Introduction Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the two preparation methods for bone samples?

A
  • cryogenic method
  • mortar and pestle
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2
Q

What is cryogenic method of preparing bone samples?

A
  • freeze bone sample in liquid nitrogen which makes bone tissue brittle
  • once frozen, the bone is crushed into a fine powder in freezer mill using mortar and pestle
  • pulverised bone then subjected to further steps to extract DNA
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3
Q

What is mortar and pestle method of preparing bone samples?

A
  • bone sample is manually ground into a fine powder using mortar and pestle
  • physical grinding breaks down bone structure to release DNA
  • subjected to further steps to extract DNA
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4
Q

What is the 8 step process of DNA extraction from bone sample

A

1 - sample preparation
- obtain a bone sample and clean the exterior surface to remove any potential contaminants using abrasion
- immersed in a bleach/detergent solution (to physically removing the outer bone surface) or exposed to UV radiation
- if necessary break down bone sample using saw or other suitable tools

2 - decalcification
- if bone sample is hard or mineralised, decalcify it using a decalcifying solution to remove calcium ions that can inhibit DNA extraction

3 - disruption of bone tissue
- either method to grind bone sample into fine powder
- this helps expose DNA trapped within bone tissue
- increases SA to various chemicals in DNA extraction to get more DNA

4 - cell lysis
- add a lysis buffer containing detergents and enzymes to break down cell membranes and release DNA from cells
- incubate sample at an appropriate temperature to ensure complete cell lysis

5 - protein digestion
- treat the lysed sample with proteinase K to digest proteins and remove them from the DNA solution
- incubate the sample to allow protein digestion to occur effectively

6 - DNA extraction
- perform DNA extraction using a method such as phenol-chloroform extraction, silica column-based extraction, or Chelex resin extraction
- follow the specific protocol of the chosen extraction method to isolate DNA from the sample
- centrifuge the sample to separate DNA from other cellular components

7 - DNA purification
- wash the extracted DNA to remove any remaining contaminants or impurities
- elute the purified DNA in an appropriate buffer for downstream applications

8 - quantification and quality check
- measure the concentration of the extracted DNA using a spectrophotometer or fluorometer
- assess the quality of the DNA by analysing its purity and integrity through methods like agarose gel/capillary electrophoresis

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5
Q

What are the advantages of cryogenic method over mortar and pestle method?

A

1 - preservation of DNA integrity
- cryogenic freezing in liquid nitrogen helps preserve the integrity of DNA by minimising degradation that can occur during mechanical grinding processes

2 - efficient cell disruption
- freezing the bone sample makes it brittle, facilitating easier and more efficient cell disruption when compared to manual grinding with a mortar and pestle.

3 - reduced contamination
- cryogenic grinding minimises the risk of contamination as the sample is less likely to eb exposed to external contaminants during the grinding process

4 - consistency in particle size
- cryogenic grinding tends to produce a more uniform and fine powder, which can lead to better DNA extraction yields and quality

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6
Q

What are the advantages of mortar and pestle method over cryogenic milling?

A

1 - cost-effective
- the mortar and pestle method is generally more cost effective and accessible as it doesn’t require specialised equipment like liquid nitrogen

2 - simple and traditional
- this method is straightforward and has been used for a long time in laboratories making it a familiar technique for many researchers

3 - suitable for small samples
- m+p method can be more suitable for processing small bone samples where cryogenic methods may not be as practical

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7
Q

What does choice between two methods depend on?

A
  • depends on:
  • scale of study
  • available resources
  • specific requirements of DNA extraction process
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8
Q

Why do we decalcify bone samples before DNA recovery?

A

1 - facilitates cell lysis
- calcium ions in bone tissue can hinder cell lysis process
- decalcifying means calcium ions are removed

2 - prevents DNA degradation
- calcium ions can promote DNA degradation by nucleases that are released during cell lysis
- removing calcium ions reduces the risk of DNA damage and degradation ensuring better quality DNA recovery

3 - improves efficiency
- decalcification helps in breaking down hard and mineralised bone tissue making it easer to grind the bone sample into a fine powder for subsequent extraction steps
- improves overall efficiency of DNA recovery from bone sample

4 - enhances purity
- decalcification helps in removing mineral components from bone sample reducing potential contaminants that could interfere with DNA extraction and purification processes
- more purer DNA sample for downstream applications

5 - prevents interference
- calcium ions can interfere with enzymatic reactions involved in DNA extraction e.g. action of proteinase K during cell lysis
- removing calcium ions ensures these enzymatic reactions proceed smoothly leading to successful DNA recovery

  • better quality and higher yield of DNA for analysis
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9
Q

Fluorescence:
- what is it used for?

