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INTRO (PPT) Flashcards

1
Q

the study of drugs and their origin, nature, properties, and effects on living organisms

A

PHARMACOLOGY

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2
Q

is the amount of drug needed to cause a therapeutic effect

A

CRITICAL CRITERION

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3
Q

the transport of a drug in body fluids from the bloodstream to various tissues of the body and then to its site of action

A

DISTRIBUTION

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4
Q

any substance used in the diagnosis, treatment, or prevention of a disease or condition; this term is used interchangeably with the word medication

A

DRUG

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5
Q

a phenomenon that occurs following ingestion of an oral drug, which a large percentage of the drug is inactivated in the liver after being absorbed from the GI tract as the drug is carried from the GI circulation through the hepatic portal circulation; this explains why oral medications doses need to be larger than parenteral doses

A

first-pass effect

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6
Q

is the time required to reduce to one half that amount of unchanged drug that is in the body at the time equilibrium is established

A

half life

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7
Q

what drugs do to the body and how drugs interact with the body tissue

A

pharmacodynamics

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8
Q

what the body does to a drug or how a drug is altered as it travels thought the body

A

pharmacokinetics

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9
Q

also known as clinical pharmacology

A

pharmacotherapeutics

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10
Q

the branch of pharmacology that involves using drugs to treat, prevent, or diagnose disease

A

pharmacotherapeutics

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11
Q

the ability of a drug, such as penicillin, to attack only those system found in foreign cells

A

selective toxicity

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12
Q

common or general name assigned to the drug; differentiated from trade name by initial lowercase letter; never capitalized

A

generic name

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13
Q

the name by which a pharmaceutical company identifies its products; is copyrighted and used exclusively by that company;

A

trade name

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14
Q

the exact molecular formula of the drug; usually a long, very difficult name to pronounce and of little concern to the health care worker

A

chemical name

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15
Q

name of the drug as it appears in the official reference, the USP/NF; generally the same as generic name

A

official name

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16
Q

no purchasing restrictions by the FDA

A

OTC

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17
Q

prescription drug; determined unsafe for OTC purchase because of possible harmful side effects if taken indiscriminately; includes birth control pills, antibiotics, cardiac drugs, hormones

A

legend drug

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18
Q

drug controlled by prescription requirement substance of the danger of addiction or abuse

A

controlled substance

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19
Q

a list of medical conditions or disease for which the drug is meant to be used

A

indications

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20
Q

a description of the cellular changes that occur as a result of the drug. This information tends to be very technical, describing cellular and tissue changes. While it is helpful to know what body system is affected by the drug

A

actions

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21
Q

a list on conditions for which the drug should be given

A

contraindication

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22
Q

a list of conditions or types of patients that warrant closer observation for specific side effects when given the drug

A

cautions

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23
Q

Which of the following is the best description of a drug serum half life

A

The times required after absorption for half of a drug to be eliminated

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24
Q

the patient is taking a drug that is half life 24-30 hours. In preparing discharge teaching, which of the following is the dosing schedule the nurse anticipated will be prescribe for this medication

