Investments Ch 1 & 2 Flashcards

0
Q

Financial assets

A

Claims to the income generated by real assets; they do not contribute directly to the productive capacity of the economy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Investment

A

The current commitment of money or other resources in an expectation of reaping future benefits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Fixed-income; debt securities

A

Financial assets that promise either a fixed stream of income or a stream of income determined by a specified formula. Ex: bonds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Equity

A

Depends on the context. In accounting and finance, equity represents ownership in any asset after all debts associated with that asset have been repaid. A house with no outstanding debt is considered the owner’s equity because he can readily sell it for cash. Stocks are equity because they represent an ownership shares in a company.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Derivative securities

A

Contracts that provide payoffs that are determined by the prices of other assets such as bond or stock prices. They’re typically used to hedge risk. Ex: options and futures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hedge

A

Making an investment to reduce the risk of price movements in an asset. An example of a hedge would be if you owned a stock, then sold a futures contract stating that you will sell your stock at a set price, therefore avoiding market fluctuations. Investors use this strategy when they are unsure of what the market will do. A perfect hedge reduces your risk to nothing (except for the cost of the hedge).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Arbitrage

A

When you simultaneous buy and sell an asset in order to profit from a difference in price. It’s a trade that profits by exploiting price differences of identical or similar financial assets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Turnover

A

The ratio of a portfolio’s trading activity to its total shares or assets. A small turnover is desired because it means the investor is paying less in commission to the broker.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Portfolio

A

An investor’s collection of financial assets such as stocks, bonds, and cash equivalents. Portfolios are held directly by investors and/or managed by financial professionals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Asset allocation

A

Choosing among broad asset classes such as stocks vs bonds, or safe assets vs risky assets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Security selection

A

Choosing the particular securities to include in the portfolio.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Security analysis

A

Determining correct value of a security in the marketplace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Top-down investing

A

Top-down investing starts with asset allocation before security selection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Bottom-up investing

A

Bottom-up investing starts with security selection before asset allocation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Risk-return trade-off

A

Investors must take on greater risk if they want higher expected returns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Efficient market hypothesis (EMH)

A

The efficient market hypothesis is an investment theory that states it is impossible to “beat the market” because stock market deficiency causes existing share prices to always incorporate and reflect all relevant information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Passive management

A

Buying a well-diversified portfolio to represent a broad-based market index without attempting to search out mispriced securities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Active management

A

Attempts to achieve portfolio returns more than commensurate with risk, either by forecasting broad market trends or by identifying particular mispriced sectors of a market or securities in a market.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Financial intermediary

A

An institution such as a bank, mutual fund, investment company, insurance company, or credit union that serves to connect the household and business sectors so households can invest and businesses can finance production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Mutual fund

A

An investment vehicle made up of a pool of funds collected from many investors, operated by money managers, who invest the fund’s capital in securities and attempt to produce capital gains and income for the fund’s investors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Investment company

A

Firm that manages and invests the pooled capital its investors who in turn share in the profits and losses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hedge fund

A

You can think of hedge funds as mutual funds for the super rich: its investors have to earn a minimum amount of money annually and have a net worth of more than $1 million. They’re similar to mutual funds in that investments are pooled and professionally managed, but differ in that it’s more flexible and uses more advanced strategies such as leveraged, long, short and derivative positions in both domestic and international markets with the goal of maximizing returns. Plus they’re unregulated (unlike mutual funds) because they cater to these sophisticated investors. “Hedging” is actually the practice of attempting to reduce risk, but hedge funds use tons of different strategies and can actually carry more risk than the overall market, so the name is mostly historical.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Investment Bank

A

Firms specializing large and complex financial transactions. They assist in raising new capital for companies through underwriting, facilitate mergers and acquisitions, and acting as a broker or financial advisor for institutional clients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Underwriting

A

Underwriters (investment bankers) purchase securities from the issuing company and resell them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Primary market

A

Where new stock and bond issues are sold to investors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Secondary market

A

Where already existing securities are bought and sold on the exchanges or in the OTC market.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Venture capital (VC)

A

Money invested to finance a new, not yet publicly-traded firm; equity investment in young companies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Over-the-counter market; OTC market

A

Where securities are traded in some context other than on a formal exchange such as the NYSE, TSX, or AMEX. So trades made over the phone, through email, or through electronic trading platforms. A stock is usually traded over the counter because the company is small, making it unable to meet exchange listing requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Private equity

A

Investment in a company that is not traded on a stock exchange.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Securitization

A

Pooling various types of contractual debt, such as residential mortgages, and selling the debt as bonds, pass-through securities, or collateralized mortgage obligation (CMOs), to investors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

2008 Financial Crisis Explained

A

Markets rely on Standard & Poor’s to objectively rate debt. But the companies that want a favorable debt rating are the same companies that pay Standard & Poor’s.

