Insurance Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is an insurable risk?

a) Objective Risk.
b) Pure Risk.
c) Subjective Risk.
d) Speculative Risk.

A

Answer: B

Pure risk involves the risk of loss or no loss and is the only insurable risk.

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2
Q

The underwriter of an insurance company is charged with the responsibility of achieving a profit within the risk parameters of the company. Which of the following is the underwriter’s greatest challenge?

a) Setting premiums.
b) Motivating salespeople.
c) Making sure that profit margins are correct.
d) Managing adverse selection.

A

Answer: D

Managing adverse selection may be accomplished before the contract is issued by using credit scores, physicals, claims history, etc., or on the back-end of property, automobile, health, and dental insurance by raising annual premiums.

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3
Q

What is an insurable risk?

A

Insurable Risks are CHAD - not Catastrophic, Homogeneous exposure units, Accidental, and measurable and Determinable.

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4
Q

Which of the following is not a requisite for an insurable risk from an insurer’s perspective?

a) Law of Large Numbers.
b) Losses must be accidental, measurable, and determinable.
c) Losses must not pose a catastrophic risk for the insured.
d) The premiums must be affordable.

A

Answer: C

The losses must not pose a catastrophic risk for the insurer. The insured wants to transfer catastrophic risks.

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5
Q

What’s required for an insurance contractto be valid?

A

A legal contract requires COALL! -> Competent parties, Offer and Acceptance, Legal consideration, and Lawful purpose

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6
Q

Eric walks into his insurance agent’s office, signs a life insurance application, and gives his agent the first month’s premium. As Eric is leaving his insurance agent’s office, he is hit by a bus. Will Eric’s wife be able to collect under the life insurance policy?

a) Yes, as long as Eric was insurable (no terminal illnesses or life threatening pre-existing conditions).
b) No, the policy was not delivered.
c) Yes, regardless of whether Eric was insurable.
d) No, because signing the application and paying the first month’s premium is not con-sidered offer and acceptance.

A

Answer: A

By signing the application and making the first month’s premium payment, Eric is insured as long as he is insurable. This is an example of a conditional acceptance by the insurer.

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7
Q

Mike is injured in an auto accident caused by Tim. Mike collects bodily injury payments from his insurance company and sues Tim to recover as well. Tim’s insurance company also pays Mike for the same injuries. Which of the following principles has been violated?

a) Subrogation.
b) Subjective Risk.
c) Adverse Selection.
d) Adhesion.

A

Answer: A

The Subrogation clause in an insurance contract prevents Mike collecting from both his insurance company and a third party for the same claim.

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8
Q

Dave is 42 years old and applying for a life insurance policy. In order to receive a lower pre-mium, Dave indicates that he is 34 on the insurance application. Which of the following is the insurance company most likely to do when they determine Dave’s right age?

a) Avoid the contract.
b) Void the contract.
c) Refund the premiums and deny any claim by Dave’s beneficiary.
d) Pay Dave’s beneficiary a lesser face value that is based upon the premiums paid and Dave’s correct age.

A
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9
Q

Randy’s house slid down a hill in California after a heavy rain storm and is a total loss. The rel-evant part of the insurance contract states, “earthquake is a general exclusion.” Which party is likely to win in court and why?

a) The insurance company because of the stated exclusion.
b) The insurance company because homeowner’s policies do not cover mudslides.
c) Randy because of the aleatory principle.
d) Randy because the contract is adhesive.

A

Answer: D

Randy will most likely win because ambiguities are decided in favor of the insured under the principle of adhesion.

