Introduction- Corrigan Flashcards

1
Q

Are clinical signs diseases? a diagnosis?

A
  • NO
  • NO
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2
Q

Physical effects created by pathophysiologic processes

A

Clinical Signs

(are NOT diseases)

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3
Q

Different ways to classify diseases? (5)

A
  • Mechanistic
  • Fxnal
  • Temporal
    • Acute vs. chronic
  • Age
    • Congenital vs. Acquired
  • Focal vs. systemic
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4
Q

DAMNITV stands for?

A
  • D - degenerative, developemental
  • A - anomalous, allergic
  • M - metabolic
  • N - neoplastic, nutritional
  • I - infectious, inflammatory, immune mediated, ischemic, idiopathic, iatrogenic
  • T- trauma, toxic
  • V- vascular
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5
Q

POMR?

A

Problem Oriented Medical Record

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6
Q

Who do you do a POMR?

A
  • List all problems
    • important ones first
  • SOAP for each problem
    • Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan
  • Communicate to your client
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7
Q

What is on a CBC?

A
  • RBC
    • HCT
    • Hb
    • MCV
    • MCHC
    • Reticulocyte count
  • WBC
  • PLT counts
  • TP
  • BLOOD SMEAR!
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8
Q

Decreased PCV is due to what? (TQ)

A

Anemia

(regenerative or non-regenerative)

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9
Q

Causes of Regenerative Anemia?

(TQ)

A
  • Hemolysis
    • IMHA
  • Hemorrhage

(Regenerative Anemia = 2 H’s)

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10
Q

Causes of Non-Regenerative Anemia?

(3)

A
  • Inflammation
  • Renal dz.
  • BM dz.

Non-regenerative = RIB

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11
Q

Increased PCV is due to?

(TQ)

A

Polycythemia

(relative or absolute)

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12
Q

4 reasons why _____ is Low?

A
  1. not making it
  2. using it
  3. breaking it down
  4. sequestrating it
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13
Q

Elevations in Total Solids?

(3)

A
  • Dehydration
    • check albumin
  • Chronic infections
  • Leukemia
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14
Q

Decreases in Total Solids?

(7)

A
  • Poor nutrition
  • Liver dz.
  • Malabsorption
  • Diarrhea
  • PLN
  • PLE
  • Burns
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15
Q

How can you distinguish between PLN & PLE on a CBC?

A
  • PLN- just lose albumin
  • PLE- lose both albumin & globulin
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16
Q

Elevations in PCV & TS?

A

Dehydration & relative polycythemia

(if correct, both values return to WRI)

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17
Q

Elevated TS w/ Low PCV?

A
  • Dehydration may be masking a more sever anemia
  • When correct–> may decrease PCV to alarming levels
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18
Q

How can you estimate PCV?

A

Hb x 3

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19
Q

Which values should you use when interpretating Leukogram?

A

Absolute Values

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20
Q

Stress Leukogram

(TQ)

A
  • Mature Neutrophilia
  • Monocytosis
  • Lymphopenia
  • + eosinophilia
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21
Q

Physiologic Leukocytosis?

A
  • Neutrophilia
  • Lymphocytosis

(Catecholamines/Fear –> Cats!)

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22
Q

Inflammatory Leukogram?

A

> 1000 bands

OR

10% bands (if early or neutropenic)

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23
Q

Causes of Extreme Neutophilic Leukocytosis

A
  • Pyometra
  • Ehrlichia
  • Heptazoanosis
  • Fungus
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24
Q

3 things that should ALWAYS be on Rule Out List?

A
  • Ehrlichia
  • Neoplasia
  • Fungus
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25
Q

Elevations in Mature Neutrophils #s?

(6)

A
  • Stress - corticosteriods
  • Fear - shifts marginating –> circulating pool
  • Inflammation
  • Infection
  • Immune mediated dzs
  • Neoplasia
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26
Q

Regenerative Left Shift?

A
  • Leukocytosis
  • Neutrophilia + Left Shift
  • Segmented > Bands
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27
Q

Degenerative Left Shift?

A
  • normal to decreased total neutrophils c
  • Left Shift
  • Bands > Segmented neutrophils.
  • Body not meeting demand
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28
Q

Elevations in Lymphocytes?

(4)

A
  • Chronic inflammation - Riskettsial infections
  • Neoplasia
  • Catecholamines - fear
  • Hypoadrenocorticism - Addison’s
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29
Q

Decreases in Lymphocytes:

(4)

A
  • Steriods
  • Acute inflammation
  • Effusions
  • Lymphoid hypoplasia/aplasia
30
Q

What cells are the markers of antigenic stimulation?

A

Lymphocytes

31
Q

Which cells are markers of chronic inflammation?

A

Monocytes

32
Q

Causes of Eosinophillia

A
  • Allergic dz
  • Parasitic dz
  • Eosinophilic dz
  • Mast Cell Neoplasia
  • Hypoadrenocorticism - Addison’s
33
Q

Which species are prone to eosinophilic dz’s?

