Intro to obstetrics Flashcards

1
Q

What is the first stage of labour?

A
  • for prim 8hrs, multiparous 5hrs
  • latent phase
    • regular contractions < 10mins apart but minimal pain
    • membranes may remain intact initially
    • cervice dilates to 3-4 cm
  • active phase
    • ongoing dilation of the cervix by 0.5 - 1cm/hr
    • assoc/w increasing pain on contractions
    • foetal head descends into pelvis and neck flexes
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2
Q

What is the second stage of labour?

A
  • From fully dilated to birth
  • Should last <2hrs in nulliparous woman
  • 1hr in multiparous woman
  • if longer than this - consider instrumental delivery
  • contractions are strong, sustained and occur at less than 5 minute intervals
  • associated with the need to push
    • baby’s head is visible
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3
Q

What is the third stage of labour?

A
  • delivery of placenta and membranes
  • usually less than 5 minutes
    • midwife continues controlled cord traction and suprapubic compression to help with expulsive contractions
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4
Q

What is failure to progress?

A
  • When the active phase has continued for 4hrs
  • epidural may be requested at this point
  • intervention usually takes the form of an infusion of syntocinon
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5
Q

How many vertebrae are there?

A

24 total

  • 7 cervical
  • 12 thoracic
  • 5 lumbar
  • 3-5 fused vertebrae form the sacrum and coccyx
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6
Q

Where does the spinal cord finish?

A

L1/2

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7
Q

Where does the dural sac finish?

A

S2 - continues as the filium terminale

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8
Q

Where do spinal nerves exit in relation to their associated vertebral body?

A

Spinal nerves exit BELOW their associated vertebral body (ie L4 nerve root leabes inferiorly to L4 vertebral body)

EXCEPT for in cervical region - 8 nerves but only 7 verebral bodies - so the nerves are numbered according to the bertebra below except C8 which exists between C7 and T1

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9
Q

Where does the anterior spinal ligament run from?

A

From occiput cranially to sacrum caudally - attached to the intervertebral discs at each level

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10
Q

Where does the posterior spinal ligament run?

A

Runs cranially to caudally, attaching to each vertebrae and disc

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11
Q

Where does the ligamentum flavum run from?

A

From C2 to S1 connecting the laminae of the vertebral discs

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12
Q

Does it cause pain to pierce the spinal ligaments or the ligamentum flavum?

A

No, they have no sensory innervation

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13
Q

What are the boundaries of the epidural space?

A

Anteriorly

  • posterior longitudinal ligament and vertebral bodies

Posteriorly

  • ligamentum flavum

Superiorly

  • fusion of spinal and periosteal dural layers at foramen magnum

Inferiorly

  • sacrococcygeal membrane

Laterally

  • pedicles and intervertebral foramina
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14
Q

What changes in the central and peripheral nervous system happen during pregnancy?

A
  • MAC reduced by 30% for inhalational agents
  • onset and depth of anaesthesia increased
  • decreased volume of epidural space and compensatory reduction in CSF production
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15
Q

What effects on MAP happen in pregnancy?

A

Falls in the first trimester due to effects of progesterone on vascular smooth muscle - causes peripheral vasodilation and reduced SVR

MAP increases gradually from 24 weeks and regains pre-preggo levels at term. The increase in SV is maintained due to aortocaval compression - increases HR.

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16
Q

How is uteroplacental perfusion maintained despite reduced BP?

A
  • increased cardiac output
  • renin-angiotension-aldosterone system activated to increase salt and water retention and increase plasma volume
  • increased pre-load due to increased blood volume which increases stroke volume to maintain CO
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17
Q

What does pregnancy do to CVP and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure?

A

No effects on these

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18
Q

How much is blood volume increased at 34 weeks pregnancy?

A

40-50%

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19
Q

What effect can pregnancy have on the ECG?

A

Increased ventricular wall mass with corresponding left axis deviation of up to 20°

Heart dilates and flow murmurs are common

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20
Q

When does aorto-caval compression begin?

A

20 weeks gestation.

Gravid uterus compresses the abdominal viscera and vessels. At term compression of both IVC and abdominal aorta occurs and CO may reduce as much as 30% when supine.

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21
Q

How are pregnant women able to maintain BP despite aorto-caval compression?

