Basics & Fundamentals Flashcards

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1
Q

Calc setup steps?

A

— 1, downshift, PMT (P/YR) for 1 period per year
— downshift, = (DISP), 4 for four decimals
— upshift, ON (Alg/Chain) for chain mode
— downshift, C (C ALL)
— check Beg/End, adjust as appropriate for question

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2
Q

Examples of annuity due (Beg mode)?

A

Tuition payments, retirement income, rent payments.

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3
Q

Examples of ordinary annuity (End mode)?

A

All debt payments, like mortgage, car, credit card.

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4
Q

NPV = ?

A

NPV = Present Value of the Cash Flows – Cost or Initial Investment

An NPV of zero indicates that the cash inflows and the cash outflows of the investment are identical, and exactly ade-quate to repay the invested capital. Additionally, for mutually exclusive projects one should select the project with the highest NPV. This is the decision rule applied unless capital rationing is a consideration, in which case the most affordable project with the highest NPV should be selected.

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5
Q

Real Rate of Return Formula

A
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6
Q

Karen, a CFP® professional, is disappointed about the disclosure requirements of the CFP Board Code of Ethics. Karen voices her opinion by publishing a negative article about the CFP® certification on an industry website. Has Karen possibly violated the CFP Board Code of Conduct?

a) Yes, Karen has violated the duty of loyalty owed to CFP Board.
b) Yes, Karen has acted in a manner the does not reflect positively on the CFP® certification.
c) No, Karen’s action is outside the financial planning process.
d) No, only public media outlets are reviewed by CFP Board

A

Answer: B

The Code of Ethics requires a CFP® Professional to act in a manner that reflects positively on the financial planning profession and CFP® Certification. An article attacking the CFP® certification may be seen as in conflict with this standard. A is incorrect, the duty of loyalty extends to clients, not CFP Board. C is incorrect, the Code of Ethics addresses the professional conduct of a CFP® professional, not only their activity as a financial planner. D is incorrect, the Code of Ethics does not specifically outline or characterize media outlets.

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7
Q

Car Mutual appoints licensed agents to sell proprietary auto and homeowners policies. Car Mutual requires agent exclusivity, pays agents commissions for selling their products and top agents are paid additional bonus compensation and invited for an all expense paid Hawaiian vacation. Which best describes a CFP® Professionals ability to engage Car Mutual?

a) As a fiduciary a CFP® professional is prohibited from selling proprietary products.
b) A CFP® professional must provide holistic financial planning advice and is unable to work exclusively with a property casualty insurance company.
c) With appropriate disclosure and mitigating conflicts of interest, CFP® professional can be appointed as an agent of Car Mutual, but cannot participate in insurance-based reward trips.
d) With appropriate disclosure and mitigating conflicts of interest, a CFP® professional can be appointed as an agent and participate in insurance-based reward trips.

A

Answer: D

A CFP® professional can participate in commission and reward trip arrangements. They must act objectively and as a fiduciary, manage and disclose the conflicts of interest that accompany a reward trip and disclose their compensation model. A is incorrect, a CFP® Professional is not prohibited from selling proprietary products as long as they disclose compensation model and mitigate conflicts of interest. B is incorrect, a CFP® Professional is not required to offer com-prehensive planning services. C is incorrect, reward-based trips are considered a source of com-pensation. With appropriate disclosure and managing conflicts of interest a CFP® professional could attend. The potential for the trip must be shared as a compensation source with the client.

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8
Q

Stan is a CFP® Professional employed by a federally covered investment adviser. Stan mistyped client information into a financial planning software package; the error resulted in overestimat-ing a client’s insurance need. Once discovered, Stan contacted the client, informed them of the error and adjusted his recommendation. Has Stan violated the CFP Board Standards of Conduct?

a) Yes, Stan has violated his obligation of integrity to the client.
b) Yes, Stan has violated his obligation of competence to the client.
c) Yes, Stan has violated his obligation of diligence to the client.
d) No, an allowance is made for innocent error. Stan has not made a violation.

A

Answer: D

Standards of Conduct allow innocent error. A is incorrect, the obligation of integrity allows innocent errors without becoming a violation. B is incorrect, competence requires knowledge and relevant skill to apply the knowledge. C is incorrect, diligence requires delivering profes-sional services and responding in a professional manner.

