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Life cycle in Nutrition > Intro to Nutrition Quiz > Flashcards

Intro to Nutrition Quiz Flashcards

1
Q

Identify the one primary function of carbohydrates

A

To provide energy

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2
Q

Classify carbohydrates as simple or complex when given the number of monosaccharide units

A 
Monosaccharides
Disaccharides
Polysaccharides (complex=3 or more)
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3
Q

Calculate the amount of simple and complex carbohydrates provided in a food using the Nutrition Facts Label

A

split between dietary fiber and sugars (all mono-and disaccharides)
the rest is complex

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4
Q

Given one of the three disaccharides, identify its monosaccharide units and enzyme that breaks it down

A

Sucrose (glucose and fructose)–> Sucrase
Lactose (glucose and galactose)–> Lactase
Maltose (glucose and glucose)–> Maltase

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5
Q

Track the digestion of carbohydrates through the mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, and colon

A

Mouth-salivary amylase

Esophagus- moves food to stomach

Stomach- CHO digestion stops

Small Intestine- Pancreatic amylase
Villi make sucrase, maltase and lactase

Colon-only fiber should be present

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6
Q

Describe the substrates, products, and site of action for salivary amylase, pancreatic amylase, lactase, sucrase, and maltase

A

Salivary amylase

  • saliva moistens
  • breaks bonds between monosaccharides
  • mouth

Pancreatic amylase

  • complex carbohydrate
  • disaccharide
  • small intestine

lactase
-lactose
-glucose and galactose
small intestine

sucrase

  • sucrose
  • glucose and fructose
  • small intestine

maltase

  • maltose
  • glucose and glucose
  • small intestine
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7
Q

Identify the cause, 3 symptoms, and 2 treatments for lactose intolerance

A

Cause

  • Age-related down-regulation of DNA sequence for gene lactase
  • lactose may enter colon, fermented by bacteria

Symptoms

  • Gas
  • Abdominal pain and bloating
  • Diarrhea

Treatment

  • Avoid lactose (diary)
  • provide lactase enzyme
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8
Q

Define the 1 primary function of the liver

A

Nutrient processing

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9
Q

Defend the reason behind the RDA for carbohydrates

A

Need a steady supply of glucose to some organs (esp. brain)

-130 grams per day

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10
Q

List the two functions of the pancreas

A

Exocrine-create digestive enzymes like pancreatic amylase

Endocrine-create insulin in the beta cells in response to high blood glucose

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11
Q

Describe how insulin functions to get glucose into the cells

A

Insulin opens the transporters and glucose can come into the cell from the bloodstream to be used for energy (brings blood glucose level down)

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12
Q

Recognize the cause and treatment of type 1 and type 2 diabetes

A

Type 1 cause and treatment

  • insulin deficiency
  • usually caused by autoimmune destruction of the pancreas
  • usually diagnosed as a child
  • no insulin= glucose transporters stay closed, so glucose cannot come into the cells for energy
  • treated by giving person injections of insulin

Type 2 cause and treatment

  • Insulin resistance
  • pancreas makes insulin, but it doesn’t open the glucose transporters very well
  • eventually a little bit of insulin will work
  • treated by spacing CHO intake out over the day or by giving medications that make the cells more sensitive to insulin
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13
Q

Define the function of glycogen

A

maintain blood glucose levels when we’re fasting or working

-carbohydrate storage

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14
Q

Diagnose hypoglycemia based on symptoms

A

low blood sugar causes irritability, dizziness, weakness, fainting, coma, death

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15
Q

Describe how glucagon functions to raise blood glucose levels

A

released when blood glucose level starts to drop; acts like “opposite” of insulin
-signals the body to break down glycogen and release glucose into bloodstream

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16
Q

Determine the effects on blood glucose caused by carbohydrate, protein, fat, and mixed meals

A
  • carbohydrate raises blood glucose
  • fat and protein have minimal effects
  • rate of change depends on infusion into bloodstream
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17
Q

Define the glycemic index and how the glycemic index of food is determined

A
  • measures how a food raises blood glucose levels
  • determined by feeding people 50 grams of carbohydrate in the test food and watching how their blood glucose level rises
  • if a food is broken down easily (like sugars), then blood glucose level rises quickly
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18
Q

