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Intracranial tumours Flashcards

1
Q

What is the age distribution of intracranial tumours?

A

bimodal

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2
Q

Are males or females more likely to have gliomas?

A

males

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3
Q

Are males or females more likely to get meningioma?

A

females

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4
Q

What are the 4 types of glial cells?

A
  • astrocytes
  • oligodendrocytes
  • ependymal cells and choroid plexus cells
  • microglia
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5
Q

What is the function of astrocytes?

A

support and protection

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6
Q

What is the function of oligodendrocytes?

A

produce myelin

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7
Q

What is the function of choroid plexus cells and ependymal cells?

A

CSF production

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8
Q

What is the function of microglia?

A

defence from pathogens

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9
Q

What is a meningeal tumour called?

A

meningioma

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10
Q

What is the name of a tumour in the nerve sheath?

A

schwannoma

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11
Q

What are the two component of a histological diagnosis?

A

name of tumour and grade

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12
Q

Describe the behaviour of a benign tumour

A
  • slow growing
  • respect surrounding tissue
  • no/slow progression
  • no recurrence
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13
Q

Describe the behaviour of a malignant tumour

A
  • rapid growing
  • invade and destroy surrounding tissue
  • progress
  • recurrent
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14
Q

Describe a grade I tumour

A

benign, no recurrence, no/very slow progression

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15
Q

Describe a grade II tumour

A

low grade, progression

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16
Q

Describe a grade II tumour

A

high grade, rapid progression

17
Q

Describe a grade IV tumour

A

aggressive

18
Q

What are the histological criteria fro malignancy in brain tumour?

A
  • cellular density and atypia
  • mitotic activity
  • necrosis
  • vascular proliferation
19
Q

What is pleomorphism?

A

variation in size, shape and chromasia

20
Q

What are the characteristics of a diffuse astrocytoma II?

A
  • infiltrative, microcystic, fibrillary
  • low cellular density
  • mild atypia
  • NO MITOTIC ACTIVITY (why it’s only grade II)
21
Q

What are the characteristics of an anaplastic astrocytoma III?

A
  • moderate cellular density
  • moderate pleomorphism
  • mitoses
22
Q

What are the characteristics of a meningioma I?

A
  • females, dura, adults
  • well-defined extra-axial tumour
  • whorls, psammoma bodies
23
Q

What does PNET stand for?

A

primitive neuroectodermal tumour

24
Q

Describe a schwannoma I

A
  • 8th cranial nerve
  • biphasic pattern (loose and dense areas)
  • reticulin
25
Q

Which intracranial tumour does radiotherapy raise risk of?

A

menignioma

26
Q

What are the 4 markers that are presently the most relevant for molecular diagnostics of gliomas?

A
  • MGMT promotor methylation
  • 1p/19q deletion
  • IDH1/IDH2 mutation
  • BRAF duplication/fusion
27
Q

what are the symptoms of raised intracranial pressure?

A
  • headaches (early morning)
  • vomiting
  • blurred vision
28
Q

what can cause raised ICP?

A
  • tumour mass
  • surrounding edema
  • obstructive hydrocephalus
29
Q

Which types of imaging may you use for diagnosis?

A
  • computerised tomographic scan
  • magnetic resonance imaging
  • cerebral angiography
30
Q

If there is language loss, where would you expect the tumour to be?

A

left hemisphere (or whichever is dominant)

31
Q

Right handed women seems to be understanding but cannot make others understand her, where is the lesion?

A

left temporo-frontal region

32
Q

Someone becomes withdrawn, apathetic and bad-tempered then develops headaches and vomiting, where is the lesion?

A

frontal region

33
Q

Sensory loss, dyspraxia, inattention, where is the lesion?

A

parietal lobe

34
Q

What is radiotherapy?

A

the use of X-rays to treat tumours - carefully controlled high energy X-ray beams are focused on the tumour

35
Q

What are the acute side effects of cranial radiotherapy?

A
  • cerebral oedema causing raised ICP and exacerbation of pre-RT neurological symptoms
  • hair loss
  • scalp/ear erythema
36
Q

What are the late side effects of radiotherapy?

A

damage to sensitive structures (eg lens, pituitary, cerebral hemispheres)

37
Q

Why are steroids used as part of treatment?

A

reduce swelling around the brain

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