Intra-operative Flashcards

1
Q

Safety - Nil by mouth policy: explain the principles of nil by mouth policy before surgery

A
  • No food 6hr before surgery
  • No water 2hr before surgery

Reduces aspiration risk

Caveats - reflux, obesity, slow gastric transit time

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2
Q

Safety - Transfusion reporting: recognise the importance of reporting blood units administered to the transfusion lab

A
  • 6ml of blood is required for group and save - pink top vacutainer. Should be performed no more than 7 days in advance of actual transfusion (3days if pregnant)
  • Blood products should only be removed from blood bank when you are ready to start the transfusion - blood is stored at 4oC
  • Bedside check - tag&bag, tag& pt wristband. Stickers from blood tag must be signed by 2 medical professionals to check who identity was confirmed by - this tag is then returned to the blood bank.#
  • 20G cannula is the minimum size required; 170-200 micron filter is required with the giving set
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3
Q

Safety - Controlled drugs: recognise the importance of recording the use of controlled drugs in the controlled drug register

A
  • Dose
  • Form
  • Strength (if appropriate)
  • total quantity/dosage units in words and figures
  • If instalment prescription, specify instalment amount and interval
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4
Q

Airway adjuncts/devices: recognise various airway adjuncts/devices and the indications for their use

A

Bag valve mask - Ambu bag - FiO2 (fraction of inspired oxygen in the air, is thus 21%), self inflating bag, has a reservoir bag at the end for when giving O2

Oropharyngeal airways - Guedel airways - angle of mandible to mouth edge size: green (2), orange (3), red (4)

Supraglottic airways - iGel/LMA (largyngeal mask airway)

endotracheal tubes - blue line is X-Ray

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5
Q

Laryngoscope

A
  • Macintosh blade
  • Sizes 0 (neonate) to 4
  • Held with left hand
  • Incorrect usage can cause trauma to the front incisors; the correct technique is to displace the chin upwards and forward at the same time, not to use the blade as a lever with the teeth serving as the fulcrum.
  • Alternative: video laryngoscope (GlideScope)
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6
Q

Bag-valve mask

A
  • FiO2 unless connected to oxygen at the wall
  • Has a reservoir bag which can inflate with oxygen when bagging the patient
  • Uses: emergencies, positive pressure ventilation in patients in and out of hospital
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7
Q

Endotracheal tube

A

Name: ET

Uses: definitive airway

  • Provides optimal control of the airway once cuff inflated
  • May be used for long or short term ventilation
  • Errors in insertion may result in oesophageal intubation (therefore end tidal CO2 usually measured)
  • Paralysis often required
  • Higher ventilation pressures can be used
  • ET should be inserted to an average depth of 23 cm in men and 21 cm in women (measured at the incisor).
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8
Q

Tracheostomy

A
  • Reduces the work of breathing (and dead space)
  • May be useful in slow weaning
  • Percutaneous tracheostomy widely used in ITU
  • Dries secretions, humidified air usually required
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9
Q

Laryngeal mask airway (supraglottic airway)

A
  • Widely used
  • Very easy to insert
  • Device sits in pharynx and aligns to cover the airway
  • Poor control against reflux of gastric contents
  • Paralysis not usually required
  • Commonly used for wide range of anaesthetic uses, especially in day surgery
  • Not suitable for high pressure ventilation (small amount of PEEP often possible)
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10
Q

Oropharyngeal airway

A
  • Easy to insert and use
  • No paralysis required
  • Ideal for very short procedures
  • Most often used as bridge to more definitive airway
  • Flange at the buccal end stops it moving deeper into airway

Guedel sizing- angle of mandible to mouth edge

size: green-2 /orange-3/red-4

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11
Q

Respiratory - Ventilation: compare the differences between spontaneous ventilation and positive pressure ventilation

A

For air to enter the lungs, a pressure gradient must exist between the airway and the alveoli. This can be accomplished either by raising pressure at the airway (positive-pressure ventilation) or by lowering pressure at the level of the alveolus (negative-pressure ventilation).

Spontaneous ventilation - e.g. CPAP, BiPAP - every breath is spontaneous (patient triggered). Movement of gas in and out of a pt’s lungs in response to their respiratory muscles.

Positive-pressure ventilation can be achieved via an endotracheal or tracheostomy tube or noninvasively through a nasal mask or face mask.