List the 5 factors that will lower the glycemic index of a food

A
  • less processing
  • less sugar
  • higher protein content
  • higher fat content
  • higher fiber content
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19
Q

Define the two types of fiber and list the health benefits of each type

A

Insoluble

  • increases bulk of feces
  • decreases risk of colon cancer

Soluble
-decreases serum cholesterol

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20
Q

Compare “whole grains” and “enriched grains”

A

Whole grains

  • bran, endosperm, and germ included
  • contains fiber and B vitamins

Enriched
-bran removed and B vitamins added back in (but no fiber)

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21
Q

Identify sugars from an ingredients list

A
  • Sucrose
  • sugar cane and sugar beets
  • fructose and glucose
  • corn syrup, high fructose corn syrup, corn syrup solids
  • honey
  • edible syrups like molasses, maple syrup, pancake syrup
  • fruit nectars
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22
Q

List three reasons sugars are discouraged

A
  • Encourages overconsumption
  • promotes tooth decay
  • nutrient density less than 1
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23
Q

Top 3 sugar-containing foods in the American diet

A
  1. Sods, energy drinks, sports drinks
  2. other food categories
  3. Grain-based dessert
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24
Q

Describe the recommendations for sugar intake per the Institute of Medicine and the American Heart Association

A
  • maximum of 25% of energy as added sugars

- Limit 100 kcal/day for women, 150 kcal/day for men

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25
Q

Describe the reason that sugar alcohols cause diarrhea

A

provide some kcals but are poorly absorbed

-overconsumption causes diarrhea

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26
Q

Acceptable Daily Intake

A

Estimated amount per kg of body weight a person can consume daily for a lifetime without any adverse effects

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27
Q

List 4 FDA-approved nonnutritive sweetners

A
  1. Aspartame
  2. Stevia
  3. Splenda
  4. Saccharin (sweet-N-low)
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28
Q

Defend the safety of non-nutritive sweeteners in the food supply

A
  • reduced dental cavities
  • diabetics
  • less expensive, desirable sensory properties
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29
Q

Describe 2 reasons people who use non-nutritive sweeteners may weigh more than those who do not

A
  1. Trying to lose weight

2. Taste dependence

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30
Q

Discriminate between fats and oils

A

fats-lipids that exist as solids at room temperature

oils-lipids that exist as liquids at room temperature

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31
Q

4 purposes of lipids in the diet or human body

A
  1. Energy
  2. Energy storage
  3. Insulation and protection
  4. Help with absorption of fat-soluble vitamins
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32
Q

Name the one most important contributor of lipids to the American Diet

A

trigylcerides

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33
Q

Define each of the 6 types of fatty acids in the diet based on the chemical bonding present in the molecule and list at least 1 food source for each

A

Saturated FA

  • No C=C
  • Dairy and meat products, coconut and palm oils

Monounsaturated FA

  • one C=C bond
  • olive oil, canola oil

Polyunsaturated FA

  • multiple double bonds
  • omega-3 and omega-6
  • vegetable oils, nuts, avocados

Hydrogenated FA
-process of forcing hydrogen through oils to reduce number of C=C bonds

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34
Q

2 important enzymes for fat digestion

A
  1. Bile Salts

2. Pancreatic Lipase

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35
Q

Describe how soluble fiber works to decrease blood cholesterol levels

A
  • Soluble fiber binds to bile
  • Can’t reabsorb
  • Must make new bile from cholesterol
  • decreases blood cholesterol
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36
Q

Know the mechanism of the weight loss drug Orlistat and describe its safety

A

Inhibits pancreatic lipase and prevents free fatty acid absorption

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37
Q

Define “essential fatty acids”

A

Cannot synthesize, must be provided in diet

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38
Q

Compare and contrast LDL and HDL cholesterol

A

LDL

  • low-density lipoprotein
  • sent out by the liver
  • higher total cholesterol= higher LDL cholesterol
  • Dropps off cholesterol into cells

HDL

  • High-density lipoprotein
  • pick up excess cholesterol in bloodstream
  • transports back to liver for destruction
  • high levels protective against heart disease
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39
Q

4 steps of the development of atherosclerosis and identify which of these steps can be prevented with a good diet

A
  1. High total cholesterol
  2. High LDL cholesterol
  3. More likely to oxidize
  4. Plaque forms

