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Exam 3 Intro Pharm Airway > Intro pharmacology > Flashcards

Intro pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the five sources of drugs?

A

Plants, animals, minerals, microorganisms, chemical substances

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2
Q

Which drugs originate from plants?

A

Digoxin, Atropine, Codeine, Morphine

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3
Q

What is the function of atropine?

A

Blocks parasympathetic - heart rate goes up

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4
Q

What drugs derive from cows?

A

Collagen, Fibrogen

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5
Q

What drugs derive from pigs?

A

Heparin and insulin

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6
Q

What drug derives from pregnant mares?

A

Estrogen

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7
Q

Honeys from bees are used to treat?

A

Burns

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8
Q

Which drugs derive from minerals?

A

Magnesium, potassium, lithium

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9
Q

Which drugs derive from microorganisms?

A

Penicillin, strep, immunizations

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10
Q

Which drug is manufactured in a laboratory?

A

Lidocaine, versed, amphetamine BENZOS

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11
Q

What is the chemical drug name?

A

Long name you cant pronounce

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12
Q

What is the generic name of a drug?

A

Simplified chemical name LOWERCASED

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13
Q

What is the trade name of a drug?

A

Brand name FIRST LETTER IS CAPITAL

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14
Q

What is the official book for drug names?

A

United States Pharmacopedia

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15
Q

Which book documents look,composition, and names of drugs?

A

United States Pharmacopedia

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16
Q

Which book documents how drugs are appropriately prescribed?

A

Physicians Desk Reference

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17
Q

When was the pure food and drug act passed?

A

1906

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18
Q

What did the pure food and drug act prevent?

A

Mislabeling and adulterated drugs

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19
Q

When was the Shirley amendment was passed in which year?

A

1912

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20
Q

What did the shirley amendment prohibit?

A

False claims in advertising or labeling

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21
Q

When was the harrison narcotic act passed?

A

1914

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22
Q

What did the harrison narcotic act prohibit?

A

Opiates and cocaine

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23
Q

When was the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetics Act passed?

A

1938

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24
Q

What did the federal, food, drug, and cosmetics act create and what did it require?

A

FDANew drugs be clinically tested and proven safe

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25
Q

What is the role of the FDA?

A

Tracks drug orders, manufacturings, harmful side effects

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26
Q

When was the durham-humphrey amendment passed?

A

1952

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27
Q

What was the purpose of the durham-humphrey amendment?

A

Divided drugs into two categories: Legend drugs and over-the-counter

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28
Q

When was the Kefauver Harris Amendment passed?

A

1962

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29
Q

When was the controlled substance act passed?

A

1970

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30
Q

What was the purpose of the Controlled Substance Act?

A

Classified drugs into 5 schedules based on addictive potential

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31
Q

Schedule 1 drugs are?

A

Illegal Heroin, Marijuana, PCP, LSD

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32
Q

Schedule II drugs are?

A

Narcotics Morphine, Demerol, Oxycotin, Vicodin

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33
Q

Schedule III drugs are?

A

Narcotics are dilutedNorco

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34
Q

Schedule IV are?

A

BarbituratesBENZOS Anti-depressants/anxietyHypnoticsMuscle Relaxants

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35
Q

Schedule V drugs are?

A

Phenergan Cough medications with small amounts of codeine

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36
Q

What year was the DEA created?

A

1973

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37
Q

What is the role of the DEA?

A

Drug enforcement organization for US

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38
Q

What should a drug do?

A

Treats, prevents, or diagnoses a disease

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39
Q

Drug action is?

A

How drugs work

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40
Q

Albuterol works on?

A

Beta 2

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41
Q

What are therapeutic effects?

A

What drug will result in.

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42
Q

What are the therapeutic effects of albuterol?

A

Bronchodilation resulting in larger airway passage

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43
Q

What is label indication?

A

First studies for drug

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44
Q

What is off-label indication?

A

Drug use for reason other than first studies for drug

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45
Q

Absolute contraindication is?

A

Drug should NEVER be used if….

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46
Q

Relative contraindication is?

A

Drug shouldnt be used, but can be used if,…..

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47
Q

What is the absolute contraindication for nitro?

A

90mmHg

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48
Q

What is the relative contraindication for nitro?

A

100mmHg

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49
Q

Pharmacokenetics is?

A

How the body handles a drug over a period of time

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50
Q

What are the 4 phases of pharmacokenetics?

A

Absorption, Distribution, Biotransformation, Excretion

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51
Q

What are the two main variables affecting drug absorption?

A

Blood flow and pH

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52
Q

What are the routes for drug administration?

