Introduction to Networking P2 Flashcards

1
Q

In every NOS, groups form the basis for resource and account management.

A

True

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2
Q

A benefit to using an NTFS partition is that it can be read by older operating systems, such as Windows 95, Windows 2000 Professional, and early versions of UNIX.

A

False

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3
Q

The term domain model refers to a type of peer-to-peer network that relies on domains rather than on workgroups.

A

False

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4
Q

In UNIX, you combine commands using a pipe, which is entered as a forward slash ( / ).

A

False

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5
Q

____ is one of the most important functions an NOS provides.

A

Client support

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6
Q

A piece of software called ____ translates requests and responses between a client and a server.

A

middleware

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7
Q

A(n) ____ is a list that organizes resources and associates them with their characteristics.

A

directory

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8
Q

A(n) ____ is the record of a user that contains all of his properties, including rights to resources, password, name, and so on.

A

account

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9
Q

The printer queue is a ____ representation of the printer’s input and output.

A

logical

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10
Q

The term ____ memory refers to the RAM chips that are installed on the computer’s system board and whose sole function is to provide memory to that machine.

A

physical

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11
Q

____ memory may be logically carved out of space on the hard drive for temporary use.

A

Virtual

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12
Q

A(n) ____ is a routine of sequential instructions that runs until it has achieved its goal.

A

process

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13
Q

A(n) ____ is a self-contained, well-defined task within a process.

A

thread

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14
Q

The support and use of multiple processors to handle multiple threads is known as ____.

A

multiprocessing

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15
Q

A(n) ____ is a pictorial representation of computer functions that, in the case of NOSs, enables administrators to manage files, users, groups, security, printers, and so on.

A

GUI

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16
Q

A workgroup is a group of interconnected computers that share each other’s resources without relying on a central ____.

A

server

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17
Q

The directory containing information about objects in a domain resides on computers called ____ controllers.

A

domain

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18
Q

The process of copying directory data to multiple domain controllers is known as ____.

A

replication

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19
Q

Active Directory organizes multiple domains hierarchically in a domain ____.

A

tree

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20
Q

Naming (or addressing) conventions in Active Directory are based on the ____ naming conventions.

A

LDAP

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21
Q

A GUID (globally unique identifier) is a 128-bit number that ensures that no two objects have ____ names.

A

duplicate

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22
Q

The primary function of the UNIX ____ is to coordinate access to all your computer’s hardware, such as the disks, memory, keyboard, and monitor.

A

kernel

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23
Q

UNIX was one of the first operating systems to implement a ____ file system.

A

hierarchical

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24
Q

Solaris employs the file system called ____ for its native file system type.

A

UFS

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25
Q

Every UNIX and Linux system contains full documentation of UNIX commands in the ____ pages.

A

man

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26
Q

In CIDR, conventional network class distinctions do not exist.

A

True

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27
Q

The MIME standard replaces SMTP.

A

False

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28
Q

POP3’s design makes it best suited to users who retrieve their mail from the same workstation all the time.

A

True

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29
Q

IMAP4 servers require less storage space and usually more processing resources than POP servers do.

A

False

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30
Q

A class ____ network class is reserved for special purposes.

A

D

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31
Q

In ____ addressing, only Class A, Class B, and Class C addresses are recognized.

A

classful

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32
Q

In classful addressing, the Class B IPv4 address network ID is located in the ____.

A

first 16 bits

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33
Q

In classful addressing, Class C IPv4 address host information is located in the ____.

A

last 8 bits

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34
Q

Within a classful addressing subnet mask, the ____ bits indicate that corresponding bits in an IPv4 address contain network information.

A

1

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35
Q

Within a classful addressing, ____ is the default subnet mask for a Class C address.

A

255.255.255.0

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36
Q

The result from ANDing 11001111 with 10010001 is ____.

A

10000001

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37
Q

When using classful IPv4 addressing, a network ID always ends with an octet of ____.

A

0

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38
Q

Because the octets equal to 0 and 255 are ____, only the numbers 1 through 254 can be used for host information in an IPv4 address.

A

reserved

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39
Q

CIDR notation takes the form of the network ID followed by a(n) ____, followed by the number of bits that are used for the extended network prefix.

A

forward slash ( / )

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40
Q

The ____ gateway is the gateway that first interprets its outbound requests to other subnets, and then interprets its inbound requests from other subnets.

A

default

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41
Q

The gateways that make up the Internet backbone are called ____ gateways.

A

core

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42
Q

An example of a popular mail server is ____.

A

Microsoft Exchange Server

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43
Q

An example of a popular client email software is ____.

A

Microsoft Outlook

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44
Q

SMTP operates from port ____.