Step 2

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40
Q

Identify the cause of a heart attack and a stroke

A

Blood clot forms and black vessel

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41
Q

Identify the 2 effects on blood cholesterol of saturated fat in the diet

A

Raises total cholesterol

Raises LDL cholesterol

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42
Q

List the 2 effects on blood cholesterol of monounsaturated fat in the diet

A
  1. Lower LDL cholesterol

2. Increase HDL cholesterol

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43
Q

List the 2 effects on blood cholesterol of trans fat in the diet

A
  1. Increase LDL

2. Lower HDL

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44
Q

Make reasonable changes to a meal or lifestyle for a person who has high cholesterol

A
  1. Decrease cholesterol
  2. Increase MUFA
  3. Replace SFA with PUFA (of MUFA)
  4. Eliminate trans fats
  5. More soluble fiber
  6. Exercise
  7. Weight loss if overweight
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45
Q

Identify the recommended limit for sodium in the diet

A

Less than 1500 mg/day

46
Q

Describe the top two diets for people with heart disease

A
  1. Mediterranean Diet

2. DASH diet

47
Q

Name 6 functions of protein

A
  1. Enzymes
  2. Hormones
  3. Immune function
  4. Transport
  5. Structure
  6. Energy
48
Q

Define the chemical difference between proteins versus carbohydrates and lipids

A

Amine group
Side Chain
Carboxyl group

49
Q

Discuss the 5-step process of protein formation from DNA

A
  1. DNA unzips
  2. RNA polymerase matches nucleotides (bases) to one strand of DNA (transcription)
  3. Create messenger RNA (mRNA) strand, which leaves nucleus
  4. Transfer RNA (tRNA) made of three bases attached to an amino acid; matches up with RNA
  5. Amino acids bond into a chain
50
Q

Define protein denaturation, and list the 2 ways this is done in cooking or digestion

A

Unfolding of protein

  1. Heat
  2. Stomach acid
51
Q

Describe how excess protein is used for energy, including deamination, utilization of carbon skeletons for energy or fat production, and creation of ammonia

A
  1. Excess dietary amino acids are deaminated
  2. Carbon skeletons can
    - go to the Kreb’s cycle to be used for energy
    - be stored as fat
  3. Produces ammonia which is toxic
  4. Ammonia converted to urea in the liver
52
Q

Identify two organs that may be damaged by overconsumption of protein

A

Kidney

Liver

53
Q

Contrast essential and nonessential amino acids

A

Essential-cannot be synthesized by human body

non-essential-can be synthesized by human body

54
Q

Categorize food proteins as complete or incomplete

A

Complete
-contain amounts of essential amino acids in proportion needed by the body when used as the sole source of proteins

Incomplete
-lacking one or more essential amino acids or having a poor balance of amino acids

55
Q

Identify the lacking amino acid in grains, nuts, seeds, and legumes

A

Grains, nuts, seeds
-lack lysine

Legumes
-lack methionine

56
Q

Create a menu including complementary proteins

A

Legumes and grains are considered complementary

57
Q

Discuss 4 reasons to choose vegetarianism

A
  1. Religious
  2. Ethics
  3. Sustainability
  4. Health
58
Q

Name foods excluded from the diets of 5 types of vegetarianism

A

Pesco
-include fish but no meat, poultry

Latco-ovo
-no meat, poultry, fish

Ovo
-no meat, poultry, fish, dairy

Lacto
-no meat, poultry, fish, eggs

Vegan
-no animal products (no meat, poultry, fish, egg, dairy)

59
Q

List 5 vitamin and mineral deficiencies associated with vegan diets

A

Calcium, Vitamin D, Vitamin B12, Zinc, Iron

60
Q

Name 4 metabolic changes caused by training

A
  1. Increases muscle mass through damage and recovery
  2. Increases ability of cell to create and store energy (ATP, glycogen)
  3. Efficient use of energy (fat stores)
  4. Decreases use of glycogen for energy (glycogen lasts longer)
61
Q

Know the AND/ACSM recommendations for protein intake for strength and endurance athletes

