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Introduction to Networking > Introduction to Networking > Flashcards

Introduction to Networking Flashcards

1
Q

Which type of service supports e-mail?

A

communications

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2
Q

Which statement describes a certification drawback?

A

Certification value may be lessened due to the number of people obtaining them.

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3
Q

Hands-on experience to improve networking hardware and software skills is important when attempting to enter the networking field.

A

True

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4
Q

A ____ facilitates communication and resource sharing between other computers on the network.

A

server

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5
Q

Clients on a client/server network share their resources directly with each other.

A

False

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6
Q

Security auditing is handled by ____.

A

management services

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7
Q

Dependability is a characteristic of ____.

A

soft skills

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8
Q

A ____ network connects clients and servers from multiple buildings.

A

MAN

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9
Q

Hardware diagnosis and failure alert are handled by ____.

A

management services

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10
Q

____ services allow remote users to connect to the network.

A

Access

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11
Q

A common way of sharing resources on a peer-to-peer network is by modifying the ____ controls using the computer’s operating system.

A

file-sharing

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12
Q

Which network model ensures that no computer on the network has more authority than another?

A

peer-to-peer

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13
Q

The phenomenon of offering multiple types of communications services on the same network is known as ____.

A

convergence

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14
Q

____ are the distinct units of data that are exchanged between nodes on a network.

A

Data packets

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15
Q

A ____ is a specialized device that allows multiple networks or multiple parts of one network to connect and exchange data.

A

connectivity device

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16
Q

A ____ network is confined to a relatively small space.

A

LAN

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17
Q

Very large peer-to-peer networks have emerged to take advantage of the Internet.

A

True

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18
Q

Often, separate LANs are interconnected and rely on several ____ running many different applications and managing resources other than data.

A

servers

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19
Q

____ provide a Web-based client for checking e-mail.

A

Mail servers

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20
Q

Which network topology is the most common?

A

star

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21
Q

To prepare to enter the networking field, a student should master a number of general networking technologies.

A

True

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22
Q

____ services refer to the capability of a server to share data files, applications, and disk storage space.

A

File

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23
Q

Which certification requires candidates to pass lab exams?

A

Cisco CCIE

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24
Q

Which statement describes an advantage of networks?

A

Networks enable multiple users to share resources.

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25
Q

____ networks are the most popular type of network for medium- and large-scale organizations.

A

Client/server

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26
Q

Each network node has ____ types of addresses.

A

two

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27
Q

Which IEEE standard describes Ethernet?

A

802.3

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28
Q

Transport layer protocols break large data units into ____.

A

segments

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29
Q

The ____ is a fixed number associated with a device’s NIC.

A

physical address

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30
Q

Standards assist in network design.

A

True

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31
Q

The goal of ____ is to establish international technological standards to facilitate the global exchange of information and barrier free trade.

A

ISO

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32
Q

In which OSI model layer does IP operate?

A

Network

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33
Q

In which OSI model layer do hubs operate?

A

Physical

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34
Q

The ____ is a specialized United Nations agency that provides developing countries with technical expertise and equipment to advance those nations’ technological bases.

A

ITU

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35
Q

Which Data Link sublayer manages flow control?

A

LLC

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36
Q

Standards define the ____ performance of a product or service.

A

minimum acceptable

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37
Q

Which OSI model layer manages data encryption?

A

Presentation

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38
Q

IEEE has divided the Transport layer into two sublayers.

A

False

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39
Q

In which OSI model layer(s) do NICs operate?

A

Physical and Data Link

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40
Q

Which Data Link sublayer manages access to the physical medium?

A

MAC

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41
Q

____ is the process of reconstructing segmented data.

A

Reassembly

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42
Q

All Transport layer protocols are concerned with reliability.

A

False

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43
Q

Which statement accurately describes the OSI model?

A

B) It describes a theoretical representation of what happens between two nodes communicating on a network.

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44
Q

Which IEEE standard describes specifications for wireless transmissions?