A

25

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45
Q

The standard message format specified by SMTP allows for lines that contain no more than ____ ASCII characters.

A

1000

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46
Q

POP3 (Post Office Protocol, version 3) relies on TCP and operates over port ____.

A

110

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47
Q

IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) is a mail retrieval protocol that was developed as a more sophisticated alternative to ____.

A

POP3

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48
Q

An administrator can discover the host name assigned to a client by using the ____ utility.

A

hostname

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49
Q

A program similar to mtr, ____, is available as a command-line utility in Windows XP, Vista, Server 2003, and Server 2008.

A

pathping

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50
Q

The ____ utility allows you to view a host’s routing table.

A

route

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51
Q

All VoIP calls are carried over the Internet.

A

False

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52
Q

An off-the-shelf workstation can be programmed to act like an IP telephone.

A

True

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53
Q

SIP and H.323 account for communication between media gateways.

A

False

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54
Q

It is more difficult to transmit VoIP and video over IP signals over a packet-switched network than it is to transmit data signals.

A

True

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55
Q

____ is the use of one network to simultaneously carry voice, video, and data communications.

A

Convergence

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56
Q

____ describes the use of any network to carry voice signals using the TCP/IP protocol.

A

IP telephony

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57
Q

When VoIP relies on the Internet, it is often called ____.

A

Internet telephony

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58
Q

IPTV, videoconferencing, streaming video, and IP multicasting belong to the range of services known as ____.

A

video over IP

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59
Q

____ messaging is a service that makes several forms of communication available from a single user interface.

A

Unified

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60
Q

Using VoIP over a WAN allows an organization to avoid paying long-distance telephone charges, a benefit known as ____.

A

toll bypass

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61
Q

When using an analog telephone, a VoIP adapter that performs analog-to-digital conversion is known as a(n) ____.

A

ATA (analog telephone adapter)

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62
Q

In general, a(n) ____ is a private switch that accepts and interprets both analog and digital voice signals.

A

IP-PBX

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63
Q

When a caller uses an IP telephone, his or her voice is immediately digitized and issued from the telephone to the network in ____ form.

A

packet

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64
Q

A computer programmed to act like an IP telephone is known as a(n) ____.

A

softphone

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65
Q

The popular Internet telephony software, Skype, is a type of ____.

A

softphone

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66
Q

Among all video-over-IP applications, ____ is perhaps the simplest.

A

streaming video

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67
Q

One drawback to ____ video is that content may not be edited before it’s distributed.

A

live streaming

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68
Q

Many streaming video services - and nearly all of those issued over a public network, such as the Internet - are examples of ____ transmissions.

A

unicast

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69
Q

When more than two people participate in a videoconference, for example, in a point-to-multipoint or multipoint-to-multipoint scenario, a video ____ is required.

A

bridge

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70
Q

____ signaling functions are more limited than those performed by the protocols in the H.323 group.

A

SIP

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71
Q

SIP and H.323 regulate ____ for VoIP or video-over-IP clients and servers.

A

call signaling and control

72
Q

A(n) ____ is a computer that manages multiple media gateways.

A

MGC

73
Q

Many network engineers consider ____ to be superior to MGCP.

A

MEGACO

74
Q

____ is preferred over TCP for real-time applications such as telephone conversations and videoconferencing.

A

UDP

75
Q

____ is a measure of how well a network service matches its expected performance.

A

QoS

76
Q

Human errors, ignorance, and omissions cause more than half of all security breaches sustained by networks.

A

True

77
Q

Network security is more often compromised “from the inside” than from external sources.

A

True

78
Q

Encryption is the last means of defense against data theft.

A

True

79
Q

By default, the 802.11 standard offers substantial security.

A

False

80
Q

____ is a social engineering practice in which a person attempts to glean access or authentication information by posing as someone who needs that information.

A

Phishing

81
Q

In a ____ attack, a person redirects or captures secure transmissions as they occur.

A

man-in-the-middle

82
Q

____ software searches a node for open ports.

A

Port scanner

83
Q

A router that is not configured to drop packets that match certain suspicious characteristics is an example of a risk associated with ____.

A

transmission and hardware

84
Q

An NOS that contains a “back door”is an example of a risk associated with ____.

A

protocols and software

85
Q

A ____ attack occurs when an Internet chat user sends commands to a victim’s machine that cause the screen to fill with garbage characters and requires the victim to terminate their chat sessions.

A

flashing

86
Q

A ____ attack occurs when a system becomes unable to function because it has been deluged with data transmissions or otherwise disrupted.

A

denial-of-service

87
Q

A ____ main function is to examine packets and determine where to direct them based on their Network layer addressing information.