A

Endurance
-1.2-1.4 grams/kg

Strength
-1.2-1.7 grams/kg

62
Q

Argue against excess protein intake

A
  • Body will not make more muscle from excess protein
  • urea production
  • dehydration
  • under consumption of CHO
  • heart disease risk
  • osteoporosis risk
  • liver and kidney disease risk
63
Q

Discuss the metabolic reason for warming up before a workout

A
  • allows time for muscles to start using fat

- conserves glycogen

64
Q

Know how athletes can estimate their fluid losses during a workout

A

-Lose about 1 pint of water for every 300 kcal of exercise

65
Q

Know how much water an athlete needs to consume (amount per 15 mins) during a workout

A

1 cup per 15 mins

66
Q

List 4 symptoms of dehyration

A
  1. Dark, scanty urine
  2. Chronic fatigue
  3. Headaches
  4. Lack of energy
67
Q

Name the three components of sports drinks

A

carbohydrates, electrolytes, and fluid

68
Q

Know which athletes/activities would benefit from sports drinks

A

Recommended for activity lasting over an hour or bursts of high intesity

69
Q

Plan a pre-exercise meal that will not cause GI distress

A
  • Smallish
  • lower in fat
  • lower in fiber
  • high in carbohydrate to make sure stomach is not overly full
  • Eat what is comfortable
70
Q

Describe 6 metabolic, cardiac and respiratory changes during the “steady state”

A

Metabolic
-use fat for energy over glycogen

Cardiac output, heart rate, blood pressure increase

Respiration rate increases and muscles push out more air

71
Q

Name at least 3 factors that cause fatigue during exercise

A
  1. Depletion of glycogen
  2. Systemic factors: hypoglycemia, hypoxia, inadequate blood flow, pain
  3. Psychological factors
72
Q

Define water intoxication

A
  • occurs when drinking only water (no electrolytes)
  • water moves into the cells, causing them to swell
  • increased size of brain cells causes increased intracranial pressure
73
Q

Plan an appropriate post-exercise meal/snack for glycogen and protein repletion

A
  1. Consume CHO within 30 mins of completion
  2. High GI foods replete glycogen better than low
  3. Protein promotes repair of muscle
74
Q

Define nitrogen balance

A

nitrogen intake = nitrogen output

75
Q

Conditions where a person may be in positive nitrogen balance (3) or in negative nitrogen balance (2)

A

Positive balance

  • weight gain
  • pregnancy
  • growth in children

Negative balance

  • injury or illness
  • starvation
76
Q

compare and contrast kwashiorkor vesus marasmus

A

Kwashiorkor
-very poor protein quality during need for high protein intake

  • characterized by edema
  • often accompanied by infection

Marasmus

  • simple starvation
  • loss of body fat, protein
77
Q

Identify characteristics, major warning signs, and effects of pregorexia, orthorexia, and muscle dysmorphia

A

Pregorexia
-exessive attempt to control weight gain during pregnancy through calorie control or exercise

Orthorexia
-health food eating disorder

Muscle dysmorphia

  • excessive concern with needing to be muscular
  • obsession on food to build muscle
78
Q

Discuss necessary treatment of eating disorders

A
  • Correct nutrient deficiencies
  • establish normal, healthy diet
  • psychological therapy must be included
79
Q

Discuss the historical significance of the Minnesota Starvation study

A

define the effects of starvation and develop best rehabilitation diet

80
Q

Recall what happens after you eat a meal

-the three ways glucose is used and how protein is used

A
  1. uptake of nutrients for use in proteins, fat storage
  2. Insulin promotes uptake of CHO into cells
  3. Use for energy, storage
81
Q

Name the two major metabolic processes associated with early stages of starvation

A
  1. Glycogen breakdown

2. Gluconeogenesis causes high rate protein breakdown

82
Q

List the three major metabolic effects of extended starvation

A
  1. Fatty acids make ketones, slower rate of protein breakdown
  2. Slowing of metabolism
  3. Loss of body fat and protein
83
Q

Discuss the most surprising effect of starvation

A

No lasting ill effects

84
Q

Describe the difference between a calorie and a Calorie or kilocalorie

A

calorie
-amount of heat required to heat 1 g H2O by 1 degree celsius

Calorie, or kcal

  • amount of heat required to raise the temp of 1 kg H2O by 1 degree celsius
  • 1,000 calories
  • more useful measurement
85
Q

