Q

What can reducing NA do to a person?

A
  • reducing NA can cure PTSD.
80
Q

How can Beta blockers help with trauma?

A
  • they can prevent memories from strengthening.
81
Q

What is the role of the amygdala and PFC.

A
  • amygdala is responsible for expressing emotion.
  • PFC is responsible for controlling expressive emotion.
82
Q

If a brain scan highlights the colours red or range of high colours what does this mean?

A
  • it highlights activation in the amygdala.
  • excessive emotion caused by the amygdala also highlights damage to the PFC as it is unable to control the excessive emotion.
83
Q

What does drive theory mean?

A
  • the ability to detect what the ideal body state would be.
84
Q

What does motivational drive theory mean?

A
  • intentionally moving/changing location or clothing to warm or cool down, in order to get back to set tempreture.
85
Q

What is anticipatory motivational drive?

A
  • experiences can allow you to anticipate or predict for the future. e.g., get yourself a drink before eating something salty as you are aware the foods will make you thirsty.
86
Q

What are some rewards from drive theory?

A
  • eating = reward
  • avoiding hunger = reward.
87
Q

What is Hedonic reward?

A
  • unrelated to motivational drive , rewards engage emotions.
    e.g., sweetener rather than sugar - still being satisfied.
88
Q

What is incentive motivation?

A
  • learning
    (most behaviour is motivated by learned stimuli)
  • money is the main motivator.
89
Q

What is the difference between liking and wanting?

A
  • liking = sensory pleasure
  • wanting = motivational incentive value.