A

They compensate by increasing CO and SVR through an increase in sympathetic tone.

Regional anaesthesia can create profound hypotension because this sympathetic tone is removed.

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22
Q

What happens to coagulation in pregnancy?

A

Pregnancy is a prothrombotic state due to increased production of clotting factors and reduced fibrinolysis and antithrombotic components such as protein C and S.

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23
Q

What happens to platelets in pregnancy?

A

Overall count usually normal but relative amounts may be much less due to haemodilutional effects.

Patients with pre-eclampsia should have platelet countchecked incase of HELLP syndrome.

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24
Q

How does pregnancy affect FRC?

A

Reduced from 20 weeks onwards as the diaphragm is pushed upwards.

FRC reduced by up to 30% when supine.

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25
Q

What happens to alveolar dead space in pregnancy?

A

Reduced as increased CO improves perfusion of lung units.

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26
Q

What alters the response to CO2 in pregnancy?

A

Progesterone

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27
Q

What happens to CO2 production in pregnancy?

A

Increased due to enhanced metabolism and combined output from mother and foetus.

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28
Q

How is the increased demand of O2 and CO2 production matched in pregnancy?

A

Minute ventilation increases due to an increase in tidal volume.

This means that PaCO2 is reduced to 4kPa at term despite RR remaining normal.

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29
Q

What happens to blood pH in pregnancy?

A

It will remain within normal limits despite the increased minute ventilation + reduced PaCO2 due to an increased renal secretion of bicarbonate.

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30
Q

What would aggressive hyperventilation in pregnancy do?

A

It negates the effect of increased renal bicarbonate secretion and will result in respiratory alkalosis which impairs maternal-foetal O2 exchange.

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31
Q

Why is the obstetric airway more difficult?

A
  • tissue oedema and swelling affect the larynx and arytenoids
  • fat/breast tissue
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32
Q

What are the hepatic effects of pregnancy?

A
  • LFTs are usually slightly lower than pre-preggo levels
  • ALP may be slightly higher due to production of ALP by placenta
  • reduction of plasma cholinesterases (meaning more sensitivity to suxamethonium), especially if pre-eclamptic or liver disease
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33
Q

What are the GI SEs of pregnancy?

A
  • GORD from 20 weeks
  • stomach and bowel compressed by the uterus
  • relaxation of lower oesophageal sphincter
  • during labour gastric emptying is delayed
    • enhanced by opioids regardless of route of admin
  • after 12 weeks - assume all pregnant women to have full stomachs
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34
Q

What are the renal SEs of pregnancy?

A
  • salt and water retention due to aldosterone
  • causes volume expansion
  • increases volume of distribution
  • renal blood flow increases as much as 50% at term
    • therefore filtration rate also increases to 150ml/min
  • the increased levels of filtrate exceed the ability of the renal tubules to reabsorb all solutes hence glycosuria and proteinuria more likely
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35
Q

What are the endocrine SEs of pregnancy?

A
  • HCG shows cross reactivity with thyroid stimulating hormone receptors in the anterior pituitary due to a common subunit between the 2 hormones
  • causes gland hyperplasia and transient hyperthyroidism
  • reduced peripheral sensitivity to insulin
    • enhanced production from beta islets which enlarge through pregnancy
36
Q

What are the implications of significant hypertension during pregnancy on the mother?

A
  • enhances risk of CVS and cerebrovascular disease
37
Q

What effects does hypertension during pregnancy have on the foetus?

A
  • pre term delivery
  • still birth
  • intrauterine growth restriction all substantially higher
  • higher risk of haemorrhagic or thrombotic stroke
38
Q

What values constitute mild/moderate/severe HTN during pregnancy?

A

Mild

  • 140-150 mmHg systolic or 90-100mm Hg diastolic

Moderate

  • 150-160 mmHg sys or 100-110 mmHg diastolic

Severe

  • >160 mmHg sys or >110 diastolic
39
Q

What is primary HTN in pregnancy?

A

Hypertension which existed prior to pregnancy or becomes evident before 20 weeks of gestation.

Usually due to essential hypertension but can be secondary to underlying disease.

40
Q

What is pregnancy-induced (gestational) hypertension?