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10
Q

Scott is 22 and just started his first job with Rest in Peace Life Insurance Company. Scott is scheduled to take the State insurance exam at 9:00 a.m. on Saturday. The exam is computerized and if passed, automatically issues the State License. Scott has an important appointment with his Uncle Carlos at 1:00 p.m. on Saturday to sell Carlos $10M of universal variable life insur-ance. On Friday, just before 5:00 p.m. Scott’s boss gives him a wrapped gift and tells him not to open it until after he passes the exam, which she is confident he will do. Scott goes ahead and opens the present on Friday night and calls his friends to celebrate getting his “Rest in Peace” business cards. Scott goes out with his friends Friday night, gets drunk, and misses the Saturday exam. However, he goes to Carlos’ house, takes his application, and gets a check from Carlos for the first year premium. Unfortunately, Carlos is hit by lightening while playing golf Saturday afternoon and dies. Which of the following is correct?

a) Carlos’ beneficiary will collect $10M because of explicit authority and that the check was given to the agent.
b) The policy is not issued because Scott is not licensed to sell life insurance.
c) Carlos’ beneficiary will not receive anything because the check, while issued, was given to an unlicensed agent.
d) Presuming Carlos meets normal underwriting standards, his beneficiary will collect $10M under apparent authority.

A

Answer: D

Even though not licensed, Scott can still bind “Rest in Peace” because he should not have appli-cations and business cards.

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11
Q

Brandon purchased a home theater system for $10,000 two years ago. The replacement cost is $8,000. The home theater system was destroyed in a fire. Brandon’s insurance company estimates that the home theater system was 40% depreciated. How much will Brandon receive if the home theater system is covered under actual cash value?

a) $2,000.
b) $2,700.
c) $3,200.
d) $4,800.

A

Answer: D

$8,000 - (.40 x $8,000) = 8,000 - 3,200 = $4,800 If Brandon owed a $500 deductible, he would actually receive $4,800 - $500, or $4,300.

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12
Q

NAIC

A

National Association of Insurance Commissioners has no regulatory power over the insurance industry. Regulation occurs at the state level.

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13
Q

What are the six steps of risk management?

A

D-I-E-D-I-E: Don’t Insure Everything (Squared)

  1. Determine the objectives of the risk management program.
  2. Identify the risks to which the client is exposed.
  3. Evaluate the identified risks as to probability of occurrence and potential loss.
  4. Determine alternatives for managing risks, and select the most appropriate alternative for each.
  5. Implement the program.
  6. Evaluate, monitor, and review (control).
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14
Q

Which of the following methods of dealing with risk does not match its action?

a) Risk Avoidance: Wearing a hard hat on a construction site.
b) Risk Reduction: Installing a sprinkler system in a building.
c) Risk Transfer: Carrying automobile insurance.
d) Risk Retention: Health insurance policy deductibles.

A

Answer: A

Avoidance would mean not going anywhere near a construction site.

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15
Q

Savvy is 30 years old, a single mother of one child (age 9), making $25,000 per year as a secre-tary. Her net worth is zero. Savvy has two identified objectives:

  1. Provide for her child in the event of her death.
  2. Invest for retirement.

Which of the following insurance policies should Savvy purchase?

a) Whole life.
b) Universal variable.
c) Variable whole life.
d) Term life.

A

Answer: D

Savvy can only afford term life insurance and her primary goal is likely to provide for her child.

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16
Q

What are the five whole life insurance dividend options?

A

CRAP-O -> Cash option, Reduce premiums, Accumulate at interest, Paid-up additions, and Term (one-year).

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17
Q

What are the whole life insurance nonforfeiture options?

A

Cash Surrender Value

  • Insured receives the accumulated cash value when terminating the life insurance policy. The cash surrender value is the cash value less surrender charges.

Reduced Paid-up Insurance

  • Insured receives the cash value in the form of a paid-up policy with a smaller face amount.

Extended Term Insurance

  • The insured receives the cash value in the form of a paid-up term policy for a specified duration, with the same face amount as the original policy.
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18
Q

John, age 35, is married with two children ages 3 and 5. John has a need for life insurance throughout his lifetime. He has a significant income, but has saved very little. He has expressed concern over stock market volatility and he is very risk averse. Which of the following life insurance policies would provide John with a savings component, permanent protection and will match his risk tolerance?

a) Level Term.
b) Variable Universal.
c) Variable Life.
d) Whole Life.

A

Answer: D

Level term is not permanent insurance and does not have a savings component. Neither variable policy will match John’s risk tolerance. Whole life insurance provides permanent protection and a savings component.

