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zVet272 > Intrasemester Exam > Flashcards

Intrasemester Exam Flashcards

1
Q 
1). Histone proteins pack DNA into a repeating array of DNA-protein particles called:
A. heterochromatin
B. nucleosomes
C. euchromatin.
D. nucleoli
E. centromeres
A

B

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2
Q

The presence of a ___ with a free 3’-OH group is essential for DNA polymerase to synthesize DNA
since no known DNA polymerase is able to initiate DNA synthesis.
A. origin of replication
B. restriction endonuclease
C. palindrome
D. primer
E. promoter

A

D

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3
Q

What is the role of ribosomes in protein synthesis?
A. they provide a source of amino acids
B. they provide a site for transfer RNAs to link to messenger RNAs
C. they translate the basic DNA code using transfer RNA
D. they carry the proteins to their site of action
E. they have no function in protein synthesis

A

B

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4
Q

Quantitative PCR (qPCR) is similar to PCR except that:
A. It not only detects but quantitates the amount of DNA present
B. It requires a fluorescent reporter
C. Signal is detected in the plateau phase
D. A and B are correct
E. A and C are correct

A

D

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5
Q 
The rate of migration of DNA within an agarose gel in the gel electrophoresis technique is
primarily based on what factor?
A. The size of the DNA fragments
B. The number of DNA fragments
C. The size of the wells of the gel
D. The negative charge of the DNA
E. The volume of the DNA sample loaded
A

A

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6
Q

The tertiary structure of a protein refers to the:
A. Sequence of amino acids
B. Presence of alpha-helices or beta-sheets
C. Unique three dimensional folding of the molecule.
D. Interactions of a protein with a nucleic acid
E. All of the above

A

C

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7
Q

Which statement is true concerning the structure of proteins?
A. The primary structure is the sequence of amino acids.
B. Alpha helices and beta sheets are examples of secondary structure.
C. Side chains (R-groups) of amino acids can be hydrophilic or hydrophobic.
D. Proteins made of two or more polypeptide chains have quaternary structure.
E. All statements are true

A

E

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8
Q

The Quaternary structure of a protein is:
A. its structure resulting from interactions between amino acid side chains.
B. its amino acid sequence
C. its structure resulting from hydrogen bonds between the C=O and N-H groups of different
amino acids.
D. its structure resulting from the union of more than one protein molecule, called subunit
proteins.
E. Interactions of a protein with a nucleic acid

A

D

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9
Q 
Two amino acid molecules combine to form a dipeptide molecule. The reaction that occurs is:
A. an oxidation reaction
B. a condensation reaction
C. a hydrolysis reaction
D. an esterification reaction
E. a neutralisation reaction
A

B

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10
Q

What is the role of molecular chaperones?
A) to facilitate binding of ribosomes to mRNA
B) to degrade newly synthesised polypeptides that contain inaccurate sequences
C) to aid a newly synthesised polypeptide in folding to its proper shape
D) to stop proteins folding until it is in its final location
E) C and D are correct

A

E

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11
Q

Mad cow disease is caused by:
A Accumulation of a mis-folded protein called App
B Accumulation of a mis-folded protein called PPP
C Conversion of normal proteins to abnormally folded proteins by a prion
D Accumulation of a mis-folded protein called CSFE
E Conversion of normal proteins to abnormally folded proteins by a rouge protein called ABeta

A

C

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12
Q

Enzymes:
A. are composed primarily of polypeptides, which are polymers of amino acids.
B. can bind prosthetic groups such as metal ions that participate in enzyme reactions.
C. have defined structures.
D. bind their substrates at active sites.
E. all statements are true.

A

E

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13
Q

Activation energy is
A. energy that must be added to get a reaction started, which is recovered as the reaction proceeds
B. difference in energy between reactants and products
C. energy that is lost as heat
D. free energy
E. equal to the entropy times the absolute temperature

A

A

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14
Q

Which of the following statements about reaction rate is NOT true?
A. Reaction rate is the speed at which the reaction proceeds toward equilibrium.
B. Reaction rate is governed by the energy barrier between reactions and products.
C. Enzymes can accelerate the rate of a reaction.
D. Reaction rates are not sensitive to temperature.
E. None of these.

A

D

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15
Q

Which statement about enzyme catalysed reactions is NOT true?
A. enzymes form complexes with their substrates.
B. enzymes lower the activation energy for chemical reactions.
C. enzymes change the K eq for chemical reactions.
3
D. many enzymes change shape slightly when substrate binds.
E. reactions occur at the “active site” of enzymes, where a precise 3D orientation of amino acids is
an important feature of catalysis.

