Introduction to Medical Response to CBRNE Events Flashcards

1
Q

What happened during the Tokyo Tube attack?

A

In 1995, Sarin gas was released in the subway via plastic bags

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2
Q

What is the mechanism of toxicity of nerve agents?

A

toxicity arises from inhibition of AChE at the NM junction

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3
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of muscarinic nerve agents?

A
Diarrhea
Urination 
Miosis 
Bradycardia
Bronchorrhea
Bronchospasm
Emesis
Lacrimation 
Lethargy 
Salivation
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4
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of nicotinic nerve agents?

A
Mydriasis 
Tachycardia 
Weakness
Hypertension 
Fasciculations
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5
Q

What nerve agent was previously used as a terrorist weapon by Aum Shinrikyo?

A

Sarin

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6
Q

What is the pharmacologic management/antidotes for nerve agents?

A
  • atropine
  • pralidoxime chloride (2-PAM)
  • benzodiazepines
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7
Q

What is the odor of sulfur mustard?

A

garlic or horseradish-like odor, mustard, onion, or asphalt

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8
Q

What is the odor of nitrogen mustard?

A

fishy odor

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9
Q

What is the treatment for Lewisite?

A

British Anti-Lewisite (BAL) in peanut oil solution

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10
Q

What are examples of blood agents?

A
  • hydrogen cyanide

- cyanogen chloride

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11
Q

What is the odor of hydrogen cyanide?

A

bitter almonds

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12
Q

What is the odor of cyanogen chloride?

A

pungent biting odor - like burnt fireworks

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13
Q

What is in the cyanide antidote kit?

A
  • amyl nitrite
  • sodium nitrite
  • sodium thiosulfate
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14
Q

What does the hydroxycobalamin antidote react with?

A

cyanide ion to form cyanocobalamin and water

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15
Q

What is the mechanism of toxcity of cyanide?

A

Inactivates cytochrome oxidate which uncouples mitochrondiral oxidative phosphorylation

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16
Q

What is the odor of phosgene and di-phosgene?

A

newly mown or musty hay

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17
Q

What toxalbumin was used to kill Georgi Markov in London via subcutaneous injection?

A

ricin

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18
Q

What are the category A bioterrorism agents?

A
  • anthrax
  • botulium toxin
  • smallpox
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19
Q

What is the name of the disease that anthrax causes?

A

Woolsorter’s disease

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20
Q

What are the methods of transmission for anthrax?

A

contact with broken skin, inhalation of spores, ingestion, and injection

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21
Q

What are the CXR findings of inhalation anthrax?

A
  • widened mediastinum on CXR

- pleural effusion

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22
Q

What is the management of anthrax?

A

ciprofloxacin, meropenem, and linezolid

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23
Q

What is the most known toxic substance?

A

botulinum toxin

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24
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of botulinum toxin?

A
  • End result = muscle paralysis

- Diplopia, dysarthria, dysphonia, dysphagia

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25
Q

What are the differences between smallpox and chickenpox?

A
  • centrifugal distribution - important diagnostic feature

- synchronous changes in lesions

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26
Q

What are the category B bioterrorism agents?

A

ricin toxoalbumin from ricinus communis (castor beans)

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27
Q

What are the characteristics of alpha particles?

A
  • massive, charged particles
  • cannot travel far
  • negligible external hazard
  • damage: Internalized via lungs and GI, local cellular damage in immediate region
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28
Q

What are the characteristics of beta particles?

A
  • very light, charged particles found primarily in fallout radiation
  • can travel short distances in tissue
  • damage: basal stratum of skin (“beta burns”) and lense of eyes
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29
Q

What are the characteristics of gamma particles?

A
  • uncharged radiation similar to x-ray
  • highly energetic
  • pass through matter easily
  • whole-body penetrating exposure
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30
Q

What are the characteristics of neutron particles?

A
  • only released during nuclear detonation
  • severely disrupt atomic structures
  • 20x more damage than gamma rays
  • not a concern in dirty bombs
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31
Q

What is found in food irradiation plants?

