3rd exam Flashcards

1
Q

When preparing an IV solution that contains potassium, which of these conditions must a nurse recognize as a contraindication to the potassium infusion?

A

serum potassium level of 5.6mEq/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

during a counseling session for a group of teenage athletes, the use of androgenic steroids is discussed. the nurse will explain that which problem is rare but devastating effect of androgenic steroid use

A

kidney failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

a patient who has a history of asthma is experiencing an acute episode of shortness of breath and needs to take a medication for immediate relief. the nurse will choose which medication that is appropriate for the situation

A

a leukotriene receptor antagonist, such as montelukast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

After a nebulizer treatment with the beta agonist
albuterol, the patient complains of feeling a little
“shaky,” with slight tremors of the hands. The patient’s
heart rate is 98 beats/min, increased from the
pretreatment rate of 88 beats/min. The nurse knows
that this reaction is an

A

An expected adverse effect of the
medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A patient is receiving ipratropium via inhaler. The
nurse will assess the patient for which of these
adverse effects? Select all that apply:

A

-
Dry mouth or throat, nasal congestion,
headache
-
B,d,e

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A patient is receiving ipratropium via inhaler. The
nurse will assess the patient for which of these
adverse effects? Select all that apply:

A

-
Dry mouth or throat, nasal congestion,
headache
-
B,d,e

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

During a teaching session for a patient who will be
receiving a new prescription for the LTRA montelukast
(Singulair), the nurse will tell the patient that the drug
has which therapeutic effect?

A

Reduces inflammation in the airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A patient who is taking a xanthine derivative for
chronic bronchitis asks the nurse, “I miss my morning
coffee. I can’t wait to go home and have some.” What
is the nurse’s best response?

A

It’s important not to take coffee or other
caffeinated products with this medicine
as it may cause an increased heart rate
as well as other problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A client has been taking Iansoprazole (proton-pump
inhibitor) the nurse should monitor the client for the
relief of which symptom?

A

Heartburn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A client is taking amiloride hydrochloride daily. The
nurse should tell the client to take the dose at what
time?

A

In the morning with breakfast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Theophylline is prescribes for a client with bronchial
asthma. The nurse provides dietary instructions to the
client and should tell the client to avoid consuming
which item?

A

Iced tea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The nurse is preparing to administer medications to a
hospitalized client and notes that the client takes
levothyroxine daily. The nurse suspects that the client
has a history of which condition?

A

Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following classes of antihypertensive
drugs is not recommended for initial treatment?

A

Potassium sparing diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A 55-yr-old woman, who is devoted to singing in her
church chorus, has hypertension which has been well
controlled with enalapril for the past month. She calls
to report a new, intolerable side effect, and she
requests to be switched to a different drug. Which of
the following adverse effects is most likely to be
intolerable to this patient

A

Dry cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

During her annual physical examination, a 45-yr-old
patient with a history of asthma is found to have an
elevated blood pressure. Elevated pressures are
confirmed on 2 additional readings in the physician’s
office. In evaluating therapies for this patient, which
class of antihypertensive drugs is contraindicated?

A

Beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A digitalis preparation is effective for treating which of
the following health conditions?

A

Heart failure (HF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is lidocaine primarily used to treat?

A

Ventricular dysrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following medication is the most potent
calcium channel blocker?

A

Nifedipine (Procardia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When testing a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) canister to
estimate whether it is empty, the inhaler canister (not
the mouthpiece) is dropped into a container that is
wider and longer that the inhaler and filed up to threequarters fill with water. Which of the following indicates
that the inhaler canister is nearly empty?

A

The canister floats on top of the water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The following medications are example of Histamine H2 antagonist

A

Nifedipine (adalat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Action: decrease secretion of gastric acid and formation of pepsin by blocking histamine 2 receptor sites

A

Histamine 2 antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Action: reduce stomach acid by working on secretory surface receptors to stop the last phase of acid production

A

Proton pump inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Mix with hydrochloric acid to neutralize stomach secretions and prevent transformation of pepsinogen to pepsin

A

Antacids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Stops secretion of gastric acid and elevates production of mucus and bicarbonate to preserve stomach lining