A
  • affects 10% of pregnancies
  • risk factor for pre-eclampsia
  • defined as rise in BP during second half of pregnancy, without proteinuria
41
Q

What is pre-eclampsia?

A
  • hypertension (usually severe) after 20 weeks of pregnancy with proteinuria >3g in 24hrs
  • oliguria <400ml in 24hrs
  • cerebral irritability
  • epigastric/RUQ pain (liver capsule distension)
  • pulmonary oedema
  • aetiology unknown
    • ?abnormal placentation
    • ?immunological response
42
Q

What are the risk factors for pre-eclampsia?

A
  • maternal hypertension
  • diabetes
  • obesity
  • multiple/IVF or molar pregnancy
  • advanced maternal age
43
Q

What investigations should pre-eclamptic women have?

A
  • FBC - check platelets
  • U&Es - creatinine, urate
  • LFTs - transaminases (AST/ALT)
    • check glucose if ALT > 150
  • urine dip and C&S
  • urine protein creatinine ratio
    • if >30 mg/mmol continue to 24hr collection
    • if >300mg/mmol in 24hrs, proteinuria diagnosis is confirmed
44
Q

What is the treatment for uncomplicated hypertension in pregnancy?

A
  • keep BP lower than 150/100 mmHg
  • diastolic should not be lowered below 80 mmHg
  • delivery at term where possible
  • any woman with pressures >160/>110 should be admitted regardless of gestation
45
Q

What is the treatment for pre-eclampsia?

A
  • if mod/severe HTN with evidence of organ dysfunction the patient should be admitted until BP <140/80 mmHg
  • BP checked 4 x daily
  • checked for symptoms of pre-eclampsia
  • U&Es and LFTs and FBC should be monitored twice weekly
  • delivery scheduled for 34-36 weeks gestation
    • but sooner if maternal/foetal compromise
46
Q

What drugs are used for pre-eclampsia?

A
  1. Labetalol
    • 1st line in non-asthmatics
    • PO 200-1600mg divided doses
    • IV 50mg bolus incremented every 20 mins
      • followed by infusion 20mg/hr which can be doubled every 30mins if no effect observed
  2. Methyldopa
    • PO 250mg - 3g in 24hrs as 3-4 divided doses
  3. Nifedipine
    • PO 20-90mg OD
  4. Hydralazine
    • IV only, 5mg bolus followed by infusion of 5mg/hr

Can also use alpha-blockers, diuretics and furosemide.

47
Q

What is eclampsia?

A
  • occurrence of a generalised seizure in a woman with pre-eclampsia and can occur at any point up to 48hrs post delivery
  • happens in 1:2000 women with severe pre-eclampsia
  • prodromal symptoms include
    • headache
    • visual disturbance
    • hyper reflexia
    • RUQ pain
48
Q

What is the treatment for eclampsia?

A

4g magnesium IV over 5-10 mins followed by infusion of 1g per hour for 24hrs

(0.5 g/hr if oliguric)

Can give further 2g bolus over 10mins if further seizures occur.

49
Q

How does magnesium work for eclamptic seizures?

A

Antagonises NMDA receptors and calcium channels -reducing vasospasm and stabilising excitable membranes.

50
Q

Why should patients receiving Mg for eclampsia have monitoring?

A

At high doses (>5 mmol/L) will cause hyporeflexia and blurred vision followed by respiratory depression and cardiac arrest (>10 mmol/L)

Must monitor - reflexes + physiological parameters including O2 sats, consider intubation/ventilation, call paeds team as Mg will cause resp depression and hypotonia in neonate.

51
Q

What is HELLP syndrome?

A
  • haemolysis
  • elevated liver enzymes
  • low platelet count

Usually occurs in last 3 months of pregnancy. Seen in 50% of those with severe pre-eclampsia.

Symptoms - tiredness, fluid retention, headache, nausea, RUQ pain, blurred vision, nosebleeds, seizures.

Complications - DIC, placental abruption, kidney failure.

52
Q

What is the treatment for HELLP syndrome?

A

Supportive- enhanced monitoring of physiological parameters and biochemical testing for signs of compromise.

Aggressive management with blood products if req.

53
Q

What are the indications for CTG monitoring?

A
  • augmentation of labour
  • regional anaesthesia
  • meconium stained liquor
  • maternal request
  • fresh bleeding during labour
54
Q

What should the baseline foetal HR be?

