Introduction and Examinations Flashcards

1
Q

What questions should you ask someone presenting with subnormal vision?

A
duration
differences between 2 eyes
distortion, haloes, floaters of vision
flashing lights 
momentary losses of vision 
field defects
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2
Q

What questions should you ask someone with visual loss?

A

monocular/binocular
time of event, method of symptom awareness (covering other eye)
change in symptoms, associated symptoms
visual loss - general/central/associated field/peripheral only/global effect on function

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3
Q

What other questions should you ask someone?

A

pain/discomfort
discharge
change in lacrimation - increase/decrease
change in appearance - discolouration/swelling/mass/displacement
diplopia

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4
Q

What medical history is significant?

A
DM 
HTN
COPD
Dysthyroid Eye Disease 
Connective Tissue disease
Smoking 
Hyperlipideamia 

Previous ocular history
DH
FH
SH

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5
Q

How do you test visual acuity?

A

Distance near and far with and without glasses

pin hole test

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6
Q

How do you examine the pupils?

A

Bright room light exam, dim room light exam

direct and consensual light reflex

swinging flash light test for relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD)

accommodation reflex

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7
Q

What is proptosis/enophthalmos?

A

Bulging of the eyes

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8
Q

How do you test visual fields?

A

confrontation test

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9
Q

How do you test colour vision?

A

Ishihara colour chart

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10
Q

How do you examine the fundus?

A

Red reflex

Retina - optic disc, general fundus, macula

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11
Q

What special investigations are used in ophthalmology?

A

fluorescein angiography
optical coherence tomography
radiological and USS
Haematological/biochemical/bacteriological/immunological diagnosis

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12
Q

What are the main two different types of diagnoses in ophthalmology?

A

Anatomical - e.g. cataracts

Aetiological - e.g. diabetes

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13
Q

What does a lack of red reflex suggest?

A

v dense cataracts

vitreous haemorrhage

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14
Q

What does an afferent pupillary defect imply?

A

an optic nerve problem or a large retinal lesion

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15
Q

What does an efferent pupillary defect imply?

A

implies a third nerve problem

ie - the efferent limb on the light reflex, with the pupil failing to constrict, but the afferent limb or optic nerve function normal

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16
Q

What does a retinal afferent pupillary defect imply?

A

defect implies partial optic nerve or significant retinal damage, with some impulses being transmitted

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17
Q

What would be seen in a patient with a complete third nerve palsy?

A

ptosis - eye would look down and out AND there is is an efferent pupil defect on the affected side

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18
Q

What would be seen in a patient with Horner’s syndrome?

What will the affected pupil look like?

A

neck scars
partial ptosis
eye may appear sunken in (apparent enophthalmos)

affected pupil is smaller than normal and the anisocaria is more pronounced in the dark

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19
Q

How does Adie’s pupil normally present?

A

ability of pupil to constrict is impaired so it is larger in one eye

Patient is often young and had efferent pupillary defect on direct and consensual testing with tonic pupil responses. Pupil constriction on convergence is slow but miosis does eventually occur

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20
Q

What does light-near dissociation imply?

A

implies an abnormal light reflex with a normal near reflex

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21
Q

Why do patients with cortical blindness have normal light responses?

A

lesions posterior to the optic tract do not affect the light reflex

22
Q

What is the primary action of medial rectus?

A

ADDuction

23
Q

What is the primary action of lateral rectus?

A

ABDuction

24
Q

What is the primary action of superior rectus?

A

Elevation

25
Q

What is the primary action of inferior rectus?

A

Depression

26
Q

What is the primary action of superior oblique?

A

Intorsion

27
Q

What is the primary action of inferior oblique?

A

Extorsion

28
Q

What is a manifest squint?

  • TROPIA
A

occurs when one or other of the visual axes is not directed towards the fixation point
/
misalingment of the visual axes due to occular muscles imbalance in the binocular state causes a manifest squint or strabismus

(when the eyes are open and being used)

29
Q

What is a latent squint?

  • PHORIA
A

the deviation of the eyes is only obvious when the binocular single vision is dissociated or inhibited (by performing the alternate cover test)

commonly found in normal population and not normally symptom producing

30
Q

What is exotropia?

A

outwards deviation of the affected eye - MANIFEST SQUINT

31
Q

What is esotropia?

A

inwards deviation of the affected eye - MANIFEST SQUINT

32
Q

What is hypertropia?

A

upwards deviation of the affected eye - MANIFEST SQUINT

33
Q

What is hypotropia?

A

downwards deviation of the affected eye - MANIFEST SQUINT

34
Q

What is cyclotropia?

A

wheel rotation of the affected eye - MANIFEST SQUINT

35
Q

What is exophoria?

A

tendency for eyes to wander outwards on dissociation - LATENT SQUINT

36
Q

What is esophoria?

A

tendency for eyes to wander inwards on dissociation - LATENT SQUINT

37
Q

What is hyperphoria?

A

tendency for upward deviation - LATENT SQUINT

38
Q

What is hypophoria?

A

tendency for downward deviation - LATENT SQUINT

39
Q

What is cyclophoria?

A

tendency for wheel rotation - LATENT SQUINT

40
Q

What are the 3 groups that manifest squints are classified into?

A

1- primary
2- secondary (to loss or impairment of vision)
3- consecutive (following a squint op)

41
Q

What are conjugate movements of the eye?

A

movements of both eyes in the same direction

42
Q

What are disjugate movements?

A

movements of the eyes in the opposite direction, termed vergences

43
Q

What is myopia?

A

Short-sightness
Light is focused IN FRONT of the retina
Corrected with DIVERGENT lenses

44
Q

What is hypermetropia?

A

Long-sightness
Light is focused BEHIND the retina
Corrected with CONVERGENT lenses

45
Q

What is astigmatism?

A

a rugby ball shaped eye - changes the way light will be refracted in the eye
symmetrical in all but one direction

46
Q

Why is ocular movement testing performed?

A

It is used to identify whether one or more of the extra ocular muscles is under-acting, over-acting or restricted

47
Q

What are the main advantages of soft contact lenses?

A
Flexible 
Good initial comfort 
Larger diameter incurs secure fit
Safer for sports
May be used for extended wear
48
Q

What are the main advantages of rigid gas permeable lenses?

A

Fixed shape and durable
Good for all day wear
Smaller diameter incurs less risk of hypoxia
Creates smoother ocular surface
Visual result for irregular corneas and high astigmatism
Easy to clean
Good VA if large levels of astigmatism

49
Q

What are the main disadvantages of soft contact lenses?

A

Splits easily
Depositions from tear
More expensive
Dehydrates if left out of the solution

50
Q

What are the main disadvantages of rigid gas permeable lenses?

A

Poor initial comfort

Smaller diameter therefore prone to fall out the eye