Investments Flashcards

1
Q

What entity type is most likely to buy preferred stock?

A

C corps because they can take advantage of the 50% (or more) dividend exclusion.

The current law enacted by the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act states that if a corporation owns less than one-fifth of another company’s shares it can deduct 50% of dividends. If a corporation owns 20% or more of the company, it can deduct 65% of dividends.

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2
Q

T or F:
All ADRs satisfy the IRS definition of a “qualified foreign corporation”.

A

False. Most ADRs do, but not all.

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3
Q

Mutual fund shares are ______, not tradeable.

A

REDEEMABLE. Shares of mutual funds are nonnegotiable, redeemable securities.

Non-negotiable describes the price of a good or security that cannot be adjusted, or a part of a contract that is considered a requirement by one or both involved parties.

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4
Q

Both Equity and Mortgage REITS generally pay out at least ______ of Net Investment Income.

A

90%

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5
Q

_______ REIT income is derived from the difference between net rental income and interest paid on the loans to acquire the properties.

A

Equity

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6
Q

_______ REIT income comes from the spread between the lending rate and borrowing rate.

A

Mortgage

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7
Q

T or F: REITs cannot invest in limited partnerships.

A

True. Limited partnerships are often tax shelters.

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8
Q

If a REMIC (Real Estate Mortgage Investment Conduit) is established as a corporation, how is its income taxed?

A

As pass-through income

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9
Q

________________ funds are issued with a limited number of shares. Shares in a(n) ______________ fund increase or decrease based on customer deposits and redemptions. _____ issue units, not shares.

A

Closed-end funds
Open-end funds
Unit investment trusts

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10
Q

True or false - a no-load mutual fund can always be purchased at NAV

A

TRUE. If the fund is a “no load” fund, there is no sales charge, and customers buy at net asset value (NAV).

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11
Q

_______ funds offer a high level of diversification because they include both US and international issues.

A

Global

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12
Q

Forms 10K and 10Q are submitted to the _______

A

SEC.

Annual report goes to stockholders.
Form 1120 is the corporate federal tax return.

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13
Q

Are future contracts securities?

A

NO. They are not securities. They are regulated by the Commodity Futures Trading Commission - not the SEC.

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14
Q

Buying a long call has _________ profit potential.

A

Unlimited.

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15
Q

______ a call and ________ a put are generally profitable strategies in a rising market.

A

Buying / selling

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16
Q

_______ a put and ______ a naked call are generally profitable in a falling market.

A

Buying / selling

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17
Q

How do I determine the margin requirement?

A

[(1 - Initial Margin Req. %) / (1 - Maintenance Margin Req. %)] x Stock Purchase Price

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18
Q

In the Arbitrage Pricing Model, when a factor is zero, it is _____________.

A

Expected or anticipated.

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19
Q

Behavioral finance studies indicate that in a panic mode, most investors ______ make changes.

A

Will not.

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20
Q
A
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21
Q

In Arbitrage Pricing Theory, the expected value of each factor is ______.

A

Zero

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22
Q

Under the Black/Scholes option pricing model, an increase in the _________ will decrease the value of a call.

A

Strike price

A call with a higher exercise price would have less value than another call with the same remaining time to expiration but with a lower exercise price. The right to buy lower is worth more.

All the other variables have a direct relationship for calls or puts:
Price of the underlying stock
Time remaining to the expiration of the option
Interest rate
Volatility of the underlying stock

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23
Q
A
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24
Q

True or false: zero coupon bonds do not need to be accreted.

A

False.

Municipal discount bonds, corporate discount, bonds, and zero coupon bonds must be accreted. Accretion generates phantom income, but enables the bondholder to raise the basis accordingly.