A

110-160 bpm

55
Q

What does variability in the CTG mean?

A

There should be a variability of 5-15 bpm.

Can be caused by foetal sleep.

Reduced/absent variability in conjunction with other abnormal signs is considered worrying.

56
Q

What are accelerations on the CTG?

A

Transient HR increases usually >15bpm for 15 seconds and usually associated with foetal movement.

Reassuring sign.

57
Q

What are decelerations on the CTG?

A

Transient reduction in foetal HR coinciding with uterine contractions.

These can be a normal physiological response to labour, but if late or variable (ie occur after peak of uterine contraction) they’re worrying and can reflect foetal hypoxia.

Prolonged decelerations are FHR of <30bpm for 2 mins and represent foetal distress. Urgent delivery is needed.

58
Q

What is foetal blood sampling?

A

Taken if pathological CTG trace from presenting part of foetus.

If pH > 7.25 repeat in 1hr.

If pH 7.21 - 7.24 repeat in 30mins.

If pH <7.21 urgent delivery needed.

59
Q

What is the APGAR score?

A

Neonatal wellbeing score - initial and 5 mins after delivery until score > 6. Max score 10.

Appearance (blue/acrocyanotic/pink)

Pulse (absent/<100/>100)

Grimace (no response/grimace/cry)

Activity/Tone (limp/flexion/active motion)

Respiratory effort (absent/slow or irreg/good RR and cry)

60
Q

What is a Cat 1 section?

A

Immediate threat to life of woman and foetus. Must be carried out within 30mins.

61
Q

What is a Cat 2 section?

A

Maternal or foetal compromise but no immediate threat to life.

75 min DDI (decision to delivery interval).

62
Q

What is a Cat 3 section?

A

Requires early delivery

63
Q

What are the indications for elective LSCS?

A
  • breech presentation
  • multiple pregnancy
  • placenta previa
  • morbidly adherent placenta
  • maternal infection (eg HIV with no antiretrovirals or high viral count/HepC/HSV)
  • maternal request
64
Q

How many weeks should the woman be pregnant before C-section?

A

39 weeks as risk of respiratory dysfunction of the neonate is increased before this.

65
Q

What is the difference between primary PPH and secondary PPH?

A

Primary = loss of blood from genital tract within 24hrs of delivery

Secondary = loss of blood from genital tract from 24hrs until 12 weeks post partum

66
Q

What constitutes a minor PPH?

A
  • blood loss 500ml - 1L
  • no signs of shock (tachycardic, oliguric, tachypnoeic, delayed cap refill)
67
Q

What counts as a major PPH?

A
  • moderate 1-2L
  • severe >2L
    • or less if clinical features of shock
68
Q

What is the total blood volume at term in pregnancy?

A

100ml/kg

69
Q

What are the risk factors for PPH?

A

TONE/TRAUMA/TISSUE/THROMBIN

Tone

  • age >40yrs
  • BMI >35
  • previous PPH
  • foetus >4kg
  • prolonged labour >12hrs
  • multiple pregnancy
  • placental abnormality (eg praevia)

Trauma

  • C-section delivery, either emergency or elective
  • operative vaginal delivery
  • episiotomy
  • baby >4kg

Tissue

  • retained placenta

Thrombin

  • placental abruption
  • maternal pyrexia
  • pre-eclampsia/maternal HTN
70
Q

How do you manage a major PPH?

A
  • call for senior help early
  • alert blood transfusion and get 4 units X matched blood

AIRWAY

  • give 15L 100% O2 via non-rebreathing system
  • RSI if ongoing haemodynamic instability
  • ventilate with 100% O2 until bleeding is controlled
  • remember volatiles reduce uterine tone

CIRCULATION

  • 2 x orange IV lines, take FBC
  • give 3L crystalloid under pressure bag
  • warmed fluids to avoid cooling patient
  • transfuse ASAP, cell salvage/rapid infuser if possible

DISABILITY

  • continuous monitoring of BP/HR/sats
  • arterial line and catheter once definitive management underway
  • CVC useful but not essential
  • maintain normothermia, esp in massive transfusion as hypothermia will contribute to coagulopathy

BLOOD AND PRODUCTS

  • if no type specific blood, give O- RhD negative blood until Xmatch available
  • give 4 units of FFP for every 6 PRCs or APTT > 1.5x normal
  • platelets if <50
  • fibrinogen if <1g/L
71
Q

What drugs can be used in PPH?