  • PEEP is used as an adjunct to ventilation. It is produced by maintaining a positive airway pressure during expiration, usually of the order of 5-20 cmH2O. It minimises airway and alveolar collapse and increases compliance (due to increase in FRC).
  • PSV - pressure support ventilation - ventilatory assistance occurs only in response to the patient’s spontaneous inspiratory efforts. With each inspiratory effort, the ventilator raises airway pressure by a preset amount.
  • IMV - intermittent mandatory ventilation - mandatory breaths are delivered at a set frequency, TV, and inspiratory flow rate. But patient can breathe spontaneously between machine controlled breaths. Most modern ventilators are capable of SIMV (synchronised IMV) where ventilator attempts to deliver the mandatory breaths in synchrony with the patient’s own inspiratory efforts.
  • MMV - mandatory minute ventilation
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12
Q

Respiratory - Anaesthetic emergencies: recall the assessment and management of asthma.

A

Management of severe bronchospasm outside of theatre: - OSHITM

  • A,B,C
  • O2 -Start high flow oxygen and gain IV access
  • Salbutamol nebulised 2.5-5mg
  • Hydrocortisone 100 mg IV 6 hourly or prednisolone orally 40–50 mg/day.
  • Ipatropium nebulised 0.5 mg (4–6 hrly) • IV salbutamol if not responding (250 mcg slow bolus then 5–20 mcg/min).
  • Theophylline/Aminophylline
  • Magnesium 2g IV over 20 minutes
  • NB- In extremis (decreasing conscious level or exhaustion) adrenaline may be used: nebuliser 5 ml of 1 in 1,000;*
  • Senior clinician only: IV 10 mcg (0.1 ml 1 : 10,000) increasing to 100 mcg (1 ml 1 : 10,000) depending on response.*
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13
Q

Respiratory - Anaesthetic emergencies: recall the assessment and management of pneumothorax.

A
  • Definition - presense of air in the pleural cavity which leads to lung collapse. Can be life threatening if a tension pneumothorax develops and
  • Presentation - in a ventilated pt there will be increased peak airway pressures and plateau pressures occur. As pneumothorax develops hypoxia, tachypnea and tachycardia can occur.
  • Pathophysiology - one-way valve mechanism occurs after injury to the pleural space. with each inspiration, gas is trapped in the pleural space causing lung collapse. If intrapleural pressyre increases more then mediastinal shift can occur with kinking of major veins at thoracic inlet and IVC –> decreased venous return and hypotension.
  • MANAGEMENT - increase FiO2 to 100%, decompress plwurl space with a large bore needle in the MCL in 2nd intercostal space, insert chest tube.
  • DD - haemothorax, mucus plug, endobronchial intubation, severe bronchospasm.
  • RF - central line placement, laparoscopic surgery and excessive tidal volumes or peak airway pressures, blebs.
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14
Q

Respiratory - Anaesthetic emergencies: recall the assessment and management of anaphylaxis.

A

ABCDE approach to anaphylaxis:

Airway problems:

  • Airway swelling, e.g., throat and tongue swelling (pharyngeal/laryngeal oedema). The patient has difficulty in breathing and swallowing and feels that the throat is closing up.
  • Hoarse voice.
  • Stridor – this is a high-pitched inspiratory noise caused by upper airway obstruction.

Breathing problems:

  • Shortness of breath – increased respiratory rate.
  • Wheeze
  • Patient becoming tired.
  • Confusion caused by hypoxia.
  • Cyanosis (appears blue) – this is usually a late sign.
  • Respiratory arrest.

Circulation problems:

  • Signs of shock – pale, clammy.
  • Increased pulse rate (tachycardia).
  • Low blood pressure (hypotension) – feeling faint (dizziness), collapse.
  • Decreased conscious level or loss of consciousness.
  • Anaphylaxis can cause myocardial ischaemia and ECG changes even in individuals with normal coronary arteries.
  • Cardiac arrest.
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15
Q

What are the most common triggers for anaphylaxis?

A
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16
Q

Respiratory - Observations: recall the measurement and normal values of physiological parameters, including pulse oximetry, capnography and blood gas results

A

Pulse oximetry - measures SpO2 (although SaO2 would be more desirable, measures by arterial blood gases). Fingertip or earlobe. SaO2 is the percentage of Hb mols that are saturated with oxygen .

Capnography - monitors pCO2, measured as end-tidal (at the end of exhalation) so called ETCO2, good for assessing hypoventilation and oesophageal intubation. Usually shows an expiratory and inspiratory phase.

Blood gas results - VBG/ABG; see other notes.