A
  • saliva and semen fluoresce by using UV light sources
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10
Q

Semen:
- where is it produced?

  • what type of DNA recovery is often undertaken from sperm head
  • what can be a problem with sexual offenders in forensic science
  • what is most encountered technique in semen analysis? what used to be?
A
  • production of exocrine glands
  • nucleic DNA recovery is often undertaken from sperm head
  • some people will fail to ejaculate/ had a vasectomy or suffer from a medical condition that their semen lacks spermatozoa (azoospermia (no sperm), oligospermia (low sperm count))
  • laser micro detection
  • differential extraction method of sperm and vaginal epithelial cells from vaginal fluid mixed with semen used to be most encountered technique
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11
Q

Blood:
- how must blood samples be stored?
- what are two categories of human blood cells?
- what is composition of blood in terms of RBC and WBC
- how can bloodstains be visualised

A
  • we need to keep blood sample whole and hence store samples in vials containing EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) - an anticoagulant
  • those with nucleus (leucocytes/WBCs)
  • those without (RBC, erythrocytes, platelets)
  • blood is composed of 45 % RBC and 1 % WBC by volume
  • infrared imaging can be used to demonstrate the presence of latent bloodstains without use of chemicals
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12
Q

Faeces:
- when are they found at crime scenes
- why did recovery of human DNA from faeces used to be difficult
- why is it not anymore
- what DNA is used (what did it used to be)

A
  • when offender wants to damage/violates property or victim further
  • recovery of human DNA from faeces has been difficult due to inhibitors which interfered with the standard (SGM plus) test
  • new DNA 17 test shows better identification and discrimination of DNA
  • new multiplexes will be better at extracting DNA
  • previously mitochondrial DNA was more closely associated with examination of faeces
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13
Q

Saliva:
- where is it found?
- where are saliva swabs taken?

A
  • production of exocrine glands
  • take swabs where victim is thought to be bitten, kissed, and sucked
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14
Q

What can be said about positive and negative results from presumptive testing?

A
  • positive - presumption so need further confirmatory testing
  • negative - rejection and analysis would cease
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15
Q

AP test
- what does it test for?
- what is method?
- why can this test be a problem
- what type of test is it and what does this mean

A
  • tests for acid phosphatase (semen)
  • area is wetted and a sheet of filter paper is placed over area
  • reagent sprayed
  • commercial detection kids rely on detecting acid phosphatase (AP) enzyme on stained clothing
  • AP is a common enzyme so can give false positives
  • can also test positive for vaginal discharge so only used as early screen (followed by sperm head presence test)
  • it is a presumptive/indicative test which must be followed up with subsequent DNA analysis
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16
Q

Luminol presumptive test:
- what does it test for
- what is positive test

A
  • presumptive test for blood
  • positive test: emission of light
17
Q

Kastle-Meyer presumptive test:
- what does it test for?
- what is process?
- what is positive result?
- how can interference with subsequent DNA analysis be avoided?

A
  • presumptive test for blood

1 - filter paper is rubbed on stain
2 - add drop of ethanol to filter paper (improves sensitivity)
3 - add drop of phenolphthalein to filter paper
(if paper turns purple now = contaminated result)
4 - hydrogen peroxide is added

  • positive result: pink reaction on filter paper (H2O2 interacts with haem = pink)
  • by applying chemicals to filter paper and not garment or surface and test
18
Q

LMG presumptive test:
- what does it test for?
- what is process?
- what is positive result?

A
  • presumptive test for blood

1 - filter paper is rubbed on stain
2 - add ethanol
3 - add LMG solution
4 - add hydrogen peroxide

  • positive result: blue/green colour change
19
Q

Confirmatory test:
- used to be?
- used to do what?
- process
- what is new way

A
  • used to be precipitin test
  • used to identify if it is human or animal blood

1 - animal is injected with human blood
2 - animal makes anti-human antibodies
3 - animal serum is extracted
4 - when human blood added to this you get precipitin band

  • nowadays would go straight for DNA
20
Q

Phadebas:
- what does it test for?
- when useful
- how does it work
- positive test?

A
  • presumptive test for saliva (replaced ELISA)
  • useful when saliva is not present
  • region of possible saliva staining is wetted and swabbed with cotton swab
  • swab is wrapped in Phadebas paper (paper is imprinted with starch and blue dye) and placed under a weight
  • will fluoresce blue where saliva is (amylase in saliva digests starch in paper)
21
Q

ELISA test:
- name
- what is it test for

A
  • enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
  • presumptive test for saliva
22
Q

What are the four functions of DNA?