Name the 1 source of energy intake and the three ways energy is expended

A

Digestible energy

  • basal metabolic rate
  • thermic effect of food
  • physical activity
86
Q

Define basal metabolic rate, relative contribution to energy expenditure, and 9 ways that BMR changes

A

BMR

  • organ function to keep you alive
  • 60-70% of total energy expenditure
  • increased by
    1. muscle mass
    2. body surface area
    3. Male gender
    4. Body temperature
    5. Stage of growth
    6. Caffeine and tobacco
    7. Thyroid function
    8. Recent exercise
    9. Younger age
87
Q

Define the thermic effect of food, its relative contribution to energy expenditure, and 2 way that it can change

A

Thermic effect of food

  • Energy to digest, absorb, transport, store, metabolize nutrients
  • 5-10% energy expenditure
  • more eaten=more calories burned
88
Q

Define physical activity and its relative contribution to energy expenditure

A

Physical activity

-20-40% energy expenditure

89
Q

Differentiate between exercise and non-exercise

A
  • Exercise: conscious decision to expend calories

- Non-exercise: unconscious activity

90
Q

Define the set-point theory and describe how it relates to someone who is trying to gain or lose weight

A
  • Each person has a biologically predetermined set-point for weight
  • Weight loss: increased appetite, reduced energy expenditure
  • Weight gain/overfeeding: reduced appetite
91
Q

List the 4 components of body composition

A
  1. Water
  2. Protein
  3. Fat
  4. Minerals/bone
92
Q

Accurately define obesity

A

Amount of fat determines obesity.
Women: over 35%
Men: over 24%

93
Q

List 6 health consequences related to obesity

A
  1. Increased blood pressure
  2. Higher cholesterol
  3. Insulin resistance
  4. Higher glucose
  5. Cancer
  6. Arthritis
94
Q

Discuss 8 environmental factors that encourage overconsumption of food, or consumption of unhealthy foods

A
  1. Food availability
  2. Food preferences
  3. Culture
  4. Eating behaviors: restaurants
  5. Education and income
  6. Social network
  7. Lack of food preparation skills/convenience foods
  8. Less physical activity
95
Q

Name 4 metabolic effects of severe calorie restriction

A
  1. Lower basal metabolic rate
  2. Protein and fat loss
  3. More hunger
  4. Obsession with food
96
Q

Name 3 characteristics of fad diets

A
  1. rely on excluding foods
  2. usually a dramatic drop in calories, causing more reaction similar to starvation
  3. lacking nutrients, especially exclusion diets
97
Q

Explain why extreme caloric restriction in a diet is detrimental in the long term goal of sustained weight loss

A

Will overeat for about the same amount of time calories restricted

98
Q

Name three reasonable strategies for weight loss

A
  1. Improve diet quality
  2. Reduce by 500 calories/day
  3. Self-monitoring
99
Q

List top 4 behaviors associated with sustained weight loss, as identified by the National weight loss

A
  1. Food intake modification
  2. Increase physical activity
  3. Eat breakfast
  4. Self-monitoring
100
Q

Define weight loss plateau, and state the best treatment for it

A

Body needs to reset set point

-just wait it out

101
Q

Identify 2 ways that weight loss medications work

A
  1. Speed up metabolism

2. Cause malabsorption

102
Q

Describe the three currently approved types of bariatric surgery

A
  1. Lap band
  2. Gastric sleeve
  3. Gastric bypass
103
Q

List 4 common properties of water-soluble vitamins

A
  1. Coenzymes in energy production
  2. Soluble in water
  3. Absorbed in small intestine
  4. Low toxicity-no storage site so excess excreted in urine
104
Q

Name 4 ways that water-soluble vitamin content is reduced in foods

A
  1. Prolonged heating
  2. Storage time
  3. Water in cooking
  4. Exposure to air
105
Q

Rank types of foods from best to worst in terms of preservation of water-soluble vitamin content

A
  1. Fresh
  2. Frozen
  3. Dried
  4. Canned
106
Q

Rank cooking methods from best to worst in terms of preservation of water-soluble vitamin content

A
  1. Steaming
  2. Stir-frying
  3. Microwaving
  4. Grilling/broiling
  5. Boiling
107
Q