A

Misoprostol (Cytotec)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Action: forms a protective coveting of ulcer sites and guards against pepsin, bile salts, and acid, which stops further breakdown of the sites
Sucralfate (Carafate)
26
Uses: GERD Heartburn Zollinger Ellison Syndrome Stress ulcer GI bleeding Gastric and duodenal ulcer
Histamine 2 antagonist
27
USE: short term treatment for gastric and duodenal ulcers, GERD, esophagitis Long term treatment of hypersecretory diseases H. pylori infection
Proton pump inhibitors
28
Use: Treat and prevent gastritis, GI bleeding, stress ulcers, heartburn, GERD, PUD, esophagitis
Antacids
29
USE: Prevention of gastric ulcers from the use of NSAIDs
Misoprostol (Cytotec)
30
Use: Duodenal ulcer
Sucralfate (Carafate)
31
Side/Adverse effect of histamine 2 antagonist (CNS)
Confusion Hallucinations Drowsiness Headache Dizziness
32
Side/Adverse effect of histamine 2 antagonist (CV)
hypotension Arrhythmias
33
Side/Adverse effect of Histamine 2 antagonist (derm)
Reversible alopecia Rash Steven johnson syndrome
34
Side/Adverse effect of histamine 2 antagonist F&E
Elevated creatinine BUN Serum uric acir
35
Side/Adverse effect of histamine 2 antagonist GI
Constipation Diarrhea
36
Side/Adverse effect of histamine 2 antagonist GU
Reversible impotence Gynecomastia Galactorrhea
37
Side/Adverse effect of histamine 2 antagonist Hematologic
Elevated prothrombin time
38
Side/Adverse effect of histamine 2 antagonist Other
Fever Joint pain in clients with arthritis
39
Side/Adverse effect of proton pump inhibitors Cns
Tiredness Dizziness Headache Insomnia
40
Side/Adverse effect of proton pump inhibitors Derm
Pruritus Alopecia Rash Dry skin
41
Side/Adverse effect of proton pump inhibitors GI
Dry mouth Nausea Diarrhea Abdominal pain
42
Side/Adverse effect of proton pump inhibitors GU
Blood/protein in urine
43
Side/Adverse effect of proton pump inhibitors Resp
Nasal stuffiness Hoarseness Cough Nosebleed
44
Side/Adverse effect of proton pump inhibitors Other
Fever Back pain
45
Side/Adverse effect of antacids F&E
Hypophosphatemia Hypermanesemia in clients with renal disease
46
Side/Adverse effect of antacid GI
Magnesium antacids cause diarrhea Aluminum antacids cause constipation Acid rebound
47
Side/Adverse effect of antacid Other
Encephalopathy Osteomalacia
48
Side/Adverse effect of Misoprostol Cns
Headache
49
Side/Adverse effect of Misoprostol Gi
Constipation Diarrhea Nausea Vomiting Abdominal pain Flatulence
50
Side/Adverse effect of Misoprostol GU
Menstrual irregularities Uterine contractions
51
Side/Adverse effect of Sucralfate CNS
Insomnia Dizziness
52
Side/Adverse effect of Sucralfate Derm
Rash
53
Side/Adverse effect of Sucralfate GI
Constipation Diarrhea Nausea
54
Side/Adverse effect of Sucralfate Other
Back pain
55
Antidiarrheals Action: act directly on the areas of the CNS that control movement of the GI tract
Lomotil Motofen Camphorated Opium tincture
56
Antidiarrheals Action: works directly on the GI tract lining to slow movement and reduce inflammation
Bismuth subsalicylate (pepto bismol)
57
Antidiarrheals Action: acts on GI tract muscle to decrease peristalsis
Loperamide (Imodium)
58
Antidiarrheals Action: represses the action of a number of GI enzymes
Octreotide (sandostatin)
59
Indications of loperamide hcl. (Imodium)
acute nonspecific diarrhea and of chronic diarrhea associated with inflammatory bowel disease
60
Precautions in administering metoclopramide (Reglan)
should not be used in patients with a history of seizures or those who are prone to developing them. should be used with caution in patients with Parkinson's disease
61
involves selectively targeting and inhibiting proton pumps in order to reduce gastric acid production. This medication has proven to be highly effective in managing various gastrointestinal conditions and providing much-needed relief for patients suffering from these ailments.
omeprazole (Prilosec)
62
Side effects of Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)
gastrointestinal distress. This can manifest as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea,and abdominal pain. allergic reactions
63
Best time to administer sucralfate (Carafate)
one hour before breakfast and two tablets at bedtime.
64
Cause water to be retained in the stool, which causes distention of the bowel and result in defecation
Bulk forming laxatives
65
work by absorbing water and swelling up in order to increase stool volume and softness.
Bulk forming laxatives
66
an effective treatment for constipation
Lactulose
67
Mechanism action of lactulose
Constipation -used to treat hepatic encephalopathy, a condition that occurs when the liver is unable to remove toxins from the blood -helps reduce ammonia levels in the blood by promoting its excretion through the stool.
68
is a laxative that works by increasing the amount of water in the stool, making it easier to pass.
polyethylene glycol (PEG
69
is a natural fiber that absorbs water in the intestines, making the stool softer and easier to pass. It is often found in over-the-counter laxatives and can be taken in powder or capsule form
Psyllium