A

802.11

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45
Q

Network functions are associated with only one layer of the OSI model.

A

False

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46
Q

The process of determining the best path from Point A on one network to Point B on another is known as ____.

A

routing

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47
Q

____ oversees the IAB (Internet Architecture Board).

A

ISOC

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48
Q

Which type of protocol is useful when data must be transferred quickly?

A

connectionless

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49
Q

In which OSI model layer does TCP operate?

A

Transport

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50
Q

Which OSI model layer initiates the flow of information?

A

Application

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51
Q

One of the most common transmission flaws affecting data signals is ____.

A

noise

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52
Q

____ describes wiring that connects workstations to the closest telecommunications closet.

A

Horizontal wiring

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53
Q

The strength of an electrical signal is directly proportional to its frequency.

A

False

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54
Q

Modern LANs use ____ or higher wiring.

A

Cat 5

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55
Q

Which connector is used in RS-232 transmissions?

A

DB-25

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56
Q

____ is a technology used with fiber-optic cable, which enables one fiber-optic connection to carry multiple light signals simultaneously.

A

WDM (wavelength division multiplexing)

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57
Q

The points where circuits interconnect with other circuits is known as ____.

A

cross-connect facilities

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58
Q

Many network problems can be traced to poor cable ____ techniques.

A

installation

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59
Q

Modulation can be used to make a signal conform to a specific pathway.

A

True

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60
Q

Ethernet is an example of a baseband system found on many LANs.

A

True

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61
Q

The data transmission characteristic most frequently discussed and analyzed by networking professionals is ____.

A

throughput

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62
Q

The distance between corresponding points on a wave’s cycle is called its ____.

A

wavelength

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63
Q

The most significant factor in choosing a transmission method is its ____.

A

throughput

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64
Q

The byte 00001110 means ____ on a digital network.

A

14

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65
Q

A digital signal composed of a pulse of positive voltage represents a ____.

A

1

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66
Q

The maximum distance a signal can travel and still be interpreted accurately is equal to a segment’s maximum length.

A

True

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67
Q

____ describes a popular serial data transmission method.

A

EIA/TIA RS-232 (Recommended Standard 232)

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68
Q

Which term identifies a room containing connectivity for groups of workstations in its area?

A

telecommunications closet

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69
Q

When signals are free to travel in both directions over a medium simultaneously, the transmission is considered ____.

A

full-duplex

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70
Q

In modulation, a simple wave called a ____ wave, is combined with another analog signal to produce a unique signal that gets transmitted from one node to another.

A

carrier

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71
Q

Which term describes the hardware that makes up the enterprise-wide cabling system?

A

cable plant

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72
Q

In a ____ cable, the usual wire positions are exactly reversed in one of the two RJ-45 terminations.

A

rollover

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73
Q

The more twists per foot in a pair of wires, the more resistant the pair will be to ____.

A

cross talk

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74
Q

Serial refers to a style of data transmission in which the pulses that represent bits follow one another along a ____ transmission line.

A

single

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75
Q

Which standard is also known as structured cabling?

A

TIA/EIA Commercial Building Wiring Standard

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76
Q

All protocols are routable.

A

False

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77
Q

ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) reports on the success or failure of data delivery.

A

True

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78
Q

If a device does not know its own IP address, it can still use ARP.

A

False

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79
Q

If your network does not need or use APIPA, it must be uninstalled to avoid conflicts.

A

False

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80
Q

TCP is a(n) ____ subprotocol.

A

connection-oriented

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81
Q

A(n) ____ number is the address on a host where an application makes itself available to incoming or outgoing data.

A

port

82
Q

____ is more efficient than TCP for carrying messages that fit within one data packet.

A

UDP

83
Q

A UDP header contains ____ fields.

A

four

84
Q

The subprotocol that enables TCP/IP to internetwork - that is, to traverse more than one LAN segment and more than one type of network through a router is ____.

