Intro to Perinatal Nursing L1 Flashcards

1
Q

Pitocin

A

synthetic form of oxytocin: uterotonic med used to produce contractions for induction or augmentation of labor

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2
Q

Tachysystole

A

Too many uterine contractions over a given period of time

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3
Q

what are typical values for Tachysystole?

A

greater than or equal to 6 uterine contractions in 10 minutes without sufficient (1 minute) uterine relaxation between contractions

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4
Q

how are contractions measured?

A

measured from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next

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5
Q

Apgar score

what is it?
when is it done?

A

a quick way to assess a newborn

done at 1 minute of life and again at 5 minutes of life

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6
Q

an Apgar score above _ means what?

A

an Apgar score above 8 means newborn is transitioning well to extrauterine life.

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7
Q

Cerebral Palsy

A

A neurological disorder that can be caused by prolonged hypoxia and ischemia at the time of birth

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8
Q

perinatal nurses care for:

A

1) patients throughout their reproductive years
2) pregnant patients
3) neonates
4) postpartum patients
5) families

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9
Q

nurses are legally responsible for practicing within their scope of practice, which is dictated by…

A

the states Nursing Practice Act

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10
Q

TJC

A

The Joint Commission - sets standards for facility accreditation and licensing standards and releases yearly national patient safety goals

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11
Q

how do community standards/facility policies interact with a nurses scope of practice?

A

sometimes things that fall under a nurse’s scope according to NPAs are overwritten by facility policy

Example: IFM/IUPC insertion - within nursing scope of practice for perinatal nurse, not allowed under P&P @ UCSF

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12
Q

HHS

A

Health and human services- focus on reducing health disparities

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13
Q

Association of Women’s Health, Neonatal, and Obstetric Nurses (AWHONN)

A

A professional organization for perinatal nurses that creates the standards of practice for nurses in perinatal nursing, provides continuing education for nurses, education for patients, advocacy, etc.

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14
Q

what are the perinatal nursing specialties?

A

1) labor and delivery
2) Nursery/Level 2 Nsy/NICU
3) postpartum/mother-baby
4) antepartum

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15
Q

what do NPs do?

A

1) provide comprehensive health assessment
2) determine diagnoses
3) plan/prescribe treatments/medications
4) manage health care regimens for individuals, families, and the community

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16
Q

how were NPs created?

A

shortage of pediatric MDs led to creation of NPs

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17
Q

what organization defines advanced practice nursing roles?

A

The American Nurses Association

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18
Q

what are the educational requirements for NPs?

A

certifications, Master’s, or doctorate. many institutions are trending toward doctoral degrees for NPs and other advanced practice nurses

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19
Q

where do NPs practice?

A

they provide family or specialized care most often in primary care or specialty clinics

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20
Q

what are the education requirements for Clinical Nurse Specialists?

A

MSN or Doctorate

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21
Q

Clinical Nurse Specialist is an expert in…

A

planning, supervising, and delivering nursing care

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22
Q

what sort of roles can a clinical nurse specialist fill?

A

1) case manager or consultant
2) staff and family educator
3) care coordinators for families requiring intensive nursing support
4) research activities/articles

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23
Q

traditionally what setting do clinical nurse specialists operate in?

A

traditionally in hospitals

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24
Q

what is a CNMs scope of practice?

A

1) independent management of women’s health/pregnancy
2) family planning, low risk ob/gyn, & peri/postmenopausal care
3) primary care

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25
Q

CNM educational requirements

A

certificate or MSN

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26
Q

Mary Breckenridge

A
  • the first nurse-midwife to practice in the USA
  • established frontier nursing services
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27
Q

in facilities that employ CNMs, there are lower rates of…

A

cesarean sections

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28
Q

CNMs provide care to…

A

people with low incomes, uninsured, and minorities who don’t seek out regular health care

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29
Q

what kinds of anesthesia do CRNAs administer?

A

general, regional, local, and sedative anesthesia

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30
Q

what are the responsibilities of a CRNA?

A

1) pre-anesthesia assessment
2) anesthesia and immediate post-anesthesia care
3) management of ABCs
4) rapid response and code leader

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31
Q

what are the educational requirements for CRNAs?

A

MSN or doctorate

32
Q

what is involved with a CRNAs duty as a rapid response and code leader?

A

1) ACLS
2) procedures such as intubation

33
Q

what % of CRNAs practice in an anesthesia care team and what % practice independently?

A

80% practice in an anesthesia care team
20% practice independently

34
Q

what advanced practice nursing role is the oldest?

35
Q

what is a nurse consultant?

A

they are experts in a specific area of nursing. usually charge a fee

36
Q

what are nurse consultants used for?

A

1) expert witness in malpractice cases
2) used by corporations for the development of products or equipment
3) consult for texts, electronic media, and periodicals

37
Q

describe the rate of malpractice cases associated with the perinatal specialty

A

high number of malpractice cases

38
Q

what specialty has the highest number of malpractice cases?