A

C

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16
Q

A frame shift mutation has more serious consequences than a point mutation because a frame shift
mutation:
A. cannot ever be transcribed onto an mRNA molecule
B. prevents uracil from being used in the mRNA molecule
C. affects all codons
D. causes all of the codons after it to be different
E. prevents the conversion of mRNA to protein

A

d

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17
Q 
The bases of RNA are the same as those of DNA with the exception that RNA contains
A. cysteine instead of cytosine.
B. uracil instead of thymine.
C. cytosine instead of guanine.
D. uracil instead of adenine.
E. adenine instead of uracil
A

b

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18
Q 
A \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ chromosomal mutation occurs when a part of a chromosome breaks attaches to
another chromosome
A. deletion
B. insertion
C. inversion
D. translocation
E. transversion
A

D

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19
Q 
Which of the following illustrates a single point mutation on a segment of DNA which reads
TACACGGTG?
A. TACACGTGTG
B. TACACGCTG
C. GTGGCACAT
D. TTCACGGAG
E. TACACGCTC
A

B

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20
Q

A nucleotide consists of
A. between one and three phospholipids and protein
B. glucose, fructose, and sucrose
C. a phosphate group, a five-carbon sugar, and a nitrogenous base
D. two molecules of ATP and one molecule of ADP
E. a phosphate group, a five-carbon sugar, and 4 nitrogenous bases

A

C

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21
Q 
If a strand of DNA had bases in the following order – ATCCGTC, what would be the order of the
bases in the other strand of DNA?
A. ATCCGTC.
B. TAGGCAG.
C. GAGGCAT.
D. GCTTACT.
E. TAGGGAG
A

B

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22
Q 
Which of the following bases usually pairs with adenine in RNA?
A. Thymine.
B. Guanine.
C. Uracil.
D. Cytosine.
4
E. Inosine
A

C

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23
Q 
If you were to stretch a DNA molecule to its full length, about how long would it be?
A. about 0.2 μm
B. about 0.2 nm
C. about 2 centimenters
D. about 2 meters
E. about 2 kilometers
A

D

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24
Q 
DNA is wrapped around a cluster of proteins called
A. phospholipids
B. hemoglobin
C. glycoproteins
D. histones
E. Iron-sulfur clusters
A

D

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25
Q

Why is DNA replication important?
A. Replication forms the characteristic structure of a strand of DNA.
B. The process changes messenger RNA into transfer RNA.
C. A cell’s DNA must be duplicated so that each new cell in the next generation of cells receives a
complete copy of the parent cell’s DNA.
D. Replication is the process that results in the formation of a protein.
E. The process changes messenger RNA into ribosomal RNA

A

C

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26
Q 
DNA replicates through a process called
A. dispersive replication
B. semidisperive replication
C. conservative replication
D. semiconservative replication
E. progressive replication
A

D

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27
Q 
When DNA replication occurs, the enzyme which separates the two sides of the helix is called
A. DNA polymerase
B. DNA amylase
C. DNA ligase
D. DNA helicase
E. RNA primase
A

D

28
Q 
The enzyme which bonds new nitrogenous bases to those existing on the original DNA strand is
called
A. DNA polymerase
B. DNA amylase
C. DNA ligase
D. DNA helicase
E. RNA primase
A

A

29
Q

Okazaki fragments are formed because
A. DNA polymerase can only create a new strand of DNA from the 5’ end to the 3’ end
B. DNA polymerase can only create a new strand of DNA from the 3’ end to the 5’ end
C. newly formed DNA tends to break apart easily into fragments
D. DNA helicase sometimes inadvertently breaks the DNA
E. DNA can only be replicated in short segments

A

A

30
Q 
Translation is the process by which proteins are generated from an mRNA sequence by attaching
amino acids to one another. Which specific type of RNA includes the anti-codon loop and is
5
bound to a specific amino acid?
A. tRNA
B. mRNA
C. rRNA
D. pRNA
E. snRNA
A

A

31
Q

A codon is defined as a
A. triplet of bases on the mRNA which codes for a single amino acid
B. triplet of bases on the tRNA which codes for a single amino acid
C. type of protein which affects the production of other proteins
D. triplet of bases on the DNA which codes for a single amino acid
E. structure which assists in the production of proteins

A

A

32
Q 
Translation is carried out on which small cellular structure or organelle?
A. Vacuole
B. Cell membrane
C. Ribosome
D. Lysosome
E. Golgi apparatus
A