A

cobalt-60

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32
Q

What is used in x-rays and cancer treatments?

A

cesium-137

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33
Q

What is found in nuclear batteries?

A

strontium-90

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34
Q

What are the blistering agents?

A
  • Nitrogen Mustard
  • Sulfur mustards
  • Lewisite
  • Phosgene Oxime
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35
Q

What are the choking agents?

A
  • Phosgene/Di-Phosgene

- Chlorine gases

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36
Q

What is the riot-control agent?

A

Oleoresin Capsicum (law enforcement pepper spray)

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37
Q

What are primary injuries from?

A

direct result of blast overpressure force

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38
Q

What is the most common fatal injury among initial blast survivors?

A

blast lung

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39
Q

What is the triad for blast lung?

A
  • apnea
  • bradycardia
  • hypotension
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40
Q

What are secondary injuries from?

A

result from projectiles/debris/ fragments generated by an explosion’s overpressure and blast winds

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41
Q

What are tertiary injuries from?

A

result when the victim is accelerated by the explosion’ force and then knocked into hard surfaces or launched into the air

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42
Q

What does SALT stand for?

A

Sort
Assess
Lifesaving Interventions
Treatment/Transport

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43
Q

What are the life-saving interventions done in the red/hot zone?

A
  • open the airway with the basic BLS maneuvers (may insert nasopharyngeal airway)
  • if a child, give two rescue breaths if needed
  • needle decompression
  • tourniquet for major hemorrhage
  • autoinjectors (nerve agent antidote, Epi-Pen)
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44
Q

What is categorized as immediate/red?

A

requires immediate care for a good probability of survival

45
Q

What are examples of immediate/red injuries?

EM IS a MUST

A
  • Exsanguinating hemorrhage
  • Mechanical airway obstruction
  • Incomplete amputations
  • Sucking chest wound
  • Maxillofacial wounds with potential airway compromise
  • Unstable chest and abdominal wounds
  • Second-or 3rd burns involving 40-60% TBSA
  • Tension pneumothorax
46
Q

What is categorized as delayed/yellow?

A

can tolerate delay prior to surgical intervention without unduly compression likelihood of successful outcome

47
Q

What are examples of delayed/yellow injuries?

S4, M3, T2

A
  • Stable abdominal wounds with possible visceral injury
  • Soft tissue wounds requiring debridement
  • Second or 3rd degree burns involving 15-40% TBSA
  • Smoke inhalation without airway or respiratory compromise
  • Maxillofacial wounds without airway compromise
  • Most orthopedic and vascular injuries requiring surgical intervention
  • Most ocular and CNS (including C-spine) trauma
  • Traumatic amputation with bleeding controlled
  • Traumatic crush injuries without crush syndrome
48
Q

What is categorized as minimal/green?

A

injuries requiring little more than first aid and should be rapidly directed away from the triage area

49
Q

What are examples of minimal/green?

CAPS 1st

A
  • Closed, uncomplicated fractures
  • Auditory blast injuries (blast eardrum)
  • Psychiatric and emotional distress
  • Superficial wounds
  • 1st/2nd-degree burns involving <15% TBSA
50
Q

What is categorized as expectant/grey?

A

injuries requiring an unjustifiable expenditure of limited resources and should be triaged away, but not abandoned

51
Q

What are examples of expectant/grey?

A
  • Mutilating explosive wounds involving multiple anatomic areas/organs
  • Agonal respirations
  • Profound shock with multisystem injuries
  • Second/3rd degree burns involving >60% TBSA
  • Unresponsive individuals with penetrating head wounds
  • Quadriplegic individuals with probably high spinal cord injuries
52
Q

What is categorized as deceased/black?

A

injuries incompatible with life

53
Q

What are exmaples of deceased/black?

A
  • Decapitation
  • Absence of vital signs with fixed and dilated pupils
  • Traumatic head injury with gray matter evident
  • Hemicorporectomy
  • Burns expending over >60% body surface area
  • Multiple penetrating wounds to the head, chest, abdomen, and/or pelvis
  • Lethal radiation dose
54
Q

What does MARCH-H stand for?