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19
Q

Cindy, who is actually 45, has been lying about her age for the last 15-20 years and tells Conner, the insurance agent, that she is 30. She has a drivers license to support age 30. She buys $1M term life policy paying premiums of $1 per thousand. Age 45 premiums are $2.50 per thousand. Cindy dies in the first year. Which is correct?

a) Cindy’s beneficiaries collect $0 but get the premiums back because Cindy died.
b) Cindy’s beneficiaries collect $1M as long as her death was accidental.
c) Cindy’s beneficiaries collect $400,000, which is the policy value with premiums adjusted for actual age.
d) The policy is voidable for up to two years by the insurance company for fraud.

A

Answer: C

The face is adjusted for the correct premiums. Cindy is paying $1,000 = ($100,000 / $1,000) x $1. She should be paying $2.50 per $1,000, so the face is adjusted to $400,000 = $1,000 / 2.5 = $400 x $1,000 = $400,000.

20
Q

What is the tax deductibility of group life insurance premiums?

A

Premiums are not deductible for the insured, but premiums are deductible by the employer for group life insurance and those premiums are taxable income to the employee.

21
Q

Just prior to the payout period the amount of money that is available in the contract as principal paid in over the life of the annuity is determined at $200,000. The total annuity is currently valued at $360,000. The annuity payment is calculated at $24,000 per year. Our client wants to retire at age 65. The the IRS Tables multiplier from the IRS Table for age 65 is 15 (remaining life expectancy). What amount of the annuitant’s payment will be excluded from tax?

a) $1,111.11 until the principal amount has been exhausted.
b) $888.89 for the life of the annuitant.
c) $1,111.11 for the life of the annuitant.
d) $888.89 until the principal amount has been exhausted.

A

Answer: A

Divide the figure of paid-in principal ($200,000) by the figure of current cash in the annuity ($360,000).

$200,000 / $350,000 = 55.6% (this is the exclusion ratio)

The exclusion percentage is then applied to each monthly payment: $2,000 x 55.6% = $1,111.11 (of each payment is tax excluded)

22
Q

Walter is terminally ill and has a 20-year level term life insurance policy with a face value of $500,000. Walter has paid $15,000 in premiums over the last 10 years. Walter sells the term policy to a company that specializes in Viatical settlements. Walter sells the policy for $400,000. What is the tax impact to Walter and the Viatical settlement company at Walter’s death?

a) Walter has taxable income of $385,000, company has taxable income of $100,000.
b) Walter has taxable income of $400,000, company has taxable income of $100,000.
c) Walter has taxable income of $0, company has taxable income of $100,000.
d) Walter has taxable income of $0, company has taxable income of $500,000.

A

Answer: C

There is no taxable event to Walter and the Viatical settlement company has taxable income to the extent the policy proceeds exceed the amount paid for the policy.

23
Q

Tip!

A

For annuities after 1982 and premature withdrawals, the withdrawal receives LIFO tax treatment. Any annuity prior to 1982 receives FIFO tax treatment.

24
Q

Mary Pat, age 62, has an annuity worth $100,000 . Thirty-five years ago she purchased the annuity with $15,000. Today, she has a need for additional life insurance on her husband, Brad. Which of the following is the most appropriate strategy to provide Mary Pat with additional life insurance on her husband using her annuity?

a) Annuitize the annuity and purchase life insurance on Brad.
b) Surrender the annuity and purchase life insurance.
c) Exchange the annuity for a post-1987 annuity, then exchange for a life insurance policy.
d) Exchange the annuity for a life insurance policy.

A

Answer: A

Annuities cannot be exchanged for a life insurance policy on a tax-free basis. The best choice is to just annuitize the annuity and use the income to purchase additional life insurance.

25
Q

Let’s assume that covered expense charges were $10,000 for an insured with a $250 deductible and an 80/20 coinsurance with a $5,000 stop loss limit. The payments would be divided between insurer and insured how?

a) Insured pays $5,250; Insurer pays $4,750.
b) Insured pays $8,750; Insurer pays $1,250.
c) Insured pays $2,200; Insurer pays $7,800.

) Insured pays $4,750; Insurer pays $4,250.

