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Patho Exam 1 > Introduction > Flashcards

Introduction Flashcards

1
Q

The study of disease–what goes wrong with the body, how it goes wrong, and why the signs and symptoms occur

A

pathophysiology

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2
Q

topography of disease–localized to a specific area

A

focal

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3
Q

topography of disease–infecting an entire organ

A

diffuse

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4
Q

topography of disease–multiple focal areas of infection

A

disseminated

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5
Q

topography of disease–involving an entire organ system

A

systemic

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6
Q

topography of disease–just everywhere in the body

A

generalized

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7
Q

time course of disease–hours to days

A

acute

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8
Q

time course of disease–week to a couple months

A

subacute

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9
Q

time course of disease–months to years

A

chronic

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10
Q

the cause of a disease

A

etiology

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11
Q

the sequence of cellular, biochemical, and molecular events that follows exposure to an injurious agent. Mechanism of disease development; includes the cellular/tissue response

A

pathogenesis

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12
Q

specifically distinctive or characteristic of a disease; a sign or symptom on which a diagnosis can be made

A

pathognomonic

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13
Q

list of possible diagnoses that are applicable to a specific patient or finding

A

differential diagnosis

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14
Q

the “normal” steady state of the body

A

homeostasis

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15
Q

the reversible new and altered steady state; response to physiologic stresses and some pathologic stimuli

A

adaptation

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16
Q

an increase in the number of cells–can be hormonal or compensatory; caused by increased local growth factors-can by pathologic leading to cancer

A

hyperplasia

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17
Q

increase in cell size; physiologic or pathologic

A

hypertrophy

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18
Q

decrease in number and/or size of cells

A

atrophy

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19
Q

when cells change type–sometimes setting up for cancer

A

metaplasia

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20
Q

the cell death process that results from abnormal stresses; always pathologic

A

necrosis

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21
Q

internally controlled cell suicide; frequently normal

A

apoptosis

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22
Q

“new growth” tumor; abnormal mass of tissue with excessive and unregulated proliferation

A

neoplasia

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23
Q

cancerous neoplasms are ___

A

malignant

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24
Q

noncancerous neoplasms are ___

A

benign

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25
Q

a ____ disease/disorder is present from birth

A

congenital

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26
Q

a ___ disease/disorder is obtained from external sources after birth, not genetic (even though there can be a genetic predisposition)

A

acquired

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27
Q

supporting or connective tissue and muscle cells are considered ___ cells

A

mesenchymal

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28
Q

____ cells line or cover body surfaces and serve as interfaces that may be absorptive or secretory

A

epithelial

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29
Q

epithelial cells sit on top of the _____, which acts as a barrier and attachment point; it is not penetrated by lymphatics or blood vessels

A

basement membrane

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30
Q

one layer of epithelial cells is called ___

A

simple

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31
Q

multiple layers of epithelial cells is called ____

A

stratified

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32
Q

epithelial cells are named by ____

A

the shape of the outermost cell layer

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33
Q

single layer of flat cells

A

simple squamous

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34
Q

___ cells are typically protective but also capable of transport

A

simple squamous

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35
Q

single layer of cube-shaped cells

A

simple cuboidal

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36
Q

____ cells are usually seen in small ducts and tubules and are often excretory, secretory, and absorptive properties (glands)

A

simple cuboidal

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37
Q

one layer of tall cells

A

simple columnar

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38
Q

___ tend to be highly absorptive or secretory and are often located in the GI tract

A

simple columnar

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39
Q

in ____ cells there are cilia which are motile and serve a function

A

columnar ciliated

40
Q

____ are falsely layered cells present in larger airways

A

pseudostratified ciliated

41
Q

___ operate the mucociliary escalator

A

cilia

42
Q

___ are multiple layers of flattened cells that are predominantly protective and mature from the basement membrane superficially

A

stratified squamous

43
Q

____ cells may specialize by forming keratin and are located in the skin and upper aerodigestive tract

A

stratified squamous

44
Q

___ epithelium lines the urinary tract and is able to expand to large degrees

A

transitional

45
Q

___ is an adaptive response to combat infection, when the set temperature of the hypothalamus changes

A

fever

46
Q

____ are molecules that cause fever

A

pyrogens

47
Q

in ____ the set point of temperature in the hypothalamus does not change

A

hyperthermia

48
Q

the core body temperature, determined by the hypothalamus, is normally ___C or ___F

A

37; 98.6

49
Q

____ is when the lowest temperature is in the morning and highest between 4-6pm

A

diurnal variation

50
Q

With a fever, does diurnal variation remain?

A

NO

51
Q

In menstruating women, the AM temperature is (higher/lower) for two weeks prior to ovulation and (rises/lowers) about 0.6C with ovulation

A

lower; rises

52
Q

In what two groups of people is the fever response impaired?

A

very young and very old

53
Q

The ___ rate of heat production is caused by normal metabolism and bodily functions

A

basal

54
Q

The __ rate of heat production is caused by muscle activity, hormones, epinephrine from sympathetic stimulation, and increased activity within cells

A

extra

55
Q

What hormone is most especially associated with extra rate heat production?

A

thyroxine

56
Q

Heat is lost by what three ways?

A

radiation, conduction, evaporation

57
Q

A fever is often due to ____ and rarely due to primary ____

A

foreign invaders; hypothalamic disorders

58
Q

The ceiling of fevers is considered to be at ___F

A

106

59
Q

____ is a fever greater than 106.7 and is most often due to CNS hemorrhage

A

hyperpyrexia

60
Q

____ occurs when production of heat is greater than the ability of the body to get rid of it

A

hyperthermia

61
Q

Do antipyretics help in hyperthermia?

A

NO

62
Q

What is the most important thing to do in physical exam to differentiate between whether it is probably fever or hyperthermia?