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17
Q

Normal VBG and ABG results.

A
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18
Q

Circulation - Blood pressure monitoring: recall the indications for non-invasive and invasive monitoring (for and against invasive BP monitoring)

A

Invasive BP monitoring

Indications:

  • More accurate especially in critically ill
  • Rapid recognition of changes in BP (in those on vasoactive drugs)
  • Frequent blood sampling - ABGs can be taken without injury
  • Inability to use indirect monitoring (e.g. severe burns, morbid obesity)

Contraindications

  • Absent pulse
  • Burns over cannulation site
  • Inadequate circulation to extremity
  • Raynaud syndrome
  • Buerger disease
  • Also: anticoagulation, atherosclerosis, coagulopathy, inadequate collateral flow, infection at site.
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19
Q

Circulation - Intravenous fluids: explain the rationale of fluid administration

A

Hospitalised patients need fluids for one or more of the following:

Fluid resuscitation - to restore circulation to vital organs when there is loss of blood volume due to bleeding, plasm aloss of electrolyte loss (from GI tract).

Routine maintenance - when pt cannot meet their normal fluid or electrolyte needs by oral or enteral routes.

Replacement - to corrrct existing warer and/or electrolyte deficits or ongoing external losses e.g. fever or burns.

Redistribution - e.g. in those with sepsis where there is abnormal fluid handling.

20
Q

What is the difference between colloid and crystalloid fluids?

A

Give crystalloid when there is decreased ISFV (interstitial fluid volume). Give colloid when there is decreased plasma volume (ISFV). Colloids give less volume, faster administration.

21
Q

What is the composition of common IV fluids?

A

https://www.bapen.org.uk/pdfs/bapen_pubs/giftasup.pdf

22
Q

What is a complication of giving too much IV saline to a pt?

A

Hyperchloraemic acidosis

(So now more electrolyte balanced solutions are given e.g. Ringer’s lactate and Hartmans)

23
Q

What is the current guidance when giving IV fluids?

A
  • Fluids given should be documented clearly and easily available
  • Assess the patient’s fluid status when they leave theatre
  • If a patient is haemodynamically stable and euvolaemic, aim to restart oral fluid intake as soon as possible
  • Review patients whose urinary sodium is < 20
  • If a patient is oedematous, hypovolaemia if present should be treated first. This should then be followed by a negative balance of sodium and water, monitored using urine Na excretion levels.
  • Solutions such as Dextran 70 should be used in caution in patients with sepsis as there is a risk of developing acute renal injury.
24
Q

Which anaesthetic drugs can cause urinary retention? What shoudl septic pt not be given?

A

Opiates - not a problem if there is a catheter

Septic patients shouldn’t be given Dextran 70 because –> renal injury

25
Q

Define oliguria

A

Oliguria is defined as a urine output that is less than 1 mL/kg/h in infants,

less than 0.5 mL/kg/h in children (and adults)

and less than 400 mL or 500 mL per 24h in adults - this equals 17 or 21 mL/hour.

Normal urine output in an adult drinking 2L/day should be 800-2000mL/day.

26
Q

Circulation - Blood transfusion: recall the triggers for giving a blood transfusion

A
27
Q

Pain relief - Multimodal analgesia: recall the principles of multimodal analgesia

A

Multimodal analgesia is a pharmacologic method of pain management which combines various groups of medications for pain relief.

The most commonly combined medication groups include local anesthetics, opioids, NSAIDs, acetaminophen and alpha-2 agonists.

28
Q

What classes of drugs are most commonly used in multimodal analgesia?

A

1) Non-opioids

This is one of the most important background medications for perioperative pain. Paracetamol is the most commonly accepted form of medicine and drastically improves the quality of analgesia when combined with opioids.

2) Opioids

This class of medication is one of the most significant components of perioerative analgesia. Tradamol is the most common drug used in this category.

3) Local anesthetics

Local anesthetics are also widely used to alleviate pain. In the recent years, newer alternatives to the local anesthetics have also been used, such as lignocaine and bupivacaine.

4) Adjuvants

Ketamine is one of the most well known drugs in this category. Such drugs are commonly used to treat acute pain which otherwise responds poorly to opioids including neuropathic pain

29
Q

Pain relief - Pain: summarise approaches to the management of acute and chronic pain

A

Acute pain - WHO ladder backwards if the pain is very severe

Chronic pain - follow WHO ladder

30
Q

Pain relief - WHO pain ladder: explain the WHO pain ladder

A

WHO three-step “ladder” for cancer pain relief in adults.