A

Answer: C

26
Q

John has a group medical policy with the following provisions: A $250 deductible, 80/20 coin-surance and an out-of-pocket limit of $1,000, after which the insurance company pays 100%. John is injured in a biking accident and incurs $6,250 in medical expenses. How much will John have to pay?

a) $1,000.
b) $1,250.
c) $1,450.
d) $8,000.

A

Answer: A

27
Q

What is the $1,000 catch-up age for HSAs?

A

The catch-up contribution for HSAs is for those 55 and older, not the typical 50 and over we see for IRA catch-up contributions.

28
Q

What are the penalties for early withdrawal from an HSA?

A
  • Distributions for non-qualified medical expenses are subject to income tax and a 20% penalty if taken before age 65.
  • Distributions for non-qualified medical expensed are subject to income tax only at 65 or older.
  • The penalty for non-qualified medical expense distributions ends at 65, not 59 1⁄2 like the rules for qualified plans and IRAs.
29
Q

What are the timeframes for COBRA coverage?

A

Memorize the 18 months for a reduction in hours or normal termination and that all others (death of employee, divorce, legal separation, eligibility for medicare, loss of dependent status) are 36 months. If CFP Board tests any event other than a reduction in hours or normal termination, then it will be 36 months.

30
Q

Phil was employed by a large manufacturing company with well over 5,000 employees. Phil had family coverage under the company’s group health care plan. Phil died in the current year. Which of the following statements is correct based upon any COBRA election for Phil’s depen-dents?

a) Phil’s wife and minor children are eligible for 18 months of COBRA coverage.
b) Phil’s wife and minor children are eligible for 36 months of COBRA coverage.
c) Phil’s wife and minor children are not eligible for COBRA coverage.
d) Phil’s wife and minor children are eligible for 29 months of COBRA coverage.

A

Answer: B

All catastrophic events qualify for 36 months of COBRA coverage. Death of the insured is con-sidered a catastrophic event, along with divorce, legal separation and loss of dependent status.

31
Q

WJG Inc, has 25 full-time employees, but only 15 are covered under the group health care plan. Which of the following statements is true?

a) WJG is not required to offer COBRA because only 15 employees participate in the group health care plan.
b) WJG is required to offer COBRA because they have 20 or more employees.
c) WJG is allowed to charge 105% of actual premiums for anyone who elects COBRA coverage.
d) WJG can offer COBRA to the employees who are not participating in the group health care plan.

A

Answer: B

The requirement is that a company that has 20 or more employees must offer COBRA, regard-less of the number of employees participating in the plan. WJG can charge up to 102% of the premiums. COBRA can only be offered to employees who are participating in the group health care plan.

32
Q

Which of the following is/are correct?

  1. LTC policies are designed to pay for skilled nursing care, intermediate care, custodial care and home care.
  2. LTC polices are designed to provide coverage for major medical expenses including extended care in an intensive care unit.
  3. An LTC policy must be non-cancelable to qualify for deductibility.
  4. There is a cap on the amount of LTC premiums that can be deducted.

a) 1 and 2 only.
b) 1 and 4 only.
c) 2 and 3 only.
d) 3 and 4 only.

A

Answer: B

Deductibility limits are based upon age. LTC policies must be qualified to be deductible, not Noncancellable. Note – deductible premium amount included in medical expense deduction threshold of 10% of AGI.

33
Q

How are disability insurance benefits taxed?

A
  • If EMPLOYEE pays the premium with AFTER-TAX dollars:
    • Premiums are Not Deductible;
    • Benefits ARE Tax Free.
  • If EMPLOYER pays the premium:
    • Premiums ARE Deductible to Employer
    • Benefits to Employee ARE TAXED
  • If EMPLOYEE pays premium with PRE-TAX dollars (cafeteria plan):
    • Benefits to employee ARE TAXED.
34
Q

Mike earns $18,000 a month as a physician. He becomes disabled under an own occupation definition policy with a 50% of prior wages clause because he lost his hearing in a hunting acci-dent. He returns to work as a researcher making $3,000 per month, a reduction in income of 83.33%. He has a residual benefit provision in his disability policy that calls for monthly bene-fits of $12,000. What will be his total income per month including any residual benefits?

a) $3,000 one-time payment.
b) $12,000, the greater of his salary or the disability benefits.
c) $13,000, the $3,000 plus $10,000 from the residual.
d) $15,000, the $12,000 plus the $3,000.

