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Airbus A320-231 > Interview Prep > Flashcards

Interview Prep Flashcards

1
Q

what is LVP’s

A

Low Visibility Procedures

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2
Q

LVP definition ?

A

Low Visibility Procedures (LVP) are the procedures applied at an aerodrome for the purpose of ensuring safe operations during lower than standard category I approaches, such as standard category II, and category III approaches, and low visibility take-offs.

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3
Q

What is a take-off alternate?

A

Alternate aerodrome which is suitable following an emergency or circumstance that requires an immediate landing.

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4
Q

Take-off alternate for a twin-engine?

A

1hrs flight time at one-engine cruise speed according to AFM, calculated in still air at ISA using actual takeoff mass

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5
Q

Take-off alternate for single engine?

A

20 Min flying time from departure aerodrome

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6
Q

Take-off alternate for 3 & 4 engine aircraft ?

A

2hrs flight time at all engine cruise speed according to the AFM in ISA at the actual take off mass

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7
Q

( 121-135 )Planning minima-aerodromes supporting instrument approach and landing ops but not supporting straight in approach and landing operations at least two runway ends.

Ceiling ? Visibility conditions ?

A 
Ceiling = Aerodrome operating minima + increment of 400ft
Visibility = Aerodrome operating minima + increment of 1500m
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8
Q

( 121-135 )Planning minima-aerodromes supporting a straight in instrument approach and landing operation to different suitable runways

Ceiling ? Visibility conditions ?

A 
Ceiling = Aerodrome operating minima plus an increment of 200ft
Visibility = Aerodrome operating minima + increment of 800m
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9
Q

( 121-135 )Planning minima-aerodromes supporting a minimum of two instrument approach and landing operations to different suitable runways, at least one of which will be CATII or CATIII

Ceiling ? Visibility conditions ?

A

CATII ops
Ceiling at least 300ft
Visibility equivalent to an RVR of at least 1200m

CATIII
Ceiling at least 200ft
Visibility equivalent to an RVR of at least 550m

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10
Q

CAT I Minima ?

A

DA of more than or equal to 200ft with an RVR550m or more

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11
Q

CAT II Minima ?

A

DA of more than or equal to 100ft and less then 200ft with an RVR more than or equal to 300m

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12
Q

CAT III (a) Minima ?

A

DA of more than or equal to 50ft and less than 100ft with an RVR of 175m or more

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13
Q

CAT III (b) Minima ?

A

DA of zero foot with an RVR of 175m or more

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14
Q

What is Mach crit… Vmcr ?

A

Critical Mach Number (Mcr or Mcrit) of an aircraft is the lowest Mach number at which the airflow over any part of the aircraft reaches the speed of sound.

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15
Q

What is Mach tuck ?

A

Mach tuck is a nose down pitch tendency due to a change in the position of the centre of pressure resulting from a rearward movement of the shock wave which occurs as an aircraft in transonic flight accelerates beyond its limiting mach number (MMO).

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16
Q

What is Dutch Roll ?

A

A Dutch roll is a combination of rolling and yawing oscillations that occurs when the dihedral effects of an aircraft are more powerful than the directional stability

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17
Q

What is the criteria for Vmca ?

A

Vmca is defined as the minimum speed, whilst in the air, that directional control can be maintained with one engine inoperative (critical engine on two engine aerolanes), operating engine(s) at takeoff power and a maximum of 5 degrees of bank towards the good engine(s).

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18
Q

What is a high bypass ratio engine?

A

In a turbofan (bypass) engine, the bypass ratio is a comparison between the mass flow rate of air drawn into the engine through the fan disk that goes around the engine core with the mass flow rate of the air that goes through the engine core

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19
Q

What is induced Drag ?

A

Induced Drag is an inevitable consequence of lift and is produced by the passage of an aerofoil air flows inward at the top of a wing and outward underneath.

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20
Q

Why do we have wingtips ?

A

The intent of any Wing Tip Drag Reduction Device is to improve the efficiency of a fixed wing aircraft by reducing induced drag resulting from lift-induced wing tip vortices.

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21
Q

What is meant by fail passive and fail operational?