A
Massive hemorrhage 
Airway compromise 
Respirations
Circulation 
Head Injuries 
Hypotherima
55
Q

Who is it really good to use a SWAT-T tourniquet for?

A

for people with smaller extremities or children

56
Q

What is the criteria for tension pneumothorax that needs a needle chest decompression?

A
  • evidence of worsening respiratory distress or difficulty with BVM device
  • decreased or absent breath sounds
  • decopensated shock (SBP <90 mmHg - no radial pulse)
57
Q

Where do you insert the needle for a tension pneumothorax?

A

2nd intercostal space

58
Q

What is the modified HAINES?

A

High Arm IN Endangered Spine - lateral recovery position and head on outstretched arm

59
Q

What is the Cushing’s triad?

A
  • hypertension
  • bradycardia
  • respiratory changes
60
Q

What is the scoring for eye opening response on the Glasgow coma scale?

A

4 Spontaneously
3 To speech
2 To pain
1 No response

61
Q

What is the scoring for verbal response on the Glasgow coma scale?

A
5 Oriented to time, person, and place
4 Confused 
3 Inappropriate words
2 Incomprehensible sounds
1 No response
62
Q

What is the scoring for motor response on the Glasgow coma scale?

A
6 Obeys command
5 Moves to localized pain 
4 Flex to withdraw from pain 
3 Abnormal flexion 
2 Abnormal extension 
1 No response
63
Q

What is the neurogenic shock triad?

A
  • hypotension
  • bradycardia
  • peripheral vasodilation
64
Q

What is the lethal triad?

A
  • hypothermia
  • acidosis
  • coagulopathy
65
Q

What are the symptoms of mild hypothermia?

A
  • shivering
  • hypertension
  • tachycardia
  • tachypnea
  • vasoconstriction
  • poor judgment
  • strange behaviors
66
Q

What are the symptoms of moderate hypothermia?

A
  • slow and labored breathing
  • mild confusion (may appear alert)
  • cyanotic lips, ears, fingers, and toes
  • paradoxical undressing
  • cardiac arrhythmias may begin
67
Q

What are the symptoms of severe hypothermia?

A
  • difficulty speaking
  • amnesia
  • inability to use hands
  • incoherent or irrational behavior
  • stupor
  • loss of pain response
68
Q

What is the most effective agent for decontamination?

A

copious use of soap and clean water

69
Q

What is the inverse square law?

A

a law stating that the intensity of an effect such as illumination or gravitational force changes in inverse proportion to the square of the distance from the source
-further away = less exposure

70
Q

What biological weapon/agent did Aum Shinrikyo cult use?

71
Q

What biological weapon/agents were used in World War Two?

A

plague, anthrax, dengue, tularemia

72
Q

What biological weapon/agent was used on the city of Kaffa?

73
Q

What biological weapon/agent was used by the Bhagwan Shree Rajneesh cult?

A

salmonella enteritises serotype typhimurium

74
Q

What biological weapon/agent was used during the French-Indian War?

75
Q

What are examples of nerve agents?

A

sarin and lethal agents

76
Q

What is the mechanism of toxicity of blood agents?

A
  • can combine with ferric ion (Fe3+) in cytochrome-oxidase complex in mitochondria, thus preventing use of oxygen
  • cell switches to anaerobic metabolism, creating lactic acid and high anion gap metabolic acidosis
  • leads to progressive tissue hypoxia with potential cellular death
77
Q

What organs are most sensitive to blood agents?

A

heart and CNS

78
Q

What makes biological agents so appealing?

A
  • Relatively inexpensive to produce and distribute
  • Require the least amount of scientific sophistication
  • Allows for evasion before detection
  • Early symptoms of most biological agents are nonspecific
79
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Anthrax?

A

spores are highly resistant to drying, heat, gamma radiation, UV light, and many disinfectants

80
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Anthrax?

A

cutaneous, inhalation, gastrointestinal, injection

81
Q

What are the effects of radiation on hematopoietic?

A
  • on the neutrophils (fighting infections)

- bone marrow stem cells die, drops in all cell lines, infection, bleeding

82
Q

What are the effects of radiation on gastrointestinal tissues?