A

Topical, Enteral, Pulmonary, Parenteral

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53
Q

____ is absorption which occurs through GI tract.

A

Enteral

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54
Q

____ is absorption that occurs outside of GI tract.

A

Parenteral

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55
Q

What is the least reliable and slowest absorption route?

A

Enteral

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56
Q

Where are enteral administered?

A

Oral, rectal, nasogastric

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57
Q

Sublingual drug administration is considered what type of route?

A

Enteral

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58
Q

Time needed for gastric absorption depends on?

A

pH and gastric motility

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59
Q

Most drug absorption occurs in the?

A

Upper portion of small intestine

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60
Q

Rectal absorption requires what type of dose?

A

Double

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61
Q

What is the role of mesentery blood vessels?

A

Absorption of nutrients and supply of blood to intestines

62
Q

The _____ is created from retreating mesentery blood vessels.

A

Portal system

63
Q

Everything that is absorbed by the intestines is sent through the portal system to?

A

Liver for filtration

64
Q

Why is rectal absorption doubled?

A

First pass

65
Q

What is the most reliable way to administer a drug?

A

IV

66
Q

What are the parenteral administration routes for drugs?

A

Subcutaneous, Intramuscular, IV, Intradermal, Intraosseous, Endotracheal

67
Q

Subcutaneous injections should be less than?

A

1ml

68
Q

An injection that occurs at a 45 degree angle is?

A

Subcutaneous injection

69
Q

Intramuscular injection amount is limited to?

A

2-5ml

70
Q

An IM injection in deltoid is limited to what amount?

A

2ml

71
Q

An IM injection for glut max is what amount?

A

5ml

72
Q

Which absorption occurs faster than SC injection?

A

IM

73
Q

What is the only drug that is pushed fast?

A

Adenosine

74
Q

All drugs should be pushed?

A

Slow

75
Q

What type of injection takes place below epidermis?

A

Intradermal

76
Q

What type of injection is primarily used for allergy testing and local anesthetics?

A

Intradermal

77
Q

IOs should only be done if an IV cannot be started for ____ seconds.

A

90

78
Q

Which type of drug administration results in systemic absorption via lung capillaries?

A

Endotracheal

79
Q

What two types of drug administration should dose be doubled?

A

Endotracheal and rectal

80
Q

What 4 drugs can be given via endotracheally?

A

LidocaineEpiAtropineNarcan LEAN

81
Q

Pulmonary drug absorption is rapid due to?

A

Large surface area and blood rich alveolar capillaries

82
Q

Racemic epi is used to treat which part of the airway?

A

Upper

83
Q

______ is a purified form of albuterol.

A

Xopenex

84
Q

What are the positive characteristics of xopenex?

A

Lasts longer and it is able to be given to heart patients

85
Q

Atrovent is a _____ blocker.

A

Parasympathetic

86
Q

Albuterol and atrovent are mixed for?

A

Major bronchodilation and parasympathetic blocking

87
Q

Racemic Epi is only given to?

A

Children

88
Q

What drug is given for cyanide poisoning?

A

Amyl Nitrite

89
Q

Transcutaneous drug administration is?

A

Meant to be absorbed through the skin (Nitro/fentanyl patches)

90
Q

Drug distribution depends on?

A

Capillary permeability to drug, cardiac output and regional blood flow

91
Q

What are the two types of drug reservoirs?

A

Plasma protein binding - ALBUMIN Tissue binding

92
Q

Tissue binding drug reservoirs are located in?

A

Fat tissue and bones

93
Q

What drug turns teeth yellow when stored?

A

Tetracycline

94
Q

________ drugs are what are in circulation.

A

Free

95
Q

The blood-brain barrier only permits what types of drugs?

A

Lipid-soluble (EX general anesthetics and barbituates)

96
Q

What 4 substances are allowed through the blood-brain barrier?

A

Anesthetics, Barbituates, Oxygen, Glucose

97
Q

What 2 substances are not allowed to pass through the blood-brain barrier?

A

Antibiotics and bacteria

98
Q

The ___ barrier is not permeable to many lipid-insoluble drugs.

A

Placental

99
Q

What 4 drugs are able to pass through placental barrier?

A

Steroids, narcotics, anesthetics, some antibiotics

100
Q

Biotransformation is?

A

A process by which a drugs is chemically converted to a metabolite

101
Q

What is the purpose of biotransformation?

A

To detoxify a drug and render it less active

102
Q

The _____ is the primary site of drug metabolism.

A

Liver

103
Q

What is the main organ of execretion?

A

Kidneys

104
Q

Clearance is?