A

Autoland systems are normally designated Fail Operational or Fail Passive.

A Fail Operational system must have at least two autopilots engaged for the approach. The failure of one autopilot will still allow an autoland to be carried out. This allows a “no decision height” approach to be conducted.
A Fail Passive system is normally associated with a single autopilot approach. In this case, failure of the autopilot will not result in any immediate deviation from the desired flight path; however, the pilot flying must immediately assume control of the aircraft and, unless he has sufficient visual reference to land, carry out a missed approach. The lowest allowable decision altitude (DA) for a fail passive system is normally 50’.

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22
Q

Stall vs weight of aircraft ?

A

The lower the weight the lower the stall speed and the higher the weight the higher the stall speed. due to larger or smaller AoA for given lift vector

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23
Q

Airbus golden rules ?

A

Fly, Navigate, communicate in this sequence with appropriate task sharing.

Use appropriate level of automation at all times

Understand the FMA at all times

Take action if things do not go as expected.

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24
Q

Airbus Normal law ?

A

1) Normal Law
-Load factor protection +2.5G -1G clean
+2G 0G for any other config
-Pitch attitude protection
-High angle of attack protection
-High speed protection
-Bank angle protection 33deg return
67deg no further normal speed 15deg rate max

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25
Q

What are the airbus laws ?

A

1)Normal law
2)Alternate Law
3)Direct Law
4)Mechanical Law

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26
Q

What two types of alternate law are there?

A

With and without reduced protection
with protection:
- load factor protection
- low speed stability protection
- High speed stability protection
- Can be overridden

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27
Q

Explain RVSM ?

A

-Reduced vertical separation minima
-1000ft seperation
-Max did between captain and fo is 50ft on ground
-stdby must read within 50 ft
-doubling airspace capacity between FL290-FL410

Equipment required:
-two independent primary altimetry systems
-Mode c transponder
-altitude alerting system
-automatic altitude keeping device

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28
Q

What bank angle do SIDs require/provide?

A

15Deg 290knots, noise abatement, terrain clearance, a/c seperation

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29
Q

Mach tuck explained:

A

Phenomenon that changes the longitudinal stability of the aircraft as it approaches the transonic flight regime, caused by rearward movement of the wings centre of pressure as shockwaves form of on the surface toward the rear of the wing, this causes the nose of the ac to pitch down further increasing speed which compounds the problem. this i resolved by a mach trimmer.

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30
Q

What is angle of attack?

A

This is the angle between the chord line and the relative airflow

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31
Q

Why are windshields heated ?

A

more flexible then a colder window and therefore more resistant to damage.

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32
Q

Standard spacing of runway lights ?

A

60m for instrument runway however can be 90m for non-instrument runways.

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33
Q

What is mach crit ?

A

Speed at which the airflow over localised parts of the aircraft reaches 1.0m, swept wings increase mach crit due to the slowing down of airflow over the wing.

34
Q

How is Mach number calculated ?

A

TAS divided by the local speed of sound

35
Q

Benefits of a high bypass ratio engine ?

A

-Quieter and more efficient
-Most of the air bypasses the engine core and combustion chamber.
-The Fan (N1) produces majority of the thrust by accelerating a large mass of air.
-Ratio of usually around 5-1

36
Q

Does weight effect the stalling angle of attack?

A

No effect on angle but with a weight increase the stall speed will increase.

37
Q

How does temperature effect Mach number?

A

lower temp higher density higher mach number and vi sa versa.

38
Q

What is Vref and how is it calculated?

A

Vref is 1.3x the Stall speed in the landing configuration and at the prevailing ac weight. speed required as the landing threshold is crossed at 50ft

39
Q

What are the purpose of leading edge slats?

A

Aerodynamic surfaces on the leading edge designed to deploy and re-energize airflow over the top of the wing resulting in a higher critical angle of attack

40
Q

How does the anti-ice system work in the A320?

A

Engine anti-ice = Bleed air from the HP section
Wing anti-ice = Bleed air from HP section
Probe & sensor = Electrically heated
Window = Electrically heated

41
Q

Which reference is used with wind direction from ATIS, METAR, TAF ?