A

router’s

88
Q

A ____ firewall is a router (or a computer installed with software that enables it to act as a router) that examines the header of every packet of data it receives to determine whether that type of packet is authorized to continue to its destination.

A

packet-filtering

89
Q

A ____ attack occurs when a hacker uses programs that try a combination of a user ID and every word in a dictionary to gain access to the network.

A

dictionary

90
Q

A ____ attack occurs when a hacker tries numerous possible character combinations to find the key that will decrypt encrypted data.

A

brute force

91
Q

The combination of a public key and a private key is known as a ____.

A

key pair

92
Q

A(n) ____ is a password-protected and encrypted file that holds an individual’s identification information, including a public key.

A

digital certificate

93
Q

The use of certificate authorities to associate public keys with certain users is known as ____.

A

PKI

94
Q

____ is a public key encryption system that can verify the authenticity of an e-mail sender and encrypt e-mail data in transmission.

A

PGP

95
Q

____ is a method of encrypting TCP/IP transmissions.

A

SSL

96
Q

In ____ , a hacker forges name server records to falsify his host’s identity.

A

DNS spoofing

97
Q

A VPN ____ authenticates VPN clients and establishes tunnels for VPN connections.

A

concentrator

98
Q

____ protocols are the rules that computers follow to accomplish authentication.

A

Authentication

99
Q

RADIUS and TACACS belong to a category of protocols known as AAA (____).

A

authentication, authorization, and accounting

100
Q

In ____, both computers verify the credentials of the other.

A

mutual authentication

101
Q

Some software errors point to a physical connectivity problem.

A

True

102
Q

Logical connectivity problems often prove more difficult to isolate and resolve than physical connectivity problems.

A

True

103
Q

Continuity testers can test only copper cable.

A

False

104
Q

Most wireless testing tools contain more powerful antennas than a workstation NIC.

A

True

105
Q

An administrator should take the time to troubleshoot all network problems correctly by asking specific questions designed to identify the problem ____.

A

scope

106
Q

____ are often considered first-level support.

A

Help desk analysts

107
Q

____ are often considered third-level support.

A

Help desk coordinators

108
Q

____ is one of the most important aspects to consider when looking at how a problem solution might affect users and network functionality.

A

Scope

109
Q

A ____ is a document (preferably online) that lists every service and software package supported within an organization, plus the names of first- and second-level support contacts for those services or software packages.

A

supported services list

110
Q

In a ____ cable, the transmit and receive wire pairs in one of the connectors are reversed.

A

crossover

111
Q

A____ is a small electronic device that issues a signal on a wire pair.

A

tone generator

112
Q

____ is a fundamental property of wire that depends on a wire’s molecular structure and size.

A

Resistance

113
Q

Resistance is measured in ____.

A

ohms

114
Q

____ is the telltale factor for ascertaining where faults in a cable lie.

A

Impedance

115
Q

When used on a copper-based cable, a continuity tester applies a small amount of ____ to each conductor at one end of the cable.

A

voltage

116
Q

A ____ can be used to intercept a telephone conversation.

A

butt set

117
Q

A ____ is a software-based tool that continually monitors network traffic from a server or workstation attached to the network.

A

network monitor

118
Q

To take advantage of network monitoring and analyzing tools, the network adapter installed in the machine running the software must support ____ mode.

A

promiscuous

119
Q

____ packets exceed the medium’s maximum packet size.

A

Giant

120
Q

____ are frames that are not actually data frames, but aberrations caused by a device misinterpreting stray voltage on the wire.

A

Ghosts

121
Q

A ____ usually results from a bad NIC.

A

jabber

122
Q

A ____ can generate traffic in an attempt to reproduce a network problem and monitor multiple network segments simultaneously.

A

protocol analyzer

123
Q

The danger in using a ____ is that it could collect more information than you or the machine can reasonably process.

A

protocol analyzer

124
Q

Before using a network monitor or protocol analyzer on a network, it is important to know what ____ on your network normally looks like.

A

traffic

125
Q

Viewing the status of the wireless connection on your workstation tells you ____ about your wireless environment.

A

a little

126
Q

Protection against harmful code involves more than just installing anti-malware software.

A

True

127
Q

When implementing anti-malware software on a network, one of your most important decisions is where to install the software.

A

True

128
Q

An anti-malware policy is meant to protect the network from damage and downtime.

A

True

129
Q

The goal of fault-tolerant systems is to prevent failures from progressing to faults.

A

False

130
Q

____ is intended to eliminate single points of failure.

A

Redundancy

131
Q

A program that disguises itself as something useful but actually harms your system is called a ____.