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9
Q

Yu Yan is a CFP® professional and also a state registered investment adviser. She plans an annual luxury cruise for her top clients. While she is on the cruise, Yu Yan will host investment and retirement planning workshops. If more than ten of her clients commit and pay for the cruise, Yu Yan will receive a complimentary suite from the cruise line. If fewer than ten clients attend Yu Yan will have to pay for her room. Which best describes Yu Yan’s obligation to her clients disclosing her arrangement with the cruise line?

a) The conflict of interest is not material and does not need to be disclosed.
b) Yu Yan should disclose the conflict prior to the client’s booking their cruises.
c) Yu Yan is prohibited from accepting a suite from the cruise line.
d) This conflict should be mitigated and Yu Yan consider alternative venues.

A

Answer: B

Conflicts of interest must be disclosed and managed. Disclosing the arrangement to her client is sufficient mitigation. The clients attending the cruise are not likely to be harmed by attending. A is incorrect, the cruise arrangement presents a conflict of interest that should be disclosed and managed. C is incorrect, the arrangement does not cause harm, but should be disclosed and man-aged. D is incorrect, the arrangement does not cause harm, but should be disclosed and man-aged.

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10
Q

A CFP® professional refers clients to a local accountant with a reputation of aggressively lower-ing client federal income tax obligations. The accountant has clients sign a nondisclosure agree-ment preventing the CFP® professional from understanding the techniques, credits and deductions taken. Which best describes a potential violation of the CFP Board Standards of Conduct.

a) The professional is violating the standard of Complying with the Law
b) The professional is violating the standard of Professionalism
c) The professional is violating the standard of Competence
d) The professional is not violating the CFP Board Standards of Conduct

A

Answer: A

The CFP® professional cannot recklessly assist in another’s violation of the standards. By not knowing what strategies are taken the CFP® professional should cease recommending clients to the accountant. B is incorrect, professionalism requires the CFP® professional to treat clients and other professionals with dignity, courtesy and respect. C is incorrect, competence requires a CFP® professional to apply sound knowledge. D is incorrect, referring clients to the accountant is reckless, violating the standards of conduct.

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11
Q

Luke is a CFP® professional and also a licensed real estate agent. Luke charges hourly fees for financial planning as a state registered investment adviser and receives commissions for real estate sales from his real estate agency. Luke recently met two new prospects, Ben and Maria, at a cocktail party. Ben and Maria meet Luke at his real estate broker’s office, and talk about downsizing into a newer home. They share that their children have recently left for college and they would like to funnel more resources towards saving for retirement instead of a mortgage. Luke uses a finan-cial calculator to briefly analyze their cash flow and establish their debt service and liquidity ratios. After the meeting Luke sets a second appointment to look at five houses that meet Ben and Maria’s criteria. Which best describes Luke’s relationship to the Financial Planning Practice Standards outline in the CFP Board Code of Ethics and Standards of Conduct?

a) Luke is representing Ben and Maria as a Realtor and is not required to follow the finan-cial planning practice standards, even if he charges a fee for their initial meeting.
b) Ben and Maria are responsible for determining if the engagement falls within the scope of financial planning.
c) Luke is subject to the practice standards because he is providing integrative financial advice.
d) Luke is subject to the practice standards only if he receives a commission from repre-senting Ben and Maria in a real estate transaction.

A

Answer: C
Luke is subject to practice standards because he integrated financial information and is working towards a meaningful (housing) purchase. A is incorrect, compensation does not dictate if Luke is practicing financial planning. B is incorrect, Luke should determine the scope of the relation-ship and CFP Board is the final arbitrator if financial planning occurred. D is incorrect financial planning occurred well before any commission will be paid.

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12
Q

Mary (55) is currently saving $500 every paycheck (bi-weekly) through her employer retirement plan. Her employer matches 100% of her contribution and Mary is vested in the plan and has selected a life-cycle mutual fund currently invested in 70% stocks and 30% bonds. Mary is a risk tolerant investor. Mary engages Stephanie, a CFP® Professional, to review her retirement journey. Stephanie performs a calculation on her financial calculator and determines Mary should increase her contribution to $600 every paycheck and invest in a less aggressive mutual fund. Is Stephanie possibly in violation of the CFP Board Practice Standards?

a) No, Stephanie gathered information and goals before performing an analysis.
b) No, Stephanie considered qualitative and quantitative data in her analysis.
c) Yes, Stephanie did not consider the advantages and disadvantages of Mary’s current retirement savings plan.
d) Yes, Stephanie used a financial calculator rather than a software tool.

A

Answer: C

Stephanie should consider a current plan of action as well as a recommended plan. A is not the best answer, while the process was followed elements of each step are not complete. B is not the best answer, the question does not indicate qualitative factors were considered. D is not the best answer, practice standards do not require a specific tool.