A

IP

85
Q

____ operates at the Network layer and manages multicasting.

A

IGMP

86
Q

____ ARP table entries are created when a client makes an ARP request that cannot be satisfied by data already in the ARP table.

A

Dynamic

87
Q

In the TCP/IP protocol suite, ____ is the core protocol responsible for logical addressing.

A

IP

88
Q

In IPv4 addressing, each IP address is a unique ____ number.

A

32-bit

89
Q

In IPv4 addressing, an IP address whose first octet is in the range of 192–223 belongs to a Class ____ network.

A

C

90
Q

In IPv4 addressing, a node with an IP address of 168.34.88.29 belongs to a Class ____ network.

A

B

91
Q

In dotted decimal notation, a(n) ____ separates each decimal.

A

period

92
Q

The default subnet mask for a Class B network is ____.

A

255.255.0.0

93
Q

In most cases, BOOTP has been surpassed by the more sophisticated IP addressing utility, ____.

A

DHCP

94
Q

A(n) ____ address represents any one interface from a group of interfaces, any one of which can accept a transmission.

A

anycast

95
Q

In IPv6, each address contains a(n) ____, or a variable-length field at the beginning of the address that indicates what type of address it is.

A

Format Prefix

96
Q

If the standard port number for the Telnet service is 23, a host whose IPv4 address is 10.43.3.87 has a socket address for Telnet of ____.

A

10.43.3.87:23

97
Q

In the domain name www.google.com, ____ is the top-level domain (TLD).

A

com

98
Q

____ is a terminal emulation protocol used to log on to remote hosts using the TCP/IP protocol suite.

A

Telnet

99
Q

____ is a simple Application layer protocol used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network.

A

NTP

100
Q

____ is a utility that can verify that TCP/IP is installed, bound to the NIC, configured correctly, and communicating with the network.

A

PING

101
Q

Most Ethernet networks are based on the star topology.

A

True

102
Q

The smallest LANs do not have a backbone.

A

False

103
Q

A serial backbone is the simplest kind of backbone.

A

True

104
Q

A network’s access method is its method of controlling how network nodes access the communications channel.

A

True

105
Q

A physical topology ____.

A

depicts a network in broad scope

106
Q

Without ____, a bus network would suffer from signal bounce.

A

terminators

107
Q

In a ring network, each workstation acts as a(n) ____ for the transmission.

A

repeater

108
Q

A complex combination of pure topologies is known as a ____ topology.

A

hybrid

109
Q

The most common logical topologies are ____ and ring.

A

bus

110
Q

A ____ is simply a linked series of devices.

A

daisy-chain

111
Q

In packet switching, when packets reach their destination node, the node ____ them based on their control information.

A

reassembles

112
Q

Collectively, MPLS labels are sometimes called a ____.

A

shim

113
Q

All Ethernet networks, independent of their speed or frame type, use an access method called ____.

A

CSMA/CD

114
Q

A ____ occurs when two transmissions interfere with each other.

A

collision

115
Q

On an Ethernet network, a(n) ____ is the portion of a network in which collisions occur if two nodes transmit data at the same time.

A

collision domain

116
Q

1000Base-T is a standard for achieving throughputs ____ times faster than Fast Ethernet over copper cable.

A

10

117
Q

The 10GBase-T standard is considered a breakthrough for transmitting 10 Gbps over ____ medium.

A

twisted pair

118
Q

The most common 1-Gigabit Ethernet standard in use today is ____.

A

1000Base-LX

119
Q

1000Base-SX has a maximum throughput of ____.

A

1 Gbps

120
Q

The 10-gigabit fiber optic standard with the shortest segment length is ____.

A

10GBase-SR

121
Q

In the 10GBase-LR standard, the L stands for ____.

A

long reach

122
Q

Given their long-distance capabilities, 10GBase-ER and 10GBase-EW are best suited for use on ____.

A

WANs

123
Q

Within Ethernet frame types, the ____ signals to the receiving node that data is incoming and indicates when the data flow is about to begin.

A

preamble

124
Q

The data portion of an Ethernet frame may contain ____ bytes of information.