Describe the brief history, food sources, functions, deficiency state, and toxicity of thiamin

A

History

  • Beriberi common in Asia
  • 1890: Eijkman in Java cured chickens of beriberi by feeding rice polishings
  • 1901: Grigens theorized natural rice contained some factor that prevented disease
  • Isolated by Funk in 1912 (vita amine)

Food sources

  • Lean pork
  • legumes
  • whole grains

Functions

  • Energy production
  • -required for step leading from glycolysis to Krebs cycle
  • Nerve transmission, muscle contraction
  • required for alcohol metabolism

Deficiency states

  • Beriberi
  • -caused by nerve degeneration
  • –limb weakness, esp. hands/feet
  • –calf muscle stiffness
  • –Difficult rising from a squatting position
  • Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome
  • -Major cause is alcohol
  • -Metabolism of alcohol takes precedent
  • –Non-reactive pupils, paralysis of eyes
  • –difficulty walking
  • –derangement of mental functions
  • –confusion, apathy: listlessness, inattentiveness, indifference to surroundings, disorientation
  • –Short-term memory loss

Treatment

  • Thiamin supplements
  • Stop EtOH use
  • Beriberi-results within 6-24 hours, full recovery in 3-4 months
  • Wernicke: <20% recover completely
  • -most have memory gaps, residual difficulty walking
108
Q

Describe the brief history, food sources, functions, deficiency state and toxicity of Riboflavin

A

History

  1. Discovered along with thiamin and niacin3
  2. Function not known for 16 years
  3. “The yellow enzyme”
  4. Destroyed by exposure to light

Food Sources

  1. Dairy
  2. Eggs
  3. Meat
  4. Enriched breads and cereals

Functions

  1. Energy production
    a) Needed for TCA cycle and electron transport chain

Deficiency

  1. Occurs in combination with deficiencies of other B vitamins
  2. Symptoms:
    a) Glossitis (swollen, magenta tongue)
    b) Cracks at corners of mouth
109
Q

Describe the brief history, food sources, functions, deficiency state, and toxicity of niacin

A

History
1. Pellagra described in mid-1800’s
2. Called “mal de la rosa”
3. Associated with low-protein, high-corn diets
a) Thought to be a toxin in corn
4. Once common in US: 200,000 cases per year in early 1900s
a) Most often seen in poor South
b) Dementia is symptom of severe deficiency: likely reason for many mental illness
institutionalizations
5. 1913: Goldberger trying to find cure
a) Thought to be infectious
b) Able to show black tongue disease in dogs cured by niacin (analogous to pellagra in
humans)
c) Fed niacin to humans and cured pellagra

Food Sources

  1. Whole grain or enriched bread and cereal
  2. Meat, poultry, fish

Functions

  1. Energy metabolism
    a) Takes electrons from TCA cycle to the electron transport chain

Deficiency

  1. Pellagra
    a) Symptoms:
    (1) Dermatitis
    (a) Thick, scaly, dark rash in areas exposed to sunlight
    (b) Casal’s necklace
    (2) Diarrhea
    (3) Dementia
    (a) Apathy, fatigue, depression, disorientation, memory loss
    (4) Death

Toxicity

  1. Pharmacological doses (60x RDA) of niacin are lipid-lowering!
    a) Raise HDL, lower LDL
    b) Side effects: flushing, warmth, tingling, redness
  2. No serious complications
  3. Do not sub dietary supplements
110
Q

Describe the brief history, food sources, functions, deficiency state, and toxicity or Vitamin B6

A

History

  1. Discovered as part of a complex that cures a specific type of dermatitis in rats
  2. Isolated in 1930s

Food Sources

  1. Meats
  2. Whole grains (not enriched)
  3. Potatoes
  4. Bananas

Function

  1. Amino acid metabolism
    a) Deaminating amino acids
    b) Creating nonessential amino acids

Deficiency

  1. Not well defined since rare
  2. 1950s: Infants given formula that had been autoclaved
    a) B6 destroyed
    b) Developed seizure

Toxicity
1. Once prescribed in high doses for PMS, nausea/vomiting with morning sickness
2. Case reports of loss of fine motor skills and difficulty walking at levels 20-50x RDA taken
over months
3. UL: 100 mg (50x RDA)

Life cycle in Nutrition (4 decks)

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