C

33
Q 
What type of bond covalently links amino acids together in order to form a protein or
polypeptide?
A. Van Der Waals forces
B. Hydrogen bond
C. Peptide bond
D. Glycosidic bond
E. Ionic bond
A

C

34
Q 
The frequency of incorrect nucleotide incorporation into RNA is about one error for every \_\_\_
nucleotides polymerised.
A. 500
B. 1,000
C. 10,000
D. 100,000
E. 1,000,000
A

C

35
Q

The sequence of bases located prior to the gene (along the DNA strand), to which a complex of
RNA polymerase attaches itself to initiate transcription is called:
A. exon
B. terminator
C. enhancer
D. promotor
E. silencer

A

D

36
Q

How is a eukaryotic primary RNA transcript processed before being released from the nucleus as
mRNA?
A. Generation of a “cap” at the 5’ end
B. Splicing of introns from the primary transcript
C. Addition of a poly-A tail at the 3’ end
D. All of these
E. None of the above

A

D

37
Q

Pituitary Dwarfism is caused by
A. mutations in the Pit 1 promoter
6
B. mutations in the Pit 1 TF which prevent it from binding the promoter
C. mutations in the Pit 1 TF which prevent it from binding the RNA polymerase
D. mutations in the GH gene which prevent Pit 1 from binding to the promoter
E. mutations in the GH gene which prevent Pit 1 from binding to the RNA polymerase

A

B

38
Q 
Haemphilia B is caused by
A. mutations in the factor X gene
B. mutations in the factor X promoter
C. mutations in the factor IX promoter
D. mutations in the factor IX TF
E. mutations in the factor IX gene
A

C

39
Q 
T-cell Leukemia is caused by
A. Overexpression of mad TF
B. Overexpression of max TF
C. Overexpression of myc TF
D. Overexpression of mad:max dimers
E. Underexpression of mad TF
A

C

40
Q

Androgen insensitivity syndrome is caused by
A. Mutations in testosterone gene that make it unable to bind to its receptor
B. Mutations in the testosterone receptor that make testosterone unable to bind to it
C. Mutations in the testosterone promoter
D. Mutations in the hormone response elements
E. Mutations in the testosterone receptor that make the testosterone promoter unable to bind to it

A

B

41
Q

A transcription factor is:
A. a protein that binds to DNA and regulates the synthesis of mRNA from a specific gene.
B. an activated gene.
C. a protein that binds to silencers and represses them allowing transcription to proceed.
D. activated mRNA.
E. DNA sequence downstream of the gene that increases transcription.

A

A

42
Q

DNA binding by proteins with the helix-turn-helix (HTH) motif does not involve:
A. interactions with base pairs in the major groove of DNA.
B. interactions with the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA.
C. hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, and van der Waals contacts.
D. Interaction via peptide bonds.
E. Binding at the major grove.

A

D

43
Q

A promoter is:
A. A protein that binds to a gene and switches it on
B. A DNA sequence that binds RNA polymerase and transcription factors and directs and defines
where transcription is to commence
C. A DNA sequence that binds RNA polymerase and transcription factors and increases the level
of transcription
D. A DNA sequence that binds RNA polymerase and transcription factors and decreases the level
of transcription
E. A DNA sequence that binds DNA polymerase and transcription factors and decreases the level
of translation

A

B

44
Q

Together with proteins, rRNA
A. provides a site for polypeptide synthesis
B. transports amino acids to the ribosome
C. travels to the ribosome to direct the assembly of polypeptides
7
D. transcribes DNA
E. translates DNA

A

A

45
Q

The function of tRNA is to
A. provide a site for polypeptide synthesis
B. transport amino acids to the ribosome
C. travel to the ribosome to direct the assembly of polypeptides
D. transcribe DNA
E. translate DNA

A

B

46
Q 
As polypeptides are formed at the ribosome, elongation continues until \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is
encountered.
A. a release factor
B. an intron
C. a stop codon
D. a start codon
E. an anticodon
A

C

47
Q

During translation, a mRNA sequence has a codon with the triplet sequence AUC.
Which anticodon sequence in a tRNA molecule would base pair with this codon?
A. AUC
B. TAG
C. GAT
D. GAU
E. UAG

A

E

48
Q

What is the function of PCR in genetic engineering?
A. separate fragments of DNA by their length and electrical charges
B. cut DNA into many fragments
C. make millions of copies of a specific segment of DNA
D. link together newly joined fragments of DNA
E. carry DNA into a new cell