39
Q

theory of liability - negligence

A
  • proof that a duty exists
  • a breach of that duty occurred
  • an injury resulted as a result of the breach of duty
40
Q

standard of care

A

minimum standard of care that a reasonable, prudent nurse would provide in the same or similar circumstances

41
Q

what is malpractice associated with the perinatal specialty?

A

alleged injury to fetus, neonate, or birthing parent

42
Q

what are malpractice suits based on?

A

based on the assumption that the healthcare provider failed to meet the professional standard of care and it resulted in injury

43
Q

what is the statute of limitations for malpractice suits in CA?

A

1 year from the date that the plaintiff knows or should have known about the injury or
3 years from the date of the injury. whichever is the earlier date

or up until 8 years of child’s life

44
Q

what sort of evidence is used in malpractice suits?

A

1) hospital procedures
2) nursing policies
3) guidelines established by professional organizations
4) CA NPA
5) TJC standards
6) textbooks

45
Q

what is the providers role in informed consent?

A

discussing procedure/surgery/medications

  • the who, what, why, and how
  • risks
  • benefits
  • alternatives
46
Q

what is the nurses role in informed consent?

A
  • ensure discussion was thorough and patient understands
  • obtaining signature on the form
  • patient education
  • consent for RN procedures
47
Q

without proper consent, the provider could be subject of a lawsuit alleging…

A
  • assault
  • battery
  • negligence
  • or a combination of actions
48
Q

what are the different types of consent?

A

1) expressed
2) implied
3) emergency

49
Q

what is expressed consent?

A

written or oral

e.g. surgery

pt needs to have the capacity/ competency to give expressed consent

50
Q

what is implied consent?

A

non-verbal consent

e.g. pt extends arm when phlebotomist says they are there to draw blood

51
Q

what is emergency consent?

A

consent is bypassed (exception) due to emergency

e.g. crash cesarean section or pt unconscious

52
Q

who is the only one who can give consent?

53
Q

when can a patient refuse treatment?

A
  • any time. before tx or once tx has begun.
  • pt can refuse treatment even if consent was previously given
  • pt must know they are refusing and understand consequences
54
Q

what is AMA?

A

against medical advise - if a refusal of treatment could be detrimental to the pt/baby, pt must sign AMA form and be told of the potential consequences

55
Q

informed refusal/declination must be…

A
  • voluntary
  • uncoerced
  • not made under fraudulent circumstances
56
Q

where should an AMA be documented?

A

refusal/declination should be documented in pt chart

57
Q

fi pt leaves hospital AMA, what should the pt chart include?

A
  • signed refusal form by pt
  • nurse notes should include time left, left with whom, risks and consequences of no further treatment, and who will be notified
58
Q

“informed consent of vitamin K for baby declined” is an example of what?

A

documented informed refusal in pt chart

59
Q

what are the pitfalls in OB?

A

1) failure to observe or take appropriate action
2) failure to communicate changes in a pt’s condition in a timely manner
3) incomplete or inadequate documentation
4) inappropriate pitocin (oxytocin) monitoring or usage
5) improper sponge/instrument count

60
Q

what is this an example of?

“failure to use or interpret fetal monitoring appropriately”

A

failure to observe or take appropriate action

61
Q

what is this an example of?

“did not document that RN informed MD or that RN turned pt and increased fluids”

A

incomplete or inadequate documentation

62
Q

what is this an example of?

“did not tell the MD about recurrent late decelerations?”

A

failure to communicate changes

63
Q

what percentage of OBs have been sued?
how many cases are settled out of court?

A
  • 2/3 OBs have been sued
  • most settled out of court
64
Q

what percentage of OBs have more than 2 cases against them?

65
Q

what are some cost containment methods in the perinatal specialty?

A

1) shorter length of stays
2) use of UAPs/NAPs
3) reduced number of staff members

66
Q

what is the difference between fetus and neonate?

A

fetus is still inside the womb, neonate is the first 28 days after birth

67
Q

better communication = what?

A

less litigation

68
Q

what is the chain of command on a floor?

A

RN–>Charge RN/resident–>CNM/attending MD–>Unit director

69
Q

look at P26-29 on PP1

70
Q

why is erythromycin used on the eyes of newborns?

A

to prevent chlamydia or gonorrhea infections

71
Q

what can a gonorrhea or chlamydia infection in a newborn’s eyes cause?

72
Q

gestational carrier

A

carries a baby but does not share genetic information with child; both egg and sperm are from intended parents (or donors)

73
Q

Surrogate

A

carries a baby created with their own egg and sperm from intended parent (or donor)

74
Q

when was electronic fetal monitoring introduced and where?

75
Q

things to note about electronic fetal monitoring:

A
  • has not reduced rates of cerebral palsy
  • partially responsible for increased rates of cesarean sections
  • under constant threat of legal action
76
Q

what part of perinatal nursing is EFM common?

A

normal in antepartum and intrapartum