A

1 - it directs the machinery of a cell to make specific proteins

2 - it stores the hereditary information of an individual
- coding area (exon) - 98 % is shared between everyone
- non-coding area (intron) - found on chromosomes

3 - has the ability to mutate
- most have no detectable effect
- mutation allows for new characteristics and abilities to appear which may help an individual to survive and reproduce (evolution)

4 - complementary base pairing (AT and GC)

23
Q

DNA vs RNA:
- structure
- sugar
- bases
- function
- location

A

DNA
- double stranded in helical form
- contains deoxyribose sugar
- ACGT
- stores genetic information
- located in cell nucleus

RNA
- single stranded
- contains ribose sugar
- ACGU
- involved in protein synthesis, gene regulation and other cellular functions
- nucleus and cytoplasm

24
Q

What is DNA profiling?

A
  • also known as DNA typing
  • method of determining an individuals DNA characteristics using the non-coding parts of DNA

1 - purify the sample and extract DNA (extract from cells and separate from cellular components)
2 - quantify amount of material recovered
3 - use PCR to make copies of DNA
4 - STR analysis of DNA fragments (use gel electrophoresis to separate them)
5 - can then compare suspects DNA to DNA left at crime scene

25
Q

STR:
- name
- what are they
- what does STR analysis involve
- what about identical twins

A
  • short tandem repeats
  • an area of nuclear DNA where there is repeating sequences (typically 4 bases)
  • STR analysis compares repeats at specific loci in DNA (17)
  • unrelated individuals will have different numbers of repeating units
  • identical twins will have identical DNA so they will match on STR analysis
26
Q

Describe the process of DNA replication

A
  • DNA replication is the process by which a cell makes an identical copy of its DNA
  • it involves the unwinding of the DNA double helix, the synthesis of new complementary strands by DNA polymerase, and the proofreading and repair of any errors
27
Q

What is the role of DNA polymerase in DNA replication?

A
  • DNA polymerase is the enzyme responsible for synthesizing new DNA strands during replication
  • It adds nucleotides to the growing DNA chain in a complementary fashion, using the existing DNA strand as a template
28
Q

DNA profile:
- what is it
- how are they compared
- where is DNA inherited from

A
  • distinctive pattern of a persons STRs that have been separated by electrophoresis
  • look at bands in same location when matching suspect to crime scene DNA
  • a person gets their DNA from their parents (half from mother and half from father)
29
Q

Electropherogram:
- what is it
- what does it show
- homozygous or heterozygous?
- what can be issues?

A
  • it is the graph produced when electrophoresis is used in DNA typing
  • it shows the alleles present at each gene locus
  • peaks on EPG represent positions on chromosome
  • homozygous = 1 allele at loci (2 identical alleles)
  • inherited same marker from both parents
  • peak is usually taller
  • heterozygous = 2 alleles at loci
  • inherited from one parent
  • issues:
  • when more than one sample of DNA collected
  • DNA may be degraded
30
Q

What is the hierarchy of propositions?

A
  • offence (guilt or innocence)
  • activity (an activity)
  • source (source of biological material)
  • sub-source (source of DNA)
  • sub-sub-source (source of a specified component of DNA profile)
31
Q

R v David Butler case
- summarise
- error

A
  • in 2005, Anne Marie Foy was beaten and strangled to death in Liverpool
  • David Butler (taxi driver) was charged with her homicide - found match to DNA from fingernail clippings of Anne
  • sub-source likelihood ratio was reported as 1-thousand billion
  • Butler denied involvement
  • he had condition (flaky skin) so lawyer argued secondary contact
  • Butler was convicted falsely due to DNA match
  • ERROR:
  • incorrectly assigned a sub-source LR reported for a match to DNA recovered from fingernail clippings to an activity level proposition (strangulation in this case)
32
Q

Maria Marchese

A
  • she put DNA evidence from male from condom into her underwear and claimed she was SA
  • DNA evidence was dismissed as found lubricants and spermicides within DNA
33
Q

What can be said about viewing DNA findings

A
  • DNA findings have to be viewed within the context of both the prosecution and defence hypothesis
34
Q

What are the proteins called which read the RNA code three letters at a time?

A
  • ribosomes
35
Q

What type of evidence can DNA evidence provide?

A
  • exculpatory
36
Q

What enzyme synthesises RNA primers?

A
  • RNA primase
37
Q

What glands secrete substances by the way of a duct?

A
  • exocrine
38
Q

What are red blood cells called?

A
  • erythrocytes
39
Q

What is maternally inherited DNA

A
  • mitochondrial