A

take an accurate history–ask about drug intake and heat exposure

63
Q

What are the two major factors in causing fever?

A

Change in the set point of the anterior hypothalamus and pyrogens

64
Q

____ pyrogens are commonly organisms that invade the body

A

exogenous

65
Q

___ pyrogens are things such as cytokines and interleukins

A

endogenous

66
Q

____ are small proteins which regulate immune, inflammatory, and hematopoietic processes; they are generally produced by white blood cells and macrophages

A

cytokines

67
Q

____ and ___ stimulate the production of IL-6

A

IL-1 and TNF

68
Q

____ pyrogens may be stimulated by trauma, inflammation, viruses, or antigen-antibody complexes

A

endogenous

69
Q

The endogenous pyrogens act on endothelial cells within the hypothalamus to produce ____ which actually produces the change to cause fever

A

prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)

70
Q

How do antipyretics inhibit fever?

A

They stop the synthesis of PGE2

71
Q

A fever may induce ____ in patients with organic brain disease

A

mental status changes

72
Q

Prostaglandins, Prostacyclin, Thromboxane A2, and PGE@ are products of what arachidonic pathway?

A

Cyclo-oxygenase

73
Q

Lipoxin and Leukotrienes are the products of which arachidonic acid pathway?

A

Lipoxygenase

74
Q

What are the three criteria to diagnose a Fever of Unknown Origin?

A

1-fever higher than 38.3 on several measurements
2-duration of at least 3 weeks
3-no diagnosis after 3 days in the hospital or 3 outpt visits

75
Q

What are the 4 major causes of FUO?

A
  • infections
  • malignancies
  • collagen vascular diseases
  • autoimmune diseases
76
Q

What are the 7 infectious causes of FUO? Which one is the most common cause, especially in AIDS patients?

A
  • Tuberculosis (most common)
  • Viral
  • Fungal
  • Pelvic or abdominal abscesses
  • Osteomyelitis
  • Discitis
  • Bacterial endocarditis
77
Q

What are the 4 malignant causes of FUO?

A
  • lymphoma
  • leukemia
  • renal cell carcinoma
  • hepatoma
78
Q

What are the 4 collagen vascular/autoimmune disease that cause FUO?

A
  • RA
  • Lupus
  • Polyarteritis nodosum
  • Giant cell arteritis
79
Q

In children, ____ diseases are the most common cause of FUO

A

viral

80
Q

In patients over 65, ___ diseases are most common casue of FUO

A

rheumatic

81
Q

For undiagnosed FUO, about ___ become symptom free and get a diagnosis later

A

75%

82
Q

What is the most important factor to look at when considering a postoperative fever?

A

the time of onset of the fever

83
Q

An immediate postoperative fever has an onset ____ and is usually caused by what 5 things?

A

within the OR or within hours after surgery; the trauma of surgery itself, blood transfusion, infection present prior to surgery, medications, and aspiration

84
Q

An acute postoperative fever has an onset ____ after surgery is caused by what 3 main things?

A

within the first week; 1-nosocomial infections from pneumonia, UTI especially if catheterized, surgical site. 2-noninfectious-due to pancreatitis, alcohol withdrawal, or a PE. 3-atelectasis, which is arguably the most common reason

85
Q

A subacute postoperative fever has an onset ____ after surgery and has what 3 causes?

A

one to four weeks after surgery; surgical site infection is most common, drug fever, and blood clots/DVT/PE

86
Q

A delayed postoperative fever occurs ___ after surgery and what are the two main causes?

A

one month or later, even up to a year; infection transmitted by transfusion OR a surgical site infection especially from indolent organisms on a foreign body

87
Q

this causes cramping of voluntary muscles due to the loss of electrolytes, when heat loss maintains the normal core temperature, treatment with fluid and electrolyte replenishment

A

heat cramps

88
Q

this is due to vasodilation and/or volume depletion which causes postural hypoperfusion to the brain and results in dizziness or LOC, it is treated with rest, recumbency, and fluid/electrolyte replenishment

A

heat syncope

89
Q

this is a more severe form of heat syncope where there is sudden onset of prostration and collapse due to failure of the cardiovascular system to compensate for hypovolemia secondary to water depletion; the equilibrium usually quickly and spontaneously re-establishes, but it can go on to get worse

A

heat exhaustion

90
Q

this is when the core body temperature is greater than 40C/105F and there is CNS dysfunction–altered mental status and seizures, and multiple systems are involved

A

heat stroke

91
Q

____ heat stroke is when patients have an underlying medical condition that impairs thermoregulation

A

classic/nonexertional

92
Q

___ heat stroke occurs in young healthy patients with heavy exercise in hot environment usually with high humidity. The acute mortality rate is 20%

A

exertional

93
Q

At a temperature of __ you start to see uncoupled oxidative phosphorylation, protein denaturation, and enzyme dysfunction

A

108F

94
Q

The idiosyncratic reaction to antipsychotic/neuroleptic drugs, especially Haldol, not due to an overdose must be treated with what?

A

Bromocriptine or IV dantrolene

95
Q

A patient presents with muscle rigidity, tremors, profuse sweating, and tachycardia and has recently begun treatment with Haldol. What is happening/what does the patient have?

A

neuroleptic malignant syndrome

96
Q

A patient presents with clonus and hyperreflexia as well as symptoms that resemble neuroleptic malignant syndrome but the symptoms occurred within hours after taking a drug to increase levels of serotonin. What does the patient have?

A

serotonin syndrome

97
Q

What disorder is a rare inherited disorder that is a reaction to a general anesthetic, is initially identified by masseter muscle spasm, and must be treated with IV dantrolene?

A

malignant hyperthermia

Patho Exam 1 (5 decks)

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