Banks wrote a ton of bad mortgages to people they knew were going to default, it’s called predatory lending, then hid those bad mortgages inside good mortgages to shine up the books for S&P, which gave them triple-A ratings.

Then they’d bundle the whole thing and sell the debt to Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac, which is owned by - You and me.

And then the banks bet on those loans defaulting. Not that much different from fixing a college basketball game except a ton of people wind up broke and homeless.

Those people can’t buy things anymore, so businesses start going out of business and more people are broke. When you start eliminating consumers, you start eliminating jobs, which eliminates consumers, which eliminates jobs, which eliminates consumers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

2008 financial crisis

A

The Federal Reserve had responded to the implosion of the dotcom bubble in 2000-2002 by aggressively reducing interest rates. Then by mid-decade the economy seemed healthy again, and the fear of default was low. The combination of dramatically reduced interest rates and an apparently stable economy fed a historic boom in the housing market. Low volatility and growing complacency about risk encouraged greater tolerance of risk, particularly in the markets for securitized mortgages, mortgage derivatives, and credit default swaps.
By fall 2007, housing price declines were widespread, mortgage delinquencies increased, and the stock market entered its own free fall. In September 2008, the giant federal mortgage agencies Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac were put into conservatorship, Merrill Lynch was sold to Bank of America, and Lehman brothers filed for bankruptcy.
Lehman had borrowed considerable funds by issuing commercial paper, so when it faltered, money market mutual funds across the country rushed out of commercial paper essentially shutting down short-term financing markets. The freezing up of credit markets was the end of any dwindling possibility that the financial crisis could be contained to Wall Street.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Mortgage-backed security

A

Ownership claim in a pool of mortgages or an obligation that is secured by such a pool. Also called a pass-through, because payments are passed along from the mortgage originator to the purchaser of the mortgage-backed security.

33
Q

Collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO)

A

A mortgage pass-through security that partitions cash flows from underlying mortgages into classes called tranches that receive principal payments according to stipulated rules.

34
Q

Collateralized debt obligation (CDO)

A

Pools together cash flow-generating assets and repackages this asset pool into tranches that can be sold to investors. It’s called collateralized debt obligation (CDO) because the pooled assets – such as mortgages, bonds and loans – are essentially debt obligations that serve as collateral for the CDO.

35
Q

Credit default swap (CDS)

A

A derivative contract in which one party sells insurance concerning the credit risk of another firm. The purchaser of the swap makes payments to the seller of the swap up until the maturity date of a contract. In return, the seller agrees to pay off a third party debt if this party defaults on the loan.

36
Q

Subprime

A

A classification of borrowers with a tarnished or limited credit history. Subprime loans carry more credit risk, and as such, will carry higher interest rates as well.

37
Q

Systemic risk

A

A potential breakdown of the financial system when problems on one market spill over and disrupt others.

38
Q

Money markets

A

A segment of the financial market in which short-term, highly liquid, and relatively low-risk debt instruments are traded. Money market securities consist of negotiable CDs, bankers acceptances, T-bills, commercial paper, municipal bonds, and repos.

39
Q

Capital markets

A

Markets for trading longer-term and relatively riskier securities. Capital markets include primary markets and secondary markets.

40
Q

Ask price

A

The price in which a dealer will sell a security.

41
Q

Treasury bill (T-bill)

A

Short-term, highly liquid government securities issued at a discount from the face value and returning the face amount at maturity.
The simplest form of borrowing: the government raises money by selling bills to the public. Investors by the bills at a discount from the stated maturity value. At the bill’s maturity, the holder receives from the government a payment equal to the face value of the bill. The difference between the purchase price and ultimate maturity value constituents the investors earnings.

42
Q

Bid Price

A

The price at which a dealer is willing to purchase a security.

43
Q

Bid-ask spread

A

The difference between a dealer’s bid and ask price.

44
Q

Commercial paper

A

Short-term unsecured debt issued by large corporations.

45
Q

Certificate of deposit (CD)

A

A bank time deposit. Time deposits may not be withdrawn on demand. The bank pays interest and principal to the depositor only at the end of the fixed term of the CD.

