Introduction Flashcards

1
Q

_______ is the study of chromosome and genomic structure and function with a focus on the behavior of chromosomes during meiosis and mitosis

A

Cytogenetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

_______ aka ______ ______ mutations are inheritable

A

constitutional, germ line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

________ mutations are acquired and not inheritable

A

somatic (acquired)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

_______ ________ in 1882 is credited with the discovery of chromosomes

A

Walther Flemming (tumor cells in mitosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The 30 nm fiber describes a well-characterized condensed state of ________?

A

chromatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

____________(s) and ____________(s) are constitutive heterochromatin that is genetically inactive, repetitive DNA

A

Centromeres and telomeres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The ____ chromosome is facultative heterochromatin that is reversibly activated and
inactive

A

X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

___________ cluster at periphery of nucleus during G1 and disperse in S

A

Centromeres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Gene _______chromosomes in center of nucleus while gene ______ chromosomes locate toward nuclear envelope

A

rich (center), poor (envelope)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

___________ (s) interact with nuclear envelope to help anchor chromosomes

A

Telomeres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Heterochromatin is associated with tight _______ histone binding

A

H1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

3 structures of metaphase chromosomes

A

metacentric, submetacentric, acrocentric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Light G-bands: contain more __________ (chromatin) and are ____-rich,DNA

A

euchromatin, GC-rich

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Dark G-bands: contain more ___________ (chromatin) and ______-rich DNA

A

heterochromatin, AT-rich

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Complex of proteins at the centromere to which the microtubules of the spindles attach

A

kinetochore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Telomere sequence

A

TTAGGG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Sister chromatids are joined together at the _______________

A

centromere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

After each replication, the telomere shortens by ______ bp

A

100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Meiosis _______ generates diversity (thinking crossing over)

A

Meiosis I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

At the end of meiosis ___________ sister chromatids separate

A

Meiosis II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Male meiosis begins at _____________

A

puberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

It takes ~ ______ days to mature a sperm cell, about ______ days are spent in meiosis

A

64 days, 21 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

About ______ rounds of mitosis of the primordial germ cells produce the
diploid oogonia in a follicle

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In females Meiosis II occurs at _______, 10 to 50 years later

A

ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
By _____ month of fetal development oogonia have developed into primary oocytes, suspended in Prophase I
3rd
24
Specialized egg phase where they are suspended in prophase I
dictyotene
25
Egg meiosis II requires ___________
sperm penetration
26
_________________ is considered essential for proper chromosome segregation of homologues
recombination
27
_____ to _____% of clinically recognized pregnancies are chromosomally abnormal
7-10%
27
The X and Y chromosomes pair at _____ on the p arms and _______ on the q arms
PAR1, PAR2 (pseudoautosomal regions)
28
Aneuploidy in human zygotes ______ to ______%
5-25%
29
Nondisjunction in meiosis ______ results in heterodisomy and nullisomy
meiosis I
30
Ploidy of humans with 69 and/or 92 chromosomes
polyploidy
30
Nondisjunction in meiosis ______ results in isodisomy
meiosis II
30
Ploidy of gamete cells
haploid
30
Ploidy of humans with 69 chromosomes
triploid
30
______ is the number of homologous chromosome sets present in a cell or organism
ploidy
31
Ploidy with incomplete sets of chromosomes
Aneuploidy (2n-1)
32
_______ only: Paraffin embedded samples Touch preps of tissue Cytospin slides
FISH
33
Syndrome associated with deletion of 4p?
Wolf-Hirschhorn
33
Wolf-Hirschhorn phenotype
microcephaly micrognathia short philtrum prominent glabella ocular hypertelorism **shield faces** dysplastic ears and periauricular tags growth restriction intellectual disability muscle hypotonia seizures congenital heart defects
33
FISH results on interphase cells can be reported in ______ to _____ hours
24 to 48
33
SNP microarray can be used to detect copy neutral ________
LOH, loss of heterozygosity (uniparental disomy)
33
Four things DNA microarrays cannot detect
1. Balanced rearrangements 2. specific mutations 3. trinucleotide repeats 4. low level mosaicism (10-15%)
33
SNP microarray has a resolution of _____ KB
5
34
Molar pregnancies with ______ contributions lack fetal development and have placental abnormalities
diandric (two sets of paternal chromosomes)
35
69, XYY or 69, XXX moles are _________ moles
partial moles
36
46, XX moles are ________ moles
complete (complete uniparental disomy)
37
Completes moles (46, XX) from dispermy are associated with what malignancy?
choriocarcinoma
38
FISH and ____________are both assessed on interphase chromosomes
CMA (chromosomal microarray)
39
Year ______ Mendel published his laws of inheritance developed from pea breeding
1866
40
In 1903 ______ and _______ posited chromosomes as carriers of genetic information (genes)
Boveri and Sutton
41
1909: ______describes the first inborn error of metabolism - alcaptonuria (homogentisic oxidase deficiency)
Garrod
42
_______: Beadle and Tatum develop the one-gene-one-enzyme (protein) theory
1941
43
1944: DNA is transforming factor. _____ et al. studied pneumococcus Showed that infectious characteristics can be transferred between organisms
Avery
44
________is the year sickle cell anemia determined to be inherited
1948
45
________: Watson and Crick describe the structure of DNA
1953
46
Three technical improvements led to this discovery of 46 human chromosomes: 1. Use of ________ – stimulates T cells 2. __________ treatment causing the nucleus to swell and burst 3. Use of _________ to stall mitotic cells
1. PHA - phytohemagglutinin 2. hypotonic 3. colchicine
47
_________ discoverer of trisomy 21
Marthe Gautier/ Jerome Lejeune
48
_______ is the year Peter Nowell discovers “Philadelphia chromosome” responsible for chronic myeloid leukemia
1960
49
1973:______ ________ discovers that the Ph+ chromosome is a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22 She also identified translocation between chromosomes 8 and 21 in acute myelogenous leukemia, and between 15 and 17 in promyelocytic leukemia
Janet Rowley
50
__________ is the year “Rapid" sequencing methods by Sanger and Maxam & Gilbert
1977
51
1976: Kan, Golbus and Dozy publish first application of a DNA probe in the prenatal diagnosis of a genetic disease ______ _______ ______
sickle cell anemia
52
______: Kerry Mullis envisions PCR
1985
53