70
on the other hand, works by increasing the amount of water in the stool, making it softer and easier to pass. It is available as a liquid or tablet
Docusate
71
is a stimulant laxative that works by irritating the lining of the intestines, causing them to contract and move stool along more quickly. It is available as tablets or liquid extracts.
Senna
72
is a saline laxative that draws water into the intestines to soften the stool and stimulate bowel movements.
magnesium citrate
73
works is by reducing hepatic glucose production. It inhibits the enzyme gluconeogenesis, which is responsible for the synthesis of glucose in the liver. By suppressing this process
Metformin
74
is enhancing insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues such as muscle and adipose tissue
Metformin
75
an enzyme called AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), which plays a crucial role in cellular energy homeostasis. Activation of AMPK leads to increased glucose uptake by muscle cells and improved insulin sensitivity.
Metformin
76
affects intestinal absorption of glucose, leading to decreased postprandial blood sugar levels. It delays the absorption of carbohydrates from the gastrointestinal tract, resulting in reduced glucose spikes after meals.
Metformin
77
is the first-line therapy for Type 2 DM. It works by reducing glucose production in the liver and improving insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues.
Metformin
78
stimulate insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells, thereby lowering blood sugar levels. Thiazolidinediones enhance insulin sensitivity in muscle and adipose tissue.
Sulfonylureas
79
increase incretin hormone levels, which stimulate insulin release and inhibit glucagon secretion. These drugs also slow down gastric emptying, leading to decreased appetite and weight loss.
DPP-4 inhibitors
80
generally well-tolerated but can cause gastrointestinal upset
Metformin
81
may cause hypoglycemia and weight gain.
Sulfonylureas
82
have been associated with fluid retention and an increased risk of heart failure.
Thiazolidinediones
83
are generally well-tolerated but may increase the risk of pancreatitis.
DPP-4 inhibitors
84
is to delay the absorption of glucose from the small intestine.
alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
85
Best time to take prednisone
with breakfast so it does not upset your stomach. Taking prednisolone in the morning
86
One of the primary symptoms of Diabetes Insipidus is
polydipsia, or excessive thirst.
87
One of the key actions of thyroid hormones is their ability to
increase basal metabolic rate. They stimulate oxygen consumption and heat production in almost all tissues, thereby promoting energy expenditure. Additionally, they enhance protein synthesis and degradation, regulate carbohydrate metabolism, and influence lipid metabolism.
88
One of the most common side effects of intranasal vasopressin is
nasal discomfort. This can manifest as irritation, dryness, or even nosebleeds. Headache allergic reactions such as hives, difficulty breathing, or swelling of the face, lips, tongue, or throat.
89
is a valuable medication used in managing hyperthyroidism caused by Graves' disease. Its ability to inhibit thyroid hormone synthesis makes it an effective tool in normalizing thyroid function and alleviating associated symptoms.
propylthiouracil (PTU
90
aids in managing conditions related to water balance and bleeding disorders,
Desmopressin acetate
91
been widely studied and proven to be effective in managing these conditions. In patients with diabetes insipidus, it helps regulate water balance in the body by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys. This results in decreased urine output and prevents dehydration.
Desmopressin Acetate (DDAVP)
92
has shown promising results in treating nocturnal enuresis, commonly known as bedwetting, particularly in children. By reducing nighttime urine production, it helps individuals achieve dry nights and improves their quality of sleep.
Desmopressin Acetate (DDAVP)
93
has revolutionized the treatment of erectile dysfunction since its discovery. Its accidental finding during clinical trials for angina paved the way for an effective oral therapy that has improved countless lives. However, it is crucial to use this medication responsibly and seek medical advice before starting or changing any treatment regimen involving sildenafil or any other medications.
Sildenafil (Viagra)
94
Foods and drinks to avoid for patient taking Glipizide (Glucotrol)
sugary foods and beverages. high-carbohydrate meals or snacks
95
is an intermediate-acting insulin that provides a longer duration of action compared to regular insulin
Humulin NPH insulin
96
work by blocking the action of aldosterone in the distal tubules of the kidneys. They are indicated for patients with hypertension or heart failure who are at risk for hypokalemia
Potassium-sparing diuretics
97
act on the ascending loop of Henle to inhibit sodium reabsorption. They are used to treat edema associated with heart failure or renal disease.
Loop diuretics
98
inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubules. They are prescribed for hypertension or edema caused by heart failure or renal disease.
Thiazide diuretics
99
increase osmotic pressure in the glomerular filtrate to promote water excretion. They are used to reduce intracranial pressure or intraocular pressure in conditions such as cerebral edema or glaucoma.
Osmotic diuretics
100
may increase the risk of losing sodium and water.
Potassium-sparing diuretics
101
can cause significant losses of potassium, calcium, magnesium, and sodium.
Loop diuretics
102
may result in the loss of potassium, magnesium, and sodium.
Thiazide diuretics
103
can lead to the loss of water and electrolytes.
Osmotic diuretics
104
by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the distal convoluted tubules of the kidneys. This leads to increased excretion of water and electrolytes in urine.
Thiazide diuretics
105
examples of loop diuretics.
Furosemide and bumetanide
106
Potassium-sparing diuretics such as
spironolactone and amiloride
107
osmotic diuretics like
mannitol
108
gets released by postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system, which binds to and activates adrenergic receptors.
Norepinephrine
109
found in both the central nervous system (CNS) and peripheral nervous system (PNS).
Nicotinic receptors
110
are responsible for mediating the effects of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter involved in muscle movement and cognitive function.
Nicotinic receptors
111
receptors are only found in PNS
muscarinic
112
receptors regulate various bodily functions such as heart rate, smooth muscle contraction, glandular secretions, and cognitive processes.
Muscarinic
113
receptors respond to norepinephrine and epinephrine (adrenaline). These receptors are mainly located on smooth muscles lining blood vessels. Activation of alpha-adrenergic receptors causes vasoconstriction leading to increased blood pressure.
Alpha-adrenergic
114
receptors also respond to norepinephrine and epinephrine but have different effects compared to alpha-adrenergic receptors.
beta-adrenergic receptors
115
are a class of drugs commonly used in the treatment of Alzheimer's disease (AD).
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChEIs)
116
is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by the progressive decline of cognitive function, memory loss, and behavioral changes
Alzheimer's disease
117
ability to inhibit the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, which breaks down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
118
helps improve focus, reduce impulsivity, and control hyperactivity
Methylphenidate
119
methylphenidate, which is sold under brand names like
Ritalin and Concerta.
120
These drugs also enhance attention span, decrease restlessness, and promote self-control.
amphetamine-based medications like Adderall and Vyvanse
121
The most commonly prescribed CNS stimulant for narcolepsy is
modafinil
122
works by increasing dopamine levels in the brain, which helps to promote wakefulness
Modafinil
123
has been shown to improve excessive daytime sleepiness and reduce the frequency of cataplexy episodes in individuals with narcolepsy. It is generally well-tolerated with minimal side effects such as headache, nausea, or insomnia.
Modafinil
124
achieve this by entering nerve terminals through specific transporters, where they displace stored neurotransmitters from vesicles into the cytoplasm. This leads to an increased release of dopamine and norepinephrine into the synaptic cleft.
Amphetamines
125
blocks the reuptake transporters responsible for removing dopamine and norepinephrine from the synapse. By inhibiting reuptake, more neurotransmitters remain in the synaptic cleft for a longer duration, thereby enhancing their effects on target neurons.
Methylphenidate
126
CNS stimulant is commonly used to treat
Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
127
is to alleviate the symptoms associated with ADHD. It helps individuals with ADHD to improve their focus, reduce impulsivity, and control hyperactivity. By enhancing neurotransmitter activity in specific areas of the brain responsible for attention and impulse control, methylphenidate enables individuals with ADHD to better manage their symptoms and function more effectively in various settings such as school or work.
methylphenidate (ritalin)
128
are widely prescribed due to their effectiveness in reducing anxiety symptoms. They act quickly, providing immediate relief from symptoms such as excessive worry, restlessness, and irritability
- Benzodiazepines, such as diazepam and alprazolam
129
class of drugs that act as central nervous system depressants, primarily used for their sedative and hypnotic effects. The primary mechanism of action of barbiturates involves enhancing the inhibitory effects of the neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain.
Barbiturates
130
is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that reduces neuronal activity by binding to specific receptors on nerve cells
GABA
131