A

Complete removal of a drug by the kidney

105
Q

When is hemodialysis not effective?

A

For highly tissue or protein bound drugs

106
Q

Breast milk is?

A

Acidic

107
Q

What drugs pass through breast milk?

A

Prozac, Demoral, Cardizem, ACE inhibitors (PRILLS)

108
Q

What is the main factor that influences actions of drugs?

A

Age

109
Q

What is pharmacodynamics?

A

Study of what drug does to body

110
Q

Agonists go?

A

With

111
Q

Antagonists go?

A

Against

112
Q

The ______ is how long drug lasts in system.

A

Therapeutic range

113
Q

What is the half-life of a drug?

A

The time needed to metabolize or eliminate half of the total amount of drug in the body

114
Q

A drug is considered gone from the body after _____ half-lives have passed.

A

5

115
Q

Half-life is affected by?

A

Renal and hepatic function

116
Q

What is adenosines half-life?

A

1-3 seconds

117
Q

What is therapeutic index?

A

Measures relative safety of a drug

118
Q

____ is two or more agents working together that all benefit.

A

Synergism

119
Q

____ is one drug making another drug more effective.

A

Potentiation

120
Q

What is an example of potentiation?

A

Morphine and phenergan

121
Q

What is an example of synergism?

A

Chemo drugs

122
Q

Drug potency can be affected by?

A

Temperature, light, moisture, shelf life

123
Q

What is the most accurate way to determine drug dose?

A

Weight

124
Q

Lytic is a?

A

Angonist

125
Q

Mimetic is a?

A

Stimulator

126
Q

What are the three types of anesthetics?

A

General, regional, local

127
Q

Aspirin is what type of agent?

A

Anti-platelet

128
Q

What type of drug agents are used to dissolve clots after formation?

A

Fibrinolytic Agents

129
Q

What are some examples of NSAIDS?

A

Aspirin, ibuprofen, naproxen

130
Q

_____ is a pain reliever at site of pain.

A

Ibuprofen

131
Q

Atropine is widely used to block _____ receptors.

A

Muscarinic

132
Q

When is alpha 1 antagonism indicated?

A

For controlling hypertension

133
Q

What occurs in Beta 1 stimulation?

A

Increase in heart rate, contractility, and conduction

134
Q

What are the primary indications of beta 1 stimulation?

A

Cardiac arrest and hypotension resulting from inadequate pumping

135
Q

What are the chief effects of beta 1 agonists?

A

Tachycardia, Dysrhythmias, chest pain from increasing workload

136
Q

What is the most common use of beta 1 antagonists?

A

Controlling blood pressure

137
Q

How do beta 1 antagonists work?

A

They decrease heart rate and contractility and decrease the rate of impulse generation at the SA node while slowing conductivity through AV node

138
Q

What does beta 2 stimulation cause?

A

Glycogenesis

139
Q

Which drugs are considered catecholamines?

A

Levophed, Epi, and dopamine

140
Q

What is the function of propranolol?

A

Blocks both beta 1 and beta 2 receptors

141
Q

What is propranolol used to treat?

A

Tachycardia, hypertension, and angina

142
Q

What is a nonselective antagonist?

A

A substance which blocks both beta 1 and 2 receptors

143
Q

What is affected by both Muscarinic receptors or the parasympathetic system and beta 1 receptors of the sympathetic system?

A

Heart rate

144
Q

What classification of drug decreases contractility and directly decreases cardiac output?

A

Selective Beta adrenergic antagonists

145
Q

What classification of drug represses renin release from the kidneys inhibiting vasoconstriction activated by the renin angiotenion-aldosterone system?

A

Selective Beta Adrenergic Antagonsist

146
Q

How do ACE inhibitors work?

A

By decreasing he amount of circulating angiotension II, peripheral vascular resistance can be decreased, which leads to a decrease in blood pressure

147
Q

How do calcium channel blockers work?

A

These prevent contraction of arteries and therefore dilates vessels which in turn, decreases peripheral vascular resistance and blood pressure decreases as a result of lower afterload

148
Q

Atropine works on what part of the heart?

A

Atria - blocks vegus nerve

149
Q

Dopamine works on what part of the heart?

A

Ventricles

150
Q

Medications best suited for treating bronchoconstriction generally stimulate?

A

Beta 2 receptor sites

151
Q

The maximum volume of medication to be delivered into the deltoid muscle is?

A

2 ml

152
Q

What solution if appropriate for the patient needing vasular volume replacement in the prehospital setting?

A

0.9% sodium chloride solution

Exam 3 Intro Pharm Airway (4 decks)

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