A

C

49
Q 
The number of amplified pieces of DNA equals \_\_\_\_ after five cycles of PCR.
A. 5
B 10
C. 25
D. 32
E. 50
A

D

50
Q

Which of the following best describes the mixture placed in a PCR vial at the beginning of the
PCR procedure?
A. the original DNA sample, DNA polymerase, fluorescent tagged bases and buffer solution
B. the original DNA sample, endonucleases, the four nucleotide bases and primers
C. the original DNA sample, DNA polymerase, the four nucleotide bases and primers
D. the original DNA sample, DNA polymerase, adenine, thymine, cytosine and guanine
E. the original DNA sample, DNA polymerase, adenine, thymine, cytosine and guanine and
dideoxy nucleotides

A

C

51
Q 
Which of the following is NOT secreted by the anterior pituitary?
A. Growth hormone (GH).
B. Adenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH).
C. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
D. Oxytocin
E. Thyroid stimulating Hormone (TSH)
A

D

52
Q 
Over production of growth hormone can result in:
A. Cretinism.
B. Acromegaly.
C. Cushing's Disease.
D. Addison's Disease.
E. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
A

B

53
Q

A distinctive feature of a person suffering from hyperthyroidism is:
A. Protrusion of the eyeballs.
B. Abnormal growth of the long bones of the skeleton
C. Increased fat deposits on the face.
D. Onset of diabetes insipidus.
E. Enlarged hands

A

A

54
Q 
Complete the following
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is considered the first messenger, while \_\_\_\_ is called the second messenger.
A. Insulin, glucagon
B. ACTH, cortisol
C. TSH, T3
D. Glucose, insulin
E. Peptide hormone, cAMP
A

E

55
Q 
Excess cortisol secretion can result in:
A. Cushing's Syndrome.
B. Addison's Disease.
C. Acromegaly.
D. Cretinism
E. Abnormal growth of the long bones of the skeleton
A

A

56
Q

Which does Not occur in a cell stimulated by a steroid hormone?
A. The steroid hormone enters the cell by crossing the plasma membrane.
B. The hormone binds to a receptor molecule in the cytoplasm.
C. The second messenger cyclic AMP is stimulated by the hormone receptor complex.
D. The hormone receptor complex binds the DNA and activates certain genes.
E. DNA is transcribed, mRNA is translated, and the result is protein synthesis.

A

C

57
Q 
Steroid hormones are made from precursor molecules of:
A. cholesterol
B. a single modified amino acid
C. amino acid chains
D. fatty acids
E. peptides
A

A

58
Q 
Why is the pituitary gland once called the "master gland?"
A. It was discovered by Philip Master
B. It is the biggest gland in the body
C. Its hormones control other glands
D. It allows child birth to happen
E. It controls the hypothalamus
A

C

59
Q 
Which 2 hormones act antagonistically?
A. Cortisol and adrenalin
B. Glucagon and insulin
C. Thyroxine and prolactin
D. Calcitonin and thymosin
E. Glucagon and cortisol
A

B

60
Q 
The two hormones released by the posterior pituitary are
A. prolactin and oxytocin
B. prolactin and growth hormone
C. LH and testosterone
D. antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin
E. growth hormone and LH
A

D

61
Q 
Which gland produces the hormone ACTH which acts on the adrenal cortex?
A. Hypothalamus
B. Anterior pituitary
C. Posterior pituitary
D. Thyroid gland
E. Parathyroid gland
A

B

62
Q

Which statement describes the currently accepted theory of how an enzyme and its substrate fit
together?
A. As the product is released, the enzyme breaks down.
B. The enzyme is like a lock into which the substrate fits like a key.
C. The active site is permanently changed by its interaction with the substrate.
D. As the substrate binds to the enzyme, the shape of the enzyme site changes to accommodate
the reaction.
E. B and D

A

E

63
Q 
The hormone that causes blood sugar level to rise is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. glucagon
B. adrenaline
C. aldosterone
D. insulin
E. somatostatin
A

A

64
Q 
When [S] = KM, the velocity of an enzyme catalyzed reaction is about:
A. 0.1*Vmax.
B. 0.2*Vmax.
C. 0.3*Vmax.
D. 0.5*Vmax.
E. 0.9*Vmax.
A

D

65
Q

Too high or low a pH disrupts the hydrogen bonding and interactions between ______ of a protein
and cause the enzyme to become denatured.
A. amino acids
B. R group side chains
C. nucleic acids
D. monosaccharides
E. van der Waals forces

A

B

66
Q

During translation, proteins are synthesised
A. By ribosomes using the information on DNA
B. By ribosomes using the information on mRNA
C. By ribosomes using the information on tRNA
D. By ribosomes using the information on rRNA
E. None are correct

A

B

zVet272 (6 decks)

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