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13
Q

When is a CFP® Professional who is also a licensed insurance agent required to review calculations used to determine a death benefit amount with their client?

a) When gathering qualitative and quantitative information.
b) When analyzing current life insurance coverage
c) Before developing a life insurance recommendation
d) Before implementing a life insurance recommendation

A

Answer: D

Communicate before implementing. A, B, and C are not a correct or appropriate placement of communicating with the client.

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14
Q

Amar, an agent of a regional broker-dealer, has recently been suspended by CFP Board for six months. His suspension is a result of repeatedly incorrectly identifying himself as a fee-only financial planner. Which best describes Amar’s obligation to his employer relating to this sus-pension?

a) Amar must report the suspension, cause and investigation paperwork to his employer within thirty days.
b) Amar can report the suspension to his employer by calling his compliance hotline.
c) Amar must report the suspension promptly in writing to his employer.
d) Amar is not required to report the suspension to his employer as long as he is not paid a regular salary.

A

Answer: C

Amar is required to promptly notify his employer of the suspension. Amar’s status as an agent paid on commissions does not change his obligation. A is incorrect, Amar is not required to sub-mit additional information to his employer beyond a notice of suspension. B is incorrect, Amar must notify his employer promptly in writing. D is incorrect, Amar is an employee as he is appointed and an agent of the firm.

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15
Q

Which of the following is considered a felony by CFP Board?

a) Class “D” driving reckless driving citation resulting in a fine of $5,000
b) Driving under the influence citation resulting in one month in jail
c) Federal income tax lien of $100,000
d) Charge of Perjury during a federal trial, resulting in a week of detention and $500 fine

A

Answer: A

CFP Board defines a felony as an offense punishable by one year or more in jail or over a $1,000 fine. B is incorrect, this would be characterized as a misdemeanor. C is incorrect, this would be characterized as a lien. D is incorrect, this would be characterized as a misdemeanor.

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16
Q

Scott is a CFP® Professional and a CPA. He was listed by name in a federal income tax investi-gation for fraud. Which best describes Scott’s obligation to CFP Board?

a) If the investigation is a result of his accounting practice, Scott does not need to disclose the investigation to CFP Board.
b) Scott does not need to disclose the investigation, but will need to disclose the result in writing within thirty days.
c) Scott needs to disclose the investigation within thirty days. He will also need to dis-close any eventual plea deal, conviction or civil outcome to CFP Board.
d) Scott needs to disclose the investigation within thirty days, but by doing so eliminates any requirements to disclose an outcome.

A

Answer: C

Scott must disclose both the investigation and any negative consequence. Both disclosures must be in writing and made promptly (within 30 days). A is incorrect, accounting is a professional service. B is incorrect, Scott must disclose both the investigation and result. D is incorrect, Scott must disclose both the investigation and result.

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17
Q

Which of the following is the proper use of the CFP® marks?

a) Mark is a CFP®
b) Our firm has 10 CFPs on staff.
c) Sam Jacobs, CFP® works at our firm.
d) Cory is a certified financial planner.

A

Answer: C

a. The mark is not followed by an approved noun. b. The mark may not be used to refer to a group, but one person directly, and cannot be pluralized. d. If writing out the certification, it should be all caps with the trademark noted. Writing out CFP Board does not require the registered or trademark noted.

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18
Q

A CFP® certificant must disclose compensation:

a) Once, during engagement letter.
b) Annually.
c) Ongoing, as necessitated by services and products provided.
d) Every meeting with the client.

A

Answer: C

Duties when representing compensation require a CFP® professional to be clear and not make any false statements about their compensation. At the time of engagement a CFP® professional must provide a description of services, compensation description and conflict of interest disclosure. This disclosure is ongoing as new products and services are introduced to a financial planning relationship.

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19
Q

Steve, a CFP® professional, works for a firm which requires any insurance products offered be limited to proprietary products of the firm. Which of the following are true according to the CFP Board Code of Ethics?

I. Steve is prohibited from engaging in financial planning relationships because he is unable to uphold the duty of loyalty and act as a fiduciary.
II. Steve may engage in financial planning and receive sales based compensation. Steve’s propri-etary relationship with his employer is not a material conflict of interest and he is not required to disclose his compensation arrangement to clients.
III. Steve may engage in financial planning and receive sales based compensation. Steve’s pro-prietary relationship with his employer is likely a material conflict of interest and he is required to disclose this conflict to his clients.
IV. Steve is prohibited from engaging in financial planning relationships because he is unable to uphold the duty of care and act as a fiduciary.

a) I Only
b) III Only
c) II and IV
d) III and IV

A

Answer: B

Steve is required to disclose material conflicts of interest. Constraints limiting Steve to sell pro-prietary products could potential harm his client and is material. Written consent is not required. Steve must act as a fiduciary and can likely do so even with proprietary products.