A

Cats!

34
Q

Corrected Reticulocyte % (CPR)

(TQ)

A
  • Dogs: > 1.5% = regeneration
  • Cats: > 1% = regeneration
35
Q

Which dog breeds have microcytic RBCs?

A
  • Akita
  • Shiba Inu
36
Q

What should you be thinking of if the machine reads Hyperchromic RBCs?

A

Heinz bodies

look at Blood Smear

37
Q

Which acute phase protein is an indicator of inflammation?

A

Fibrinogen

38
Q

Causes of Thrombocytopenia?

(4)

TQ!

A
  • Decreased production
  • Increased use
  • Increased destruction
  • Sequestration
39
Q

Which species have platelets that are easily activated?

A

Cats!

40
Q

What can cause a false decrease in platelet numbers?

A

Platelet Party!

41
Q
A
42
Q

Heinz Bodies on a Blood Smear?

(4)

A
  • Oxydative damage
  • Denatured Hb
  • Onion toxicity
  • Tylenol toxicity
43
Q

Technique for Saline Dilution to distinguish Agglutination?

A
  • ½ drop of blood
  • 4-5 drops of saline
44
Q

Elevations in Total Protein (TP)?

A
  • Dehydration
  • Chronic infections
  • Leukemia
45
Q

Decreases in Total Protein?

(6)

A
  • Poor nutrition
  • Malabsorption
  • Diarrhea
  • Liver Dz
  • Renal Dz
  • Burns
46
Q

Which protein is a liver fxn assessment?

(TQ)

A

Albumin!

47
Q

Only clinical entity that causes hyperalbuminemia?

A

Dehydration

48
Q

4 things that tell you about Liver Fxn?

(TQ)

A
  • Cholesterol
  • BUN
  • Albumin
  • Glucose

C-BAG!!!

49
Q

AST comes from where? Is a marker of?

(AST=aspartate aminotranferase)

A
  • Mitochondria
  • Cellular damage
50
Q

Does AST test liver fxn?

A

NO

51
Q

AST is suggestive of what 4 things?

A
  • Liver damage
  • Kidney infection
  • Myocardial infarction
  • Mm. damage
52
Q

In what species is an AST increase of 2-3x in magnitude not a proper indicator?

A
  • Cats
  • really short ½ life –> will often pee it out
53
Q

Where does ALT come from? Accurate indicator of?

(ALT = alanine aminotransferase)

A
  • Cytoplasm
  • hepatocyte injury
54
Q

At what time period will ALT be at its maximum in circulation?

A

48 hrs post acute injury

55
Q

Does ALT measure Liver fxn?

A

NO

56
Q

Where is ALP located? Indicator of what?

(ALP = alkaline phosphatase)

A
  • Bile canaliculi membranes
  • Cholestasis
57
Q

ALP is a ___enzyme. Where else can it be found?

A
  • isoenzyme
  • Liver
  • Bone - skeletal growth
  • Pregnancy
  • Steroids- Dogs
  • Phenobarb
58
Q

Why may GGT be useful in cats?

(GGT= gamma glutamyl transferase)

A

Elevations in ALP & GGT suggestive of Hepatic Lipidosis

59
Q

BUN is made where? Indicates what?

(TQ)

A
  • Liver
  • 75% damage
60
Q

Elevations in BUN?

(5)

A
  • High protein intake
  • GI bleeding - ulcers
  • Renal Dz
  • Dehydration
  • Excercise
61
Q

Decreases in BUN?

(4)

TQ

A
  • Liver Dz.
  • Poor diet
  • Malabsorption
  • Diuresis
62
Q

Which breed of dogs have slightly higher than normal Creatinine levels?

NAVLE

A

Greyhounds

63
Q

When will you see elevations of Creatinine?

A

Not till 75% of liver has been damaged

64
Q

Azotemia MUST be evaluated with what?

(TQ)

A

Urine Specific Gravity (USG)

65
Q

Which hormone has a greater effect on the body, PTH or Calcitonin?

(TQ)

A

PTH

(Parathyroid Hormone)

66
Q

Which form of Ca should you evaluate if concerned about abnormal total Ca levels?

A

Ionized!

(free Ca in the body)

67
Q

Causes of Hypercalcemia?

(10)

A

GOSH DARN IT

  • G-granulomatous dz.
  • O-osteopathy/osteolytic dz.
  • S- spurious
  • H- Hyperparathyroidism
  • D- Hypervitaminosis D
  • A- Addison’s
  • R- Renal dz.
  • N- Neoplasia = LSA, ASA, MM
  • I- Idiopathic
  • T- Temperature (Cats)
68
Q

Facial itchyness can be a sign of what?

A

Hypocalcemia

69
Q

Causes of Hypocalcemia?

(6)

A

HERPES

  • H- hypoparathyroidism
  • E- eclampsia
  • R- renal dz.
  • P- pacreatitis/phosphorus
  • E- ethylene glycol toxicity
  • S- spurious (fake)
70
Q
A