46
Q

Banker’s acceptance

A

A money market asset consisting of an order to a bank by a customer to pay a sum of money at a future date. Acceptances sell at a discount from the face value of the payment order, just as T-bills sell at a discount from par value.

47
Q

Eurodollars

A

Dollar-denominated deposits at foreign banks or foreign branches of American banks.

48
Q

Reverse repo

A

A reverse repo is a purchase with an agreement to resell at a specified price on a future date.

49
Q

Repurchase agreements (repos)

A

Short-term, often over-night, sales of government securities with an agreement to repurchase the securities at a slightly higher price.

50
Q

Federal funds; fed funds rate

A

Funds in the Federal Reserve bank’s reserve account. The fed funds rate is simply the rate of interest on very short-term loans among financial institutions.

51
Q

London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR)

A

Rate that most creditworthy banks charge one another for large loans of Eurodollars in the London market.

52
Q

Yield to maturity

A

A measure of the average rate of return that will be earned on a bond if held to maturity.

53
Q

Treasury bond or note

A

Debt obligations of the federal government that make semiannual coupon payments and are issued near par value.

54
Q

TIPS

A

TIPS, treasury inflation-protected securities, are inflation-protected treasury bonds whose principal amount is adjusted in proportion to increases in the Consumer Price Index. They provide a constant stream of income in real dollars.

55
Q

Inflation

A

The rate at which the general level of prices for goods and services is rising.

56
Q

Interest rate

A

The number of dollars earned per dollar invested per period.

57
Q

In the money

A

In the money describes an option who’s exercise would produce profits. Out of the money describes an option where exercise would not be profitable.

58
Q

Municipal bonds; general obligation bonds, revenue bonds

A

Tax exempt bonds issued by state and local governments, generally to finance capital improvement projects. Interests are exempt from federal and issuing state/local taxes, but capital gains are taxable. General obligation bonds are backed by the general taxing power of the issuer. Revenue bonds are back by the proceeds from the project or agency they are issued to finance.

59
Q

Equivalent taxable yield

A

The rate a taxable bond must offer to match the after-tax yield on the tax-free municipal. The tax free rate divided by 1-t.
r(1-t)=rm
or
r=rm/(1-t)

60
Q

Corporate bonds

A

Long-term debt issued by private corporations typically paying semiannual coupons and returning the face value of the bond that maturity.

61
Q

Coupon rate

A

A bond’s interest payments per dollar of par value.

62
Q

Common stock

A

Equities, or equity securities, issued as ownership shares in a publicly held corporation. Shareholders have voting rights and may receive dividends based on their proportionate ownership.

63
Q

Proxy

A

An instrument empowering an agent to vote in the name of the shareholder.

64
Q

Residual claim

A

Refers to the fact that shareholders are at the bottom of the list of claimants to assets of a corporation in the event of failure or bankruptcy.

65
Q

Limited liability

A

The fact that shareholders have no personal liability to the creditors of the corporation in the event of bankruptcy.

66
Q

Capital gains

A

The amount by which the sale price of a security exceeds the purchase price.

67
Q

Price-earnings ratio (P/E ratio)

A

The ratio of the stock’s price to its earnings per-share. Also referred to as the P/E multiple.

68
Q

Preferred stock

A

Nonvoting shares in a corporation, paying fixed or variable stream of dividends.

69
Q

American depository receipts (ADRs)

A

Domestically traded securities representing claims to shares of foreign stocks.

70
Q

Price-weighted average

A

Weighted average with weights proportional to security prices rather than total capitalization.

71
Q

Market-value-weighted-index

A

An index of a group of securities computed by calculating a weighted average of the returns of each security in the index, with weight proportional to outstanding market value.

72
Q

Index fund

A

Mutual fund holding shares in proportion to their representation in a market index such as the S&P 500

73
Q

Derivative asset/contingent claim

A

Security providing payoffs that depend on or are contingent of the values of other assets such as commodity prices, bond and stock prices, or market index values. Examples are futures and options.

74
Q

Call option

A

The right to buy an asset at a specified exercise price on or before a specified expiration date

75
Q

Exercise price, strike price

A

Price set for calling an asset or putting an asset.

76
Q

Futures contract

A

Obliges traders to purchase or sell an asset at an agreed-upon price on a specified future date.

78
Q

Put option

A

The right to sell an asset at the specified exercise price on or before specified expiration date.

79
Q

Balance Sheet

A

a

80
Q

NYSE, TSX, AMEX

A

a