have been widely used for many years due to their rapid onset and short duration of action. They work by enhancing the inhibitory effects of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), a neurotransmitter that reduces neuronal activity in the brain. However, their use has declined in recent years due to potential side effects and the availability of safer alternatives.
Barbiturates, such as thiopental sodium
132
commonly used as anesthetics due to their sedative and amnesic properties. They work by binding to specific receptors in the brain that enhance GABA's inhibitory effects.
Benzodiazepines like midazolam
133
are potent analgesics that can be used alone or in combination with other anesthetics. They act on opioid receptors in the central nervous system to produce pain relief and sedation
Opioids, such as fentanyl and morphine
134
advanced agents such as nitrous oxide and chloroform.
Anesthetic agent
135
commonly used today due to their rapid onset and quick recovery times. These agents are delivered through a mask or endotracheal tube, allowing for precise control over the depth of anesthesia.
Inhalational anesthetics like sevoflurane and desflurane
136
are also widely used in surgical settings. These drugs act quickly and provide profound sedation, making them ideal for induction of anesthesia.
Injectable anesthetics like propofol and thiopental
137
often associated with pleasure and reward. It is involved in motivation, learning, and movement control
Dopamine
138
acts as both a neurotransmitter and a hormone. It helps regulate attention, alertness, and mood.
Norepinephrine
139
known as the "feel-good" neurotransmitter. It plays a vital role in regulating mood, sleep patterns, appetite, and social behavior.
Serotonin
140
is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that helps calm down brain activity by reducing neuronal excitability. It plays a crucial role in promoting relaxation and reducing anxiety.
GABA
141
collects blood draining from the stomach, s. Intestine,and most of the large intestine
Hepatic portal system
142
hepatic impairment is common; usually transientof asymptomatic; can be severe, permanent, or fatal
Drug-induced adverse effects:
143
Antiemetics
dopamine antagonist (metoclopramide), anticholinergic (dimenhydrinate and/or diphenhydramine)
144
Anticholinergics
dimenhydrinate
145
Laxatives
stimulant (bisacodyl), saline (magnesium hydroxide), lubricant (mineraloil), stool softeners (docusate sodium), bulk-forming (psyllium)
146
reflux of gastric acid into esophagus with inflammation, corrosion & scarring of esophageal wall
Gastro-Esophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)
147
ulceration in wall of stomach or duodenum
Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD)
148
Action – buffers gastric acid from pH 1 - 2 to pH 3 – 4 → ↓ damage to tissues
Antacids
149
Uses – symptomatic relief by reducing gastric acidity for treatment of GERD,PUD, gastritis, hiatus hernia
Antacids
150
Adverse Effects – constipation (aluminum & calcium based), diarrhea(magnesium based)
Antacids
151
Medications Examples Antacids
aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel, Maalox, Mylanta) magnesium hydroxide/oxide (Milk of Magnesia) calcium carbonate (Tums)
152
Action – ↓s hydrochloric acid secretion
Histamine (H2) Receptor Antagonists
153
Uses – GERD, PUD, stress induced ulcers
Histamine (H2) Receptor Antagonists
154
Adverse Effects – diarrhea, constipation
Histamine (H2) Receptor Antagonists
155
Meds Sample Histamine (H2) Receptor Antagonist
ranitidine (Zantac)
156
Why is cimetidine no longer a drug of choice in GERD & PUD?
Nicotiana species herbs (tobacco) affect the acid blocking effects of ranitidine.
157
Action – inhibits gastric acid & pepsin secretion
GI Prostaglandins
158
Uses – prevention & treatment of gastric ulcers caused by NSAIDs and salicylates
GI Prostaglandins
159
a reflex originating in the medulla (stimulated by cholinergic & dopaminergic fibres)
Antiemetics
160
Action – block dopamine receptors along vomit center pathways (but also at other CNS sites)
Dopamine Antagonist Antiemetics
161
Uses – antineoplastic therapy, post-op
Dopamine Antagonist Antiemetics
162
Adverse Effects – extrapyramidal effects in larger doses (dystonia, parkinsonism,tardive dyskinesia)
Dopamine Antagonist Antiemetics
163
Dopamine Antagonist Antiemetics Meds example
metoclopramide (Maxeran), prochlorperazine (Stemetil)
164
decrease of ADH production, diuresis, something is not happening in thebrain
Neurogenic DI
165
ephrons and renal system are not functioning properly so there is an increase in urine up to 15L per day
Nephrogenic DI
166
Deficiency in glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids
Addison’s disease
167
improves beta cell responsiveness and enhances insulin secretionin proper amounts
Incretin mimetic
168
Used to treat DMT2 Action: iNcrease insulin secretion, decrease glucagon secretion to reduce glucose production
Incretin Modifier
169
Action: stimulate beta cells to secrete insulin
Glipizide,glyburide
170
Action: decrease hepatic glucose production in liverstored from glycogen
Nonsulfonylureas