A

daily

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25
which of the following type of drug can be eliminate thought the kidneys
water soluble
26
the older adult patient has a creatinine clearance of 30ml/min. He has been prescribed trimethoprim (proloprim) for a UTI. If the normal dose is 200 mg per day, what does the nurse anticipate will occur with the dosing regimen
the dose will decrease by one-half
27
which of the following is the best determinant of the biologic activity of the drug
the fit of a drug at the receptor site
28
which type of drug prevents or inhibits a cellular response
antagonist
29
a receptor located in different parts of the body may initiate a variety of responses depending on the anatomic site. Which type of receptor responds in this manner?
non-specific
30
Which indicator measures the margin of safety of a drug?
Therapeutic index
31
The nurse has just given the patient her prescribed antibiotic. Which measurement checks for the highest plasma/serum concentration of the drug?
Peak Level
32
Before administering a medication, the nursechecks a drug reference book or pamphlet toobtain pertinent data. Which data should the nursenote?
Contraindications -Half-life Protein-binding effect Therapeutic range
33
What state law controls drugs administration bynurses?
The nurse practice act
34
Drug on which schedule have accepted medical used?
2 through 5
35
What is correct about schedule drugs potential for abuse?
1 more than 3
36
The patients presents to the emergencydepartment with hallucination. The patient friendstates he has been using lysergic acid diethylamide (LMD) and mescaline. To whichschedule do these belong?
Schedule 1
37
Where must control substances be stored in aninstitution or agency?
It should be lock in a secured area
38
Which drug form is most rapidly absorbed from thegastrointestinal (GI) tract?
Suspension
39
Where does disintegration of enteric-coated tabletsoccur?
Small intestine
40
The patient is taking diazepam (Valium) for anxiety. Two days later she is started on dicloxacillin for an infection. What does the nurse know will happen to the diazepam in the patient's body?
Most of the diazepam is released, and it becomes more active.
41
Which body organ is the major site of drug metabolism?
Liver
42
What route of drug absorption has the greatest bioavailability
Intravenous
43
Which type of physiologic effect is not related to the desired effect(s) and is predictable or associated with the use of a specific drug?
Side effects
44
The nurse is giving a large initial dose of a drug to rapidly achieve minimum effective concentration in the plasma. What is this type of dosage called?
Loading dose
45
A time-response curve evaluates parameters of a drug's action. Which parameter(s) is/are part of the time-response curve?
a.Duration of action b.Onset of action c. Peak action
46
Which intervention(s) regarding drug therapy should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.)
a. Assess for side effects, with a focus on undesirable side effects b. Check reference books or drug inserts before administering the medication d. Check the patient's serum therapeutic range of drugs that have a narrow therapeutic range e. Evaluate peak and trough levels prior to administering the medication
47
This refers to a condition for which a drug should not be given?
Contraindications
48
Which of the following refers to a description on the cellular changes that occurs as a result of drug?
Mechanism of action
49
Another name of the biotransformation of a drug
Metabolism
50
Drug excretion occurs mainly in which of the following
Bowel and renal tubules
51
Drugs that build up in a body system such a result of excessive dosages, poor circulations, faulty metabolism or inadequate excretion may result in which of the following?
Cumulative effects
52
Drug half-life is defined as the amount of time required for 50% of a drug to:
Be eliminated by the body
53
Drugs given by which of the route will be altered by the first pass effect?
Oral
54
A drug tricks in enzyme into binding to it instead of the enzyme normal target cell produces effect may which of the following mechanism?
Enzyme interaction
55
Which of the following physiologic factors is most responsible for the differences in a pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics behavior of drugs neonates and adults?
immaturity of neonatal organs
56
Most drug references provide recommended pediatric dosages based on which of the following?
milligram per kilogram of body weight
57
The criteria for determining drug dosage in an elderly should be based on which of the following?
More on weight than on age
58
During your medication administration your client tells you this pill is different color than the other one that I usually take at home? Which of the following will your best response to your client?
I will recheck your medication orders
59
f the following medications are listed on a client's medication administration record (MAR). Which one of the following should a nurse question?
Codeine q4-6h, po, prn for pain
60
What is the primary purpose of federal legislation related to drug standards?
Ensure safety
61
. The Kefauver-harris amendment was fast to improve safety by requiring which information to be included in the drugs literature?
Adverse reaction and contraindication
62
Which phase of the nursing process requires the nurse to establish a comprehensive baseline of data concerning a particular patient?
Assessment
63
The nurse may revise or discontinue unrealistic goals, which phase of the nursing process?
Evaluation
64
Prescribe medication are prepared in administered during what phase of nursing process?
Implementation
65
Which of the following is part of a complete medication history?
Use of street drugs
66
During which phase of the nursing process does the nurse prioritize the nursing diagnosis?
Planning
67
Has a variety of effects on the body. It may be given to relieve pain, to reduce fever, or to reduce inflammation of tissues
Aspirin
68
A lit of possible unpleasant or dangerous seconady effects other than the desired effecta