A

Answer: C

Mike gets (83.333 x $12,000) + $3,000 = $13,000.

35
Q

What are the tax implications of insurance coverage for employers and employees?

A
36
Q

What are the three main types of homeowner’s insurance policies, and what do they cover?

A

Basic, Broad, and Open Perils Policies

Basic and broad policies are “named perils” polices. Losses resulting from perils not specifically “named” are not covered. An open perils (or “all-risks) policy covers “all perils” except those that are specifically excluded.

Basic:

  1. Fire
  2. Vehicles (damage caused by vehicles)
  3. Lightning
  4. Smoke
  5. Windstorm
  6. Vandalism or malicious mischief
  7. Hail
  8. Explosions
  9. Riots or civil commotion
  10. Theft
  11. Aircraft
  12. Volcanic eruptions

Broad (All of the above, plus)

  1. Falling objects
  2. The weight of ice, snow, sleet
  3. Accidental discharge or overflow of water or steam
  4. Sudden and accidental cracking, burning, bulging of appliances
  5. Freezing of plumbing, heating, air conditioning, fire sprinkler system, or appliance
  6. Sudden and accidental damage from artificially generated electrical currents
37
Q

What are the perils generally excluded from homeowners’ policies?

A

A ‘rule of thumb” is that covered losses must result from something that is “sudden and accidental.” Losses associated with neglect and intentional acts of the insured are not covered.

  • Movement of the ground (earthquake, ground movement from volcanic eruption, mud/landslide, and sink hole)
  • Ordinance or law regulating the construction, repair or demolition of a building or structure
  • Damage from rising water (including floods; surface and tidal water; waves; water below the surface that exerts pressure on buildings, structures, and improvements; and water backing up through drains and sewers)
  • War
  • Nuclear hazards (including radiation or radioactive contamination)
  • Power failure caused by an uninsured peril (such as spoilage due to a freezer thawing out)
  • Intentional acts
  • Neglect
38
Q

Your home is covered by an open perils policy. Which of the following losses would be covered under your policy?

a) Termite damage
b) Your angry neighbor throws a brick through your glass door
c) Flood damage
d) Earthquake damage

A

Answer: B

Intentional acts of the insured are excluded from coverage. Intentional acts committed by some-one else are covered.

39
Q

Tip!

A

Other structures that are used for business purposes are not covered under a homeowners policy. Separate business coverage must be obtained for these structures.

40
Q
A
41
Q

Tip!

A

A client without an Umbrella policy, or with one too low to meet the underlying policy limits, is considered to have a deficiency in their plan that needs to be addressed.

42
Q

How much does a retiree’s benefit increase by each year the retiree delays their benefit?

A

8% (simple interest)

43
Q

What are the ways in which Social Security benefits can be reduced or taxed?

A

Early retirement

  • The benefit is reduced $1 for every $2 above the earnings threshold for persons below full retirement age.
  • Threshold: $18,960 (Annual limit, monthly test).

Full Retirement Age

  • In the year in which you reach the age of retirement the benefit is reduced $1 for every $3 above the earnings threshold.
  • Threshold: $50,250 (Annual limit, monthly test).
  • Earnings based reductions end at full retirement age.

Taxation of Social Security Benefit

  • Up to 85% of benefit may be taxed.
  • Thresholds are based upon Combined Income.
  • Combined Income includes:
    • AGI.
    • Nontaxable interest.
    • Foreign earned income.
    • 1/2 of retirement benefit
44
Q

Tip!

A

Social Security Survivorship Coverage: Children under 18 (under 19 if in secondary school) are always covered as are caretakers of children under 16.

45
Q

What does Medicare Part B NOT cover?

A
  • Dental care, dentures.
  • Cosmetic surgery.
  • Hearing aids.
  • Eye exams.