A

Trojan horse

132
Q

____ are programs that run independently and travel between computers and across networks.

A

Worms

133
Q

A ____ is a program that runs automatically, without requiring a person to start or stop it.

A

bot

134
Q

A(n) ____ virus disguises itself as a legitimate program to prevent detection.

A

stealth

135
Q

A(n) ____ virus changes its characteristics every time it is transferred to a new system.

A

polymorphic

136
Q

____ scanning detects malware by comparing a file’s content with known malware signatures in a signature database.

A

Signature

137
Q

____ detects malware by comparing current characteristics of files and disks against an archived version of these characteristics to discover any changes.

A

Integrity checking

138
Q

____ scanning techniques attempt to identify malware by discovering “malware-like” behavior.

A

Heuristic

139
Q

A(n) ____ is a deviation from a specified level of system performance for a given period of time.

A

failure

140
Q

Power that is free from noise is called “____” power.

A

clean

141
Q

A(n) ____ UPS uses the A/C power from the wall outlet to continuously charge its battery, while providing power to a network device through its battery.

A

online

142
Q

Mesh topologies and ____ topologies are good choices for highly available enterprise networks.

A

SONET rings

143
Q

____ is an automatic distribution of traffic over multiple links or processors to optimize response.

A

Load balancing

144
Q

____ offers the best performance.

A

RAID Level 0

145
Q

____ provides redundancy through a process called disk mirroring.

A

RAID Level 1

146
Q

In ____, parity error checking occurs when data is written across the disk array.

A

RAID Level 3

147
Q

____ is a specialized storage device or group of storage devices that provides centralized fault-tolerant data storage for a network.

A

NAS

148
Q

____ are distinct networks of storage devices that communicate directly with each other and with other networks.

A

SANs

149
Q

____ is a type of media capable of storing digitized data and that uses a laser to write data to it and read data from it.

A

Optical media

150
Q

An archive ____ is a file attribute that can be checked or unchecked to indicate whether the file must be archived.

A

bit

151
Q

Documenting and capturing an accurate picture of a network’s physical and logical elements are initial steps in understanding the network.

A

True

152
Q

The more data you gather while establishing your network’s baseline, the less accurate your prediction will be.

A

False

153
Q

The first step in configuration management is to take an inventory of each node on the network.

A

False

154
Q

For a cabling upgrade, the best way to ensure that future upgrades go smoothly is to carefully document the existing cable after making any upgrades.

A

False

155
Q

____ management is the collection, storage, and assessment of information related to the versions of software installed on every network device and every device’s hardware configuration.

A

Configuration

156
Q

A(n) ____ is a graphical representation of a network’s devices and connections

A

network diagram

157
Q

A(n) ____ is a graphical representation of a network’s wired infrastructure.

A

wiring schematic

158
Q

____ management refers to monitoring how well links and devices are keeping up with the demands placed on them.

A

Performance

159
Q

____ management refers to the detection and signaling of device, link, or component faults

A

Fault

160
Q

The process where one network management console collects data from multiple networked devices at regular intervals is known as ____.

A

polling

161
Q

A network management agent is a ____ that collects information about a device’s operation and provides it to the network management application.

A

software routine

162
Q

____ involves manipulating certain characteristics of packets, data streams, or connections to manage the type and amount of traffic traversing a network or interface at any moment.

A

Traffic shaping

163
Q

____is the local storage of frequently needed files that would otherwise be obtained from an external source.

A

Caching

164
Q

The most common type of caching is ____ caching.

A

Web

165
Q

A ____ is a network device devoted to storage and delivery of frequently requested files.

A

cache engine

166
Q

A key component in managing networks is identifying and tracking its hardware and software through ____ management.

A

asset

167
Q

A ____ is a correction, improvement, or enhancement to a particular piece of a software application.

A

patch

168
Q

A ____ is a major change to a software package’s existing code

A

software upgrade

169
Q

____ upgrades represent modifications to all or part of an application that are designed to enhance functionality or fix problems related to software.

A

Application

170
Q

The most critical type of software upgrade you will perform is an upgrade to your ____.

A

NOS

171
Q

The process of reverting to a previous version of software after attempting to upgrade it is known as ____.

A

backleveling

172
Q

A networked ____ is perhaps the simplest device to add.

A

workstation

173
Q

Above all, keep ____ in mind when you upgrade or install hardware on a network.

A

safety

174
Q

The most comprehensive and complex upgrade involving network hardware is a(n) ____ upgrade.

A

backbone

175
Q

Because backbone upgrades are expensive and time consuming, the first step in approaching such a project is to ____ it.

A

justify