A
  • villi shrinkage and changes in mucosal cell morphology occurs as new cells fail to replace those lost (GI stem cells die)
  • copious diarrhea and vomiting, anorexia, cramps, infection
83
Q

What is spinal shock?

A
  • occurs after an acute spinal cord injury

- fall, MVA, assault, or driving injury

84
Q

What are the decontamination priorities?

A
  • Objective #1 : prevent further harm and optimize survival/recovery
  • Objective #2: prevent further dissemination outside containment
85
Q

What are the types of decontamination?

A
  • personal
  • casualty
  • personnel
  • mechanical
86
Q

What is personal decontamination?

A

self- or buddy- contamination

87
Q

What is casualty decontamination?

A

decontamination of those injured/incapacitated

88
Q

What is personnel decontamination?

A

decontamination of non-casualties

89
Q

What is mechanical decontamination?

A

removal of contamination from surfaces

90
Q

What are moderate manifestations of hydrogen cyanide toxicity?

A
  • HA
  • Nausea
  • Vertigo
  • Weakness in legs
  • Convulsions
  • Coma
    (CNS damage)
91
Q

What are severe manifestations of hydrogen cyanide toxicity?

A
  • Rapid and deep breathing
  • Violent convulsions
  • Cessation or respirations
  • Cardiac arrest and death
    (Lung and heart damage)
92
Q

What are manifestations of cyanogen chloride?

A
  • Irritation to eyes and lungs

- Respiratory tract damage

93
Q

What stops alpha rays?

A
  • Paper
  • Clothing
  • Skin
94
Q

What stops beta rays?

A

Thin plates made of wood, aluminum, etc

95
Q

What stops gamma rays?

A
  • Lead
  • Ion
  • Other thick metal plates
96
Q

What stops neutron rays?

A
  • Water

- Concrete

97
Q

What injuries are caused by primary explosions?

A
  • Blast lung
  • Injury to TM
  • Shearing of aorta causing aortic rupture
  • Spalling dense pressure displaces fragments into a less dense medium, affects the lungs
  • Imploding: overexposure of compressed gas within tissue and expands out.
98
Q

What injuries are caused by tertiary explosions?

A
  • Coup-contrecoup brain injuries

- Crush injuries - extensive MSK injuries

99
Q

What injuries are caused by quaternary explosions?

A
  • Chemical, thermal, and chemical burns.
  • Facial burns and carbonaceous debris around the nose
  • Difficulty speaking
100
Q

When do you use a tourniquet?

A

Control life-threatening external hemorrhage (areas amenable to tourniquets use or for any traumatic amputations

101
Q

Where do you place a tourniquet?

A
  • Place 1st tourniquet 2-3 inches above bleeding site

- Place the second tourniquet proximally but side-by-side if bleeding not controlled w/ first device

102
Q

What are all the types of tourniquets?

A
  • Combat Application Tourniquet “CAT”: most recommended tourniquet
  • SOFT-T
  • SWAT-T
103
Q

How would the Glasgow soma scale be written if pt was intubated?

A

T10 - T2 since there is no verbal response being tested.

104
Q

What does neurogenic shock cause?

A
  • Decrease in sympathetic nervous system outflow below the level of injury
  • Spinal cord injury above T6
  • Hypothermia, warm red skin below the level of injury (vasodilation)
  • Loss of bladder and bowel
105
Q

What does spinal shock cause?

A

Absence of all voluntary and reflexes neurologic activity below the injury:

  • Flaccid paralysis
  • Loss of sensation
  • Decreased deep tendon reflex
106
Q

What is time in reference to radiation?

A

less time spent near the source less radiation received

107
Q

What is distance in reference to radiation?

A

greater the distance from source less radiation received (1/X^2)
- 1/2^2 = 1/4 decreased exposure by 1/4 the original distance

108
Q

What is shielding in reference to radiation?

A

Behind shielding from source = less radiation received.

109
Q

What agents were used in World War I?

A
  • Chlorine

- Phosgene