A

All wind direction is True unless heard then it is magnetic.

42
Q

What would one do if TCAS descend below 1000ft is heard?

A

TCAS RA heard below 1000ft should not be followed.

43
Q

What is Balanced V1 ?

A

ASDR=TODR
shortest possible runway length for the given conditions

44
Q

What is the relationship between V1 and VMCG?

A

Vmcg must be equal to or less than V1 due to ground control in th event of an engine failure with remaining engines at take-off thrust

45
Q

Fail passive and fail operational?

A

Fail passive: known as land 2.2 channel. if one autopilot fails the aircraft is not left in an out of trim condition however the Autoland cannot be completed
Fail operational: Land 3.3 channel. if one channel fails the aircraft can still complete an auto land (Redundancy built in) in the event of one of the remaining channels failing the aircraft will not be in an out of trim condition however the autoland can’t be completed.

46
Q

Minimum equipment for a fail passive?

A

-2 auto pilots
-2 radio altimeters
-2 air data computers
-2 engines
-2 hydraulic systems
-2 elec power sources
-2 ils receivers
-2 FMA
-2 IRU in nav mode
-Loss of auto throttle does not impact fail passive.

47
Q

Minimum equipment for Fail operational?

A

Employs three channel autopilots

48
Q

Calculating pressure height?

A

elevation- ( (QNH-1013)x30) = PH

49
Q

What is ASDA?

A

Accelerate stop distance available
TORA+Stopway

50
Q

Angle of incidence ?

A

Angle between the chord line and the aircraft longitudinal datum

51
Q

What is the Ram air turbine?

A

The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) installed on the A320 is coupled to a hydraulic pump that allows the blue hydraulic system to be pressurized even if both engines fail or electrical power is lost.

The blue hydraulic circuit (A320) drives the emergency generator, or “EMER GEN”.

52
Q

What is take-of distance available?

A

Length of runway available + Clearway

53
Q

How long do you have before becoming unconscious at 40 000ft

A

20 seconds

54
Q

How does fly by wire work on the A320?

A

The pilot commands the aircraft through a side stick, the side stick moves mechanical linkages and dampers with no feedback other then a steel entering spring. These inputs are transferred into digital signals that enter its 9 flight computers.
2 ELACS
3 SECS
2 FACS
2 SFCC
These signals are then filtered and sent to mechanical servos which actuate the various control surfaces.

Main advantages are reduced weight, increased safety, fuel savings, reduced maintenance costs and reduced pilot work load.

Disadvantages, understanding automation is crucial, system complexity, more expensive then mechanical controlled aircraft, mechanical backups still have to be installed and no forced feedback.

55
Q

Explain the fuel system on the A320 ?

A

-There are 3 tanks further divided into inner and outer wing tanks with a centre tank.
-Total capacity of 6302 USGal
-The centre tank is used first with the inner tanks next once they reach 750kgs the outer tanks are gravity fed into the inners, this is done to reduce wing bending and flutter.
-Each tank is separate however a cross feed can supply opposite wings.
-6 Identical fuel pumps, two in the centre and two in each inner tank.
-For redundancy there is suction valves fitted to the two inner tanks however none to the centre tank
-Fuel temp is limited by -43c and +54c
-Regulation of temp is done through the fuel to oil heat exchanger done through the IDG oil

purpose of the fuel system:
- To power the engines and APU
- Controls distribution in fuel tanks during refuelling
- Cools IDG oil
- Keeps fuel in outer wing for wing bending and flutter relief
- Heats fuel within limits
- Supplies ecam with related information

56
Q

Explain the A320 Hydraulic system ?

A

-Consists of three independent continuously operated systems
-Green, Blue and Yellow
-Own hydraulic reservoir and accumulator
-Independent fire shut off valves
-Fluids can not be transferred
-Operate at 3000PSI
-Each system has its own pump
-Green has engine driven pump
-Yellow has engine driven with electric back up and hand pump
-Blue has electrical with a RAT incase of emergency which pressurises the system and runs the blue electrical generator
-The green and yellow can transfer power through a PTU

57
Q

Explain the A320 fire protection system?