Side effects and adverse effects
69
List of other drugs or foods that may alter the effect of the drug
Interaction
70
One of the most widely references for drugs in current use
Physician's Desk References
71
Acts as anti blood clotting agent for young adults who are at risk of blood clots during pregnancy, surgery, or prolonged bed rest
Human antithrombin (Atryn)
72
breaks down toxic nerve agents such as sarin as into inactive compounds and then removes them from bloodstream
Human butyrylcholinesterase (Protexia)
73
stops bleeding in patients with hemophilia A, a blood clotting disorder characterized by prolonged bleeding
human coagulation factor VIII fusion protein (elocate)
74
helps coagulate blood and treats afibrinogenemia, a condition in which a lack of fibrinogen leads to uncontrolled bleeding
human fibrinogen (rhFIB)
75
treats hereditary angioedema, which is swelling under the skin caused by allergic reactions in the body
human CI inhibitor
76
alleviates symptoms of multiple scleroses
human myelin basic protein
77
refers to the movement of medication molecules in the body
pharmacokinetics
78
the movement of the medication from its site of administration to the blood stream
absorption
79
physiologic factors affecting absorption and response
weight age gender
80
chemical and physical factors affecting absorption
lipid solubility ph partitioning range of dissolution blood flow routes of administration
81
the transportation of a medication to its site of action by bodily fluids
distribution
82
also called detoxification or metaboliosm
biotransformation
83
is a process by which a drug is converted to a less active form
biotransformation
84
metabolism takes place in
liver
85
the product of biotransformation/metabolism is called
metabolites
86
two types of metabolite
active inactive
87
metabolite that has a pharmacologic action itself
active metabolite
88
metabolite that has no pharmacologic action
inactive metabolite
89
is a process by which metabolites and drugs are eliminated from the body
excretion
90
describes the interaction between medications and target cells, body systems, and organs to produce effects
pharmacodynamics
91
medications leave the body quickly 4-8 hours
short half life
92
medications leave the body more slowly -24+ hours. Greater risk for medication accumulation and toxicity
long half life
93
legal regulations
food and drug administrations controlled substances pregnancy categories regulation of nursing practice related to medication therapy legal liability
94
an agency of the US Department of health and human services that regulated the development and sales of drugs to ensure safety and efficacy
FDA
95
controls the process of scientific testing to evaluate therapeutic and toxic effects of a chemical that may potentially become a drug
FDA
96
testing on laboratory animals is done to determine whether the drug has the presumed effect in living tissue and to evaluate any adverse effects.
preclinical trials
97
a tightly controlled study is conducted that involves the use of healthy human volunteers to test the drug
phase I studies
98
the drug is administered to clients who have the disease that the drug was intended to treat
phase II studies
99
the drug is used in the clinical setting to determine any unanticipated effects or lack of effectiveness
phase III studies
100
drugs that complete phase III are re evaluated by the FDA
FDA approval
101
involves continual evaluation of the drug approval for marketing
phase IV study
102
are administered under the supervision of primary care providers. These medication may be habit forming, have potential harmful effects, and require supervision
prescription medications
103
are substances that are considered to have potential for drug abuse, use of the substance in a manner inconsistent with medical or social norms
controlled substances
104
regulates the manufacturing distribution, and dispensing of drugs that are known to have abuse potential
Controlled Substance Act of 1970
105
a part of Department of Justice, enforces the control of a drug
Drug Enforcement Agency
106
monitors the prescription, distribution, storage, and the use of a controlled substance in an attempt to decrease substance abuse of prescribes medication
Drug enforcement agency
107
high abuse potential and no accepted medical use
Schedule I
108
Heroine, Marijuana, Cocaine
Schedule I
109
high abuse potential with severe dependence liability
Schedule II
110
narcotics, amphetamines, barbiturates
schedule II
111
less abuse potential than schedule II drugs and moderate dependence liability
schedule III
112
nonarbiturates sedatives, nonapehitamines stimulants, limited amount of narcotics
schedule III
113
less abuse potential that schedule that schedule III drugs and limited dependence liability
schedule IV
114
some sedatives, nonnarcotic analgesics, antianxiety agents
schedule IV
115
drugs that may contain small amounts of narcotic such as codeine,
schedule V
116
adequate studies in pregnant women have not demonstrated a risk to the fetus in the 1st trimester of pregnancy
category a
117
animal studies have not demonstrated a risk to the fetus but there are no adequate studies in pregnant women
category b
118
animal studies have shown an adverse effect on the fetus but there are no adequate studies in humans
category c
119
there is evidence of human fetal risk, but the potential benefits from the use of the drug in pregnant women may be acceptable despite its potential risk
category d
120
studies in animals or humans demonstrate fetal abnormalities or adverse reactions and reports include evidence with fetal risk
category x
121
describes the role of the nurses in relation to medication administration
nurse practice act
122
a form of negligence or professional misconduct
malpractice
123
any unintended or undesired effect that can occur at a normal medication dose
adverse drug effect
124
are the secondary medication effects that occur at therapeutic doses
side effects
125

Pharmacology (6 decks)

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