31
Q

Pain relief - Regional analgesia/anaesthesia: explain the rationale and management of regional analgesia/anaesthesia

A
32
Q

How do local anaesthetics work?

A

Inhibit the influx of sodium into the cell - lidocaine is an amide-based local anaesthetic which penetrates the interior of an axon and then reversibly blocks the sodium channels by binding to a receptor in those channels.

They act on smaller C fibres which transmit pain and temperature sensation, before the larger A fibres which transmit touch and power

Lidocaine onset is within a few minutes and it lasts 1-2 hours

33
Q

What makes subcutaneous injections less painful and more effective?

A

Warming the anaesthetic to room temperature

Injecting slowly through a small needle

Addition of adrenaline (causes local vasoconstriction and delays anaesthetic washout into circulation so effects last longer) - do not use in fingers

34
Q

What are the complications of local anaesthetics?

A
  1. Cardiac arrhythmias
  2. Urticaria /anaphylaxis
  3. Neurotoxicity
  4. Respiratory depression

NB: local anaesthetics do not affect gut motility. Lidocaine affects CNS and CVS mostly

35
Q

What is the principal difference between regional and general anaesthesia?

A

General anaesthesia abolishes consciousness - awareness is a failure of general anaesthesia.

Regional anaesthetic agents do NOT have an effect on the central nervous system except in overdose or with spinal anaesthesia.

36
Q

Name 3 commonly used local anaesthetics.

A
  • Bupivacaine (Marcaine) - most frequently used local anaesthetic agent in regional anaesthesia because of its long duration of action. Diamorphine is routinely added in regional anaesthesia as it works synergistically to improve the quality of block
  • Xylocaine- mixture of lignocaine and adrenaline and is used for local anaesthetic
  • Cocaine
  • Lignocaine - short duration
37
Q

When should you transfuse blood during surgery?

A

In the absence of cardiovascular disease, it is accepted that there is no clear benefit in transfusing patients unless the Hb concentration is less than 80 g/l. Some institutions accept an even lower trigger of 70 g/l.

Group and save should be obtained. 2 units should be cross matched and administered the patient, rather than receiving emergency O negative blood.

38
Q

List 4 measures that can be taken to reduce the need for intra-operative blood transfusions.

A

Performing surgery under regional anaesthesia instead of general anaesthesia - shown in orthopaedics

Correcting preoperative anaemia before patients undergo surgery

Adhering to guidelines for appropriateness of postoperative blood transfusion

Using intraoperative cell salvage techniques (or post-op from drains left in the wound)

Hypothermia should be avoided as this has been shown to impair clotting and increases blood loss.

39
Q

What is cryoprecipitate and FFP used for?

A

Cryoprecipitate - used when a patient has low levels of fibrinogen which occurs in massive haemorrhage

FFP - used to replace clotting factors

NB: whole blood is no longer available.

40
Q

What is a Bier block? Which anaesthetic should you not use for it because it is cardiotoxic?

A

A Bier block = injecting local anesthetic solutions into the venous system of an upper or lower extremity that has been exsanguinated by compression or gravity and that has been isolated by means of a tourniquet from the central circulation.

Do not use Bupivicaine.

41
Q

Propofol

Midazolam

Ketamine

Which reduced breathing least to most?

A

Midazolam, ketamine, propofol

42
Q

What are the two groups of local anaesthetics?

A

Esters - bond is more unstable so more reactive e.g. cocaine (good vasoconstrictor in ENT)

Amides - more commonly used e.g. amethocaine (good penetration through lipids so used as numbing cream and for cornea)

43
Q

Why does lidocaine act faster than bupivacaine?

A

pKa - pH at which a solution is 50% ionised and 50% unionised.

Lidocaine at physiological pH is 50:50. The UNIONISED molecule gets through lipids better so this is what acts.

Bupivicaine (pKa=8.2) at physiological pH is mostly in ionised form so it takes longer to act.

44
Q

What is potency liked to?

A

Potency is linked to lipid solubility

45
Q

Which lasts longer and why: bupivicaine and lidocaine?

A

Duration of action linked to proton binding

  • Bupivicane has more claws than lidocaine does.
  • Lidocaine is quickly pulled away by the blood stream.
46
Q

How much lidocaine can you give?

A

4mg/kg lidocaine without adrenaline

7mg/kg lidocaine with adrenaline