A

Consists of :
-Fire and overheat detection and extinguishing system
-Cargo smoke detection and extinguishing system
-smoke detection in the lavatory and avionics bay
-Portable fire extinguishers
-Each engine has two extinguisher bottles via electrically operated squibs
-two loops for redundency A&B filled with hydrogen and hellium
-monitored by the FDU
-4 sensor units. Pylon nacelle, engine core and one in the APU
-Apu has auto shutdown and discharge
-Engine fire push button=
*Silences aural warning
*Arms squibs
*closes low pressure fuel vale
*closes the hydraulic fire shut off valve
*closes engine bleed valve
*close pac flow control valve
*cuts off FADEC
*and disengages IDG

58
Q

Explain the A320 Electrical system ?

A

-2 engine driven generators
-constant speed supplied by IDG
-2 AC bus
-Each one supplies Transformer rectifier
-Convert AC-DC
-DC 1 supplies DC BAT for bat 1&2
-There are two essential busses DC & AC
-Supplied by engine gen or APU or external power additionally a EMER Gen driven hydraulically supplied by RAT
-AC Static inverter allows batteries to partially supply AC system

59
Q

What is the final reserve for Part 121

A

30 min for turbine aircraft

60
Q

can you convert Visibility to RVR for take off?

A

No

61
Q

What is the required RVR Nil facilities ?

A

500m by day only

62
Q

What is required RVR with REL and/or centreline markings + LVP in force?

A

300m

63
Q

What is required RVR with REL & Centrelights with LVPs

A

250m

64
Q

What is required RVR with REL & Centrelights and multiple RVR

A

200m

65
Q

When can RVR of less than 150m be used ?

A

-Serviceable HIELS spaced 60m or less
-HI Centre lights 15m or less
-LVP’s in force
-Crew trained
-90m visual segment from cockpit at start
-Required RVR at all relevant RVR points

66
Q

When is the takeoff alternate minima?

A

Wx is @ or above the applicable landing minima for 1 hour before and after the ETA

67
Q

What is the takeoff alternate planning minima?

A

-Twin engine aircraft 1 hour AFM cruise speed at single engine in still air ISA at actual takeoff weight

68
Q

En-route Minima?

A

-Grid mora 1000ft above highest terrain/obstacle when not exceeding 5000ft
2000ft when exceeds within 5nm

69
Q

What is an Approach Ban?

A

A PIC may not continue approach beyond the FAF or equivalent point or in the case of NP below 1000ft, unless the RVR/VIS is at or above minima.

*except when training and there is no intention to land or when RVR varies above and below minima.

70
Q

How do you convert VIS - RVR when its day and there is high intensity approach and runway lighting?

A

multiply VIS x1.5

71
Q

How do you convert VIS - RVR when its night and there is high intensity approach and runway lighting?

A

multiply vis x2

72
Q

How do you convert VIS - RVR when its Day and any type of lighting other then HI?

A

multiply vis x1

73
Q

How do you convert VIS - RVR when its night and any type of lighting other then HI?

A

multiply vis x1.5

74
Q

What is an adequate aerodrome?

A

-Licensed aerodrome
-neccessary ancillary services such as ATIS sufficient lighting, communications, WX reporting navaids and emergency services

75
Q

What is a suitable aerodrome?

A

conditions that exist to facilitate a safe landing when considering weather on top of the adequate aerodrome standards

76
Q

Can you convert vis to rvr if the RVR is 400m or less?

A

No

77
Q

An aircraft approach category ?

A

Is based on Vref or when no Vref it is 1.3 x the Stall speed in the landing configuration

78
Q

What is the Approach category speeds

A

-Cat A = less than 90knots
-Cat B = 91 knots or more but less than 120
-Cat C = 121or more but less then 141knots
-Cat D = 141 knots or more but less then 166knots

79
Q

What is a Class A performance aeroplane?

A

Multi-engine turbo-propeller aeroplanes with a maximum certified weight exceeding 5700kg, all multiengine turbojet

80
Q

How do we calculate a CDFA?

A

Airport elevation + TCH + 320ft per/nm

Airbus A320-231 (7 decks)

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