A

46 to 1500

125
Q

The Ethernet_II frame type contains a 2-byte ____ field which differentiates it from the older Ethernet_802.3 and Ethernet_802.2 frame types.

A

type

126
Q

IBM began developing the FireWire standard in the 1980s.

A

False

127
Q

CompactFlash NICs are most frequently used to connect devices too small to handle PCMCIA slots.

A

True

128
Q

It is best to perform connectivity tests on a computer connected to a live network.

A

False

129
Q

Cut-through switches can detect corrupt packets.

A

False

130
Q

Nearly all NICs contain a(n) ____, the device that transmits and receives data signals.

A

data transceiver

131
Q

By far, the most popular expansion board NIC is one that uses a(n) ____ bus.

A

PCI

132
Q

PCIe slots vary depending on the number of ____ they support.

A

lanes

133
Q

CompactFlash is an example of a peripheral device attached to the computer’s ____ bus.

A

external

134
Q

The primary difference between the two USB standards is ____.

A

speed

135
Q

____ is a set of data or instructions that has been saved to a ROM (read-only memory) chip (which is on the NIC).

A

Firmware

136
Q

Each time a computer starts up, the device drivers for all its connected peripherals are loaded into ____.

A

RAM

137
Q

If the ____ NIC LED indicator is blinking, the NIC is functioning and receiving frames.

A

RX

138
Q

A(n) ____ is the circuit board wire over which a device issues voltage to signal this request.

A

interrupt

139
Q

____ is a type of microchip that requires very little energy to operate.

A

CMOS

140
Q

The ____ is a simple set of instructions that enables a computer to initially recognize its hardware.

A

BIOS

141
Q

The ____ setting specifies, in hexadecimal notation, which area of memory will act as a channel for moving data between the NIC and the CPU.

A

base I/O port

142
Q

A NIC’s transmission characteristics are held in the adapter’s ____.

A

firmware

143
Q

A ____ is a repeater with more than one output port.

A

hub

144
Q

____ hubs possess internal processing capabilities.

A

Intelligent

145
Q

Switches can create ____ by grouping a number of ports into a broadcast domain.

A

VLANs

146
Q

To eliminate the possibility of a broadcast storm, switches and bridges implement the ____.

A

STP (Spanning Tree Protocol)

147
Q

Switches that operate anywhere between Layer 4 and Layer 7 are also known as ____ switches.

A

content

148
Q

A ____ is a multiport connectivity device that directs data between nodes on a network.

A

router

149
Q

____ routing is a technique in which a network administrator programs a router to use specific paths between nodes.

A

Static

150
Q

____ are combinations of networking hardware and software that connect two dissimilar kinds of networks.

A

Gateways

151
Q

Dial-up ISDN does not convert a computer’s digital signals to analog before transmitting them over the PSTN.

A

True

152
Q

____ is an updated, digital version of X.25 that also relies on packet switching.

A

Frame relay

153
Q

____ virtual computing allows a user on one computer, called the client, to control another computer, called the host or server, across a network connection.

A

Remote

154
Q

At the customer’s demarcation point, either inside or outside the building, T-carrier wire pairs terminate with a ____.

A

smart jack

155
Q

A ____ converts digital signals into analog signals for use with ISDN phones and other analog devices.

A

terminal adapter

156
Q

The individual geographic locations connected by a WAN are known as ____.

A

WAN sites

157
Q

A ____ aggregates multiple DSL subscriber lines and connects them to the carrier’s CO.

A

DSLAM

158
Q

____ is the standard for connecting home computers to an ISP via DSL or broadband cable.

A

PPPoE

159
Q

Broadband cable requires many subscribers to share the same local line, thus raising concerns about ____ and actual (versus theoretical) throughput.

A

security

160
Q

ATM is a WAN technology that functions in the Data Link layer.

A

True

161
Q

The portion of the PSTN that connects any residence or business to the nearest CO is known as the ____.