A
  • syntocinon 5 units IV, can be repeated once and then followed by infusion of 30units/500mls (0.9% saline) infusion at 125ml/hr
  • ergometrine 0.5mg IM or IV
    • SEs HTN, flushing, vomiting
  • carboprost (haemabate) 250mcg IM
    • SEs bronchospasm, flushing, HTN
  • misoprostal 100mcg PR
  • systemic haemostatic agents
    • aprotinin
    • vit K
    • tranexamic acid
    • recombinant factor VIIa
72
Q

What surgical/radiological interventions can be done for PPH?

A
  • delivery for placental/uterine pathology
  • Brace suture (B-lynch suture)
  • uterine tamponade with Rusch urological balloon or Sengstaken-Blakemore tube
  • uterine replacement if uterine inversion
  • surgical ligation of uterine/internal iliac arteries
  • hysterectomy
  • compression/clamping aorta to buy time
  • radiological arterial embolisation or balloon occlusion
73
Q

What are the benefits of nitrous oxide and entonox for labour pain?

A
  • long history of use and good safety profile
  • rapid analgesia within 1 minute
  • self delivered by patient
  • can cause nausea/vomiting/drowsiness
  • can be insufficient for severe labour pain
74
Q

What are the disadvantages of using opioids for labour pain?

A
  • all cross the placenta and have dose-dependent effect on the foetus
  • can restrict ability to breast feed early post natally
  • delays gastric emptying and volume in mother
75
Q

What is the dose of pethidine for labour pains?

A

1mg/kg IM

76
Q

What is the metabolism of pethidine?

A

Metabolised to norpethidine (active) which has proconvulsant activity and is not recommended in pre-eclamptic patients

77
Q

What is the half life of pethidine?

A

4hrs.

Peak concentrations seen in foetus at 2hrs

78
Q

What is the dose of morphine for labour pain?

A

2-5mg IV or 5-10mg IM.
Peak concentration at 1hr.

Rapid maternal elimination reduces foetal transfer.

Active metabolites.

Sedation is more frequent than effective analgesia.

79
Q

What dose of fentanyl would you give for labour pain?

A

1-2 mcg/kg

Rapid onset due to high lipid solubility.

Metabolised to inactive compounds.

80
Q

What monitoring must be in place for regional anaesthesia in labour?

A
  • 16G cannula
  • after estabilishment or top up, measure BP every 5 mins for 15mins, BP, HR, RR, level of sedation and temp should also be recorded
  • if woman is not pain free 30 mins after each anministration of LA/opioid solution, recall anaesthetist
  • assess level of sensory +/- motor block hourly using Bromage scale
  • continuous CTG monitoring
81
Q

What are the indications for epidural anaesthesia?

A
  • patient request
  • maternal cardiac/cerebrovascular/resp disease
  • pre-eclampsia
  • fetus “at risk” eg PET
  • trial of labour after previous LSCS/uterine surgery
  • breech delivery or multiple pregnancy
  • obese patient or other risk factors for GA
  • intrauterine death or known congenital anomaly of fetus
82
Q

What are the contraindications to epidural anaesthesia?

A
  • absolute contraindication = maternal refusal

Relative CIs:

  • coagulopathy
  • haemorrhage
  • anticoagulant therapy
  • spinal abnormality
  • sepsis
83
Q

What is the Bromage scale?

A

Grade 1 - free movement - 0% block

Grade 2 - able to flex knees with effort, feet moving normally - 33% block

Grade 3 - unable to flex knees - 66%

Grade 4 - unable to move - 100%

84
Q

What should you mention in consenting for epidurals?

A
  • post dural puncture headache (1%)
  • failure to site catheter/achieve perfect analgesia (1 in 10)
  • hypotension
  • leg weakness
  • need for urinary catheter/continuous fetal monitoring
  • 1 in 10000 for temporary or mild neuropathy
  • vertebral canal haematoma, abscess or spinal cord injury extremely rare
85
Q

What block height should an epidural reach to?

A

T10 (about belly button?)

86
Q
A