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25
T-bills are issued in which terms?
3/6/12 month
26
T-bills are sold on a _________ basis and sold by __________.
discounted yield / competitive bid
27
Treasury bonds are issued _______ and are subject to ______ risk.
at par // reinvestment / interest rate / purchasing power
28
Treasury bonds sold on _____ basis and can be callable.
YTM
29
TIPS In any year when the principal value of the bond increases due to the inflation adjustment, the gain is _______.
reportable income
30
TIPS Treasury Inflation Protection Securities The inflation adjustment ________ the basis of the bond.
increases.
31
I bonds are taxed like EEs. The owner will generally choose to ________.
defer tax
32
For I bonds, interest is added to the bond _______ and is paid when the holder cashes the bond.
monthly I bonds interest is composed to two parts: the fixed part and the inflation part.
33
What is a security backed by mortgages where investors receive payments sourced from the interest and principal on the underlying mortgages? It is a pass-through security and represents pooled debt obligations repackaged as certificates.
mortgage-backed certificates
34
If a bond is selling at a premium, its current yield _________ than its yield to maturity.
higher than . DISCOUNT Yield to Call Maturity Current Yield Annual Coupon Rate ------ Current Yield Maturity Yield to Call PREMIUM
35
With EE bonds , in order to qualify for the education interest exclusion, the tax payer must generally be the ________
Parent. Also check whether or not income exceeds EE phaseout.
36
If a client invests for short-term, they face _________ risk.
reinvestment rate
37
The S&P Index would carry a ____________ risk
Nondiversifiable or systematic
38
Risk quantified as ____________ includes variability, nondiversified portfolio, and total risk.
standard deviation
39
What is the shortcut to finding the portfolio standard deviation?
Add the risks together. Divide by the number of risks. If the correlation coefficient is less than 1.0, choose the next lowest answer.
40
Unless the securities in the portfolio are perfectly positively correlated (+1), the standard deviation (the risk) of the portfolio must be _______ the weighted average standard deviation of the individual securities.
Less than Add the risks together. Divide by the number of risks. If the correlation coefficient is less than 1.0, choose the next lowest answer.
41
The beta of a portfolio is __________ the weighted beta.
equal to A portfolio's beta is the weighted average of each security in the portfolio multiplied by its beta.
42
GNMA bondholders face _______ reinvestment risk than do regular bond holders.
Greater, since periodic payments from mortgage-backed securities include both interest and principal.
43
The beta coefficient for the market is constant at _____.
1
44
The correlation coefficient between the US large cap market (US common stock fund) and an emerging markets fund is _______
LOW.
45
______ expresses volatility and systematic risk.
Beta
46
_______ expresses non-systematic risk, unsystematic risk, total risk.
Standard Deviation
47
The _________ ranges from -1 to +1.
Correlation coefficient
48
How do I find the standard deviation of a single investment?
Sigma, Sigma, Sigma, gold 7 (mean), gold 8 (standard deviation)
49
How do I find the coefficient of variation (CV)?
Standard deviation divided by the average return. The higher the result, the greater the risk.
50
Negative correlation will _____ the overall portfolio's beta.
Reduce. When the correlation coefficient is negative, the beta will be negative.
51
Covariance (COV) has a _______ relationship with the correlation coefficient.
Direct. They move together.
52
The Dow Theory indicates a(n) _________ strategy that is not supported by Modern Portfolio Theory.
Active
53
Dow Theory focuses on what two Dow Jones Indexes?
Industrials and Transportation
54
The _______ theory factors price action, support and resistance levels, stock values, confirmations, and divergences.
Dow
55
Considered the broadest measure of the stock market.
Wilshire 5000
56
_______ measures stock performance of small companies.
Russell 2000
57
Wilshire 5000 Index is _______-weighted.
Value.
58
The Dow Jones Index is _____-weighted. The Value Line Index is _______-weighted
Price equally
59
The purpose of the sinking fund is to ________.
Reduce default risk
60
If R-squared is under 60, use the highest ________ number. If R-squared is over 60, use the highest _____ and then the highest _______.
Sharpe Alpha / Treynor R is correlation coefficient
61
Normal, triangular, uniform, and lognormal are all examples of ________.
probability distributions
62
A method presumed to identify the top of a bull market and the bottom of a bear market.
Dow Theory
63
Assume returns on a managed portfolio are regressed agains the returns on a market index. The resulting alpha shows _________.
The return added to the portfolio by the portfolio manager.
64
A financial ratio is considered to be most useful with __________.
several ratios within the same industry over time.
65
If a bond has a high coupon rate, its duration is _________ than similar maturity debt with a smaller coupon.
Shorter High coupon --> Low Duration (inversely related) Smaller coupon --> Higher Duration
66
If a bond has a long maturity, its duration will be _______ than similar maturity debt with a shorter maturity.
Shorter Long maturity --> long duration (directly related)
67
By matching the duration of the bond or bonds to the time horizon of the financial goal, you can generally offset ________ risk and _________ risk.
interest rate / reinvestment
68
Zero coupon bonds are more ________ sensitive than other coupon bonds with identical maturities.
interest rate
69
Zero coupon bonds are more _______ if interest rates move quickly compared to other bonds with similar maturities.
volatile
70
If interest rates are expected to rise, buy ____ coupon bonds with ______ maturities to _____ duration.
High / short / shorten interest rates UP, Shorten duration UPS
71
If interest rates are expected to fall, buy ___ coupon bonds with _____ maturities to _____ duration.
low / long / lengthen Interest rates FALl, LENgthen duration FALLEN
72
Interest rates rise. _____ long-term bonds.
Sell Because long-term bonds will fall in price
73
Utility stocks typically have _____ dividend payment ratios.
High common dividend paid / earnings per share
74
Gross earnings of the company _______ factored in calculating the intrinsic value of a stock using the Dividend Discount model.
is not
75
How do you calculate Return on Equity for stock?
Earnings available for common (EPS) / Common equity (book value or net worth)
76
What is the dividend payout ratio?
Common dividend paid / EPS
77
What is the stock's yield?
Dividend / Closing Price
78