A

local loop

162
Q

Because WAN connections require routers or other Layer 3 devices to connect locations, their links are not capable of carrying ____ protocols.

A

nonroutable

163
Q

ISDN PRI uses ____ B channels and one 64-Kbps D channel.

A

23

164
Q

The PPTP VPN tunneling protocol is based on technology developed by Cisco.

A

False

165
Q

The speed of a T-carrier depends on its ____ level.

A

signal

166
Q

____ is the preferred communications protocol for remote access communications.

A

PPP

167
Q

The data rate of a particular SONET ring is indicated by its ____, a rating that is internationally recognized by networking professionals and standards organizations.

A

OC (Optical Carrier) level

168
Q

In a star topology, a single connection failure will halt all traffic between all sites.

A

False

169
Q

SONET’s extraordinary ____ results from its use of a double-ring topology over fiber-optic cable.

A

fault tolerance

170
Q

____ networking refers to dialing directly into a private network’s or ISP’s remote access server to log on to a network.

A

Dial-up

171
Q

WANs typically send data over ____ available communications networks.

A

publicly

172
Q

On most modern WANs, a ring topology relies on ____ rings to carry data.

A

redundant

173
Q

What sets ATM apart from Ethernet is its ____ size.

A

fixed packet

174
Q

A PSTN offers ____ security.

A

marginal

175
Q

In a process called ____, two 64-Kbps ISDN B channels can be combined to achieve an effective throughput of 128 Kbps.

A

bonding

176
Q

Wireless signals experience attenuation.

A

True

177
Q

Wireless networks are laid out using the same topologies as wired networks.

A

False

178
Q

If a station detects the presence of several access points, it will always choose the closest access point.

A

False

179
Q

WiMAX is defined by the IEEE 802.11 standard.

A

False

180
Q

In wireless communication, to exchange information, two antennas must be tuned to the same ____.

A

frequency

181
Q

A directional antenna issues wireless signals along a(n) ____ direction.

A

single

182
Q

In ____, a wireless signal splits into secondary waves when it encounters an obstruction.

A

diffraction

183
Q

____ is a most significant problem for wireless communications because the atmosphere is saturated with electromagnetic waves.

A

Interference

184
Q

In ____ wireless systems, the result is a point-to-point link.

A

fixed

185
Q

In ____ scanning, the station transmits a special frame, known as a probe, on all available channels within its frequency range.

A

active

186
Q

A unique characteristic of the 802.11 data frame is its ____ field.

A

Sequence Control

187
Q

The average geographic range for an 802.11a antenna is ____ meters.

A

20

188
Q

____ is the least popular WLAN standard.

A

802.11a

189
Q

An 802.11g antenna has a geographic range of ____ meters.

A

100

190
Q

____ may use either the 2.4-GHz or 5-GHz frequency range.

A

802.11n

191
Q

____ is an 802.11n feature that allows two adjacent 20-MHz channels to be combined to make a 40-MHz channel.

A

Channel bonding

192
Q

____ is an 802.11n network feature allowing the combination of multiple frames into one larger frame.

A

Frame aggregation

193
Q

Using Bluetooth version 2.0, communicating nodes can be as far as ____ meters apart.

A

30

194
Q

____ is a command-line function for viewing and setting wireless interface parameters and it is common to nearly all versions of Linux and UNIX.

A

iwconfig

195
Q

If intermittent and difficult-to-diagnose wireless communication errors occur, ____ might be the culprit.

A

interference

196
Q

LEO satellites orbit the Earth with an altitude as low as ____ miles.

A

100

197
Q

____ satellites are the type used by the most popular satellite Internet access service providers.

A

Geosynchronous orbiting

198
Q

Satellite Internet access providers typically use frequencies in the C- or ____ bands.

A

Ku-

199
Q

Dial return satellite Internet access is a(n) ____ technology.

A

asymmetrical

200
Q

Satellite return Internet access is a(n) ____ technology.

A

symmetrical

Introduction to Networking (2 decks)

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