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20
Q

Conduct Deemed Unacceptable and will ALWAYS bar an individual from becoming certified …

A
  • Felony conviction for theft, embezzlement or other financially based crimes.
  • Felony conviction for tax fraud or other tax-related crimes.
  • Revocation of a financial professional (registered securities representative, broker/dealer, insurance, accountant, investment advisor, financial planner) license, unless the revocation is administrative in nature.
    • Example of administrative revocation: the result of the individual determining not to renew the license by not paying the required fees.
  • Felony conviction for any degree of murder or rape.
  • Felony conviction for any other violent crime within the last five years.
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21
Q

Conduct Deemed a Presumptive Bar and is PRESUMED to be unacceptable …

A
  • Two or more personal or business bankruptcies.
  • Revocation or suspension of a nonfinancial professional (real estate, attorney) license, unless the revocation is administrative in nature.
  • Suspension of a financial professional (registered securities representative, broker/dealer, insurance, accountant, investment advisor, financial planner) license, unless the suspension is administrative in nature.
  • Felony conviction for nonviolent crimes (including perjury) within the last five years.
  • Felony conviction for violent crimes other than murder or rape that occurred more than five years ago.
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22
Q

Paul recently applied for CFP® Certification. Which of the following would always bar him from certification?

a) Revocation of a financial professional license.
b) Felony conviction for perjury last year.
c) Felony conviction for aggravated assault 7 years ago.
d) Prior revocation of a real estate license.

A

Answer: A

Revocation of a financial professional license is on the always bar list. All others are on the pre-sumed list.

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23
Q

If a potential client implies that they are unable to confide certain elements of their business to you during the fact finding phase of the interview, what should you do?

a) Continue and hope they will answer your questions later.
b) Fill in the blank spaces using estimates.
c) Call the authorities and report possible illegal activities.
d) Thank them for their time, close up the interview and do not engage them as clients.

A

Answer: D

If a client does not feel comfortable discussing details which may be pertinent to developing a final plan with a planner, then this is not a relationship that should be pursued.

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24
Q

A husband and wife come into your office to hire you as their planner. After the meeting the husband pulls you aside and advises that he is going to divorce his wife but wants to retain your services for himself. He asks you not to tell his wife. What do you do?

a) Accept current engagement with husband and wife, and don’t tell the wife.
b) Disengage from husband and wife and don’t accept the engagement.
c) Accept engagement and tell the wife about your conversation with her husband.
d) Call a divorce attorney and advise husband and wife of your actions.

A

Answer: B

Put both clients’ interest ahead of your own. By accepting them both as clients, you will have an inherent conflict of interest, as you cannot serve in the best interest of both of them.

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25
Q

Investment Advisor

A

An investment advisor knows their ABC’s! -> Advice, Business, Compensation

An investment adviser is defined for purposes of the Investment Advisors Act of 1940 as someone who is: (1) in the business (2) of providing advice about securities (3) for compensation.

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26
Q

Exceptions to Registration with the SEC

A

The most important rules are the first two exceptions. The exception is that TABLEs are incidental! -> Teachers, Accountants, Brokers, Lawyers, and Engineers.

The following need not register under, and generally are not regulated by, the Advisers Act:

  • Any broker/dealer whose advisory services are solely incidental to the conduct of business.
  • Lawyers, accountants, teachers and engineers whose advice is solely incidental to their profession.
  • Banks and bank holding companies that are not investment companies.
  • Publisher of a bonafide newspaper, magazine or periodical of regular circulation.
  • Advisors whose advice and services is related strictly to securities guaranteed by the United States.
  • Such person not within the intent of the law as the SEC may designate by rules, regulations or order.
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27
Q

Exemptions from SEC Registration

A

“VIPs are SaFE from exemptions” -> Venture capital, Insurance companies, Private funds less than $150 million, home State, Foreign advisors, and securities not on a national Exchange

The following meet the definition of investment advisor, but are not required to register. They are subject to the anti-fraud provisions of the Act.

  • Advisors whose clients reside in their state of business and who do not provide advice, services, analysis or reports regarding nationally listed securities.
  • Advisors not providing advice about securities traded on a national exchange.
  • Advisors whose only clients are insurance companies.
  • Advisors solely to venture capital funds.
  • Advisors solely to private funds less than $150 million.
  • Foreign advisors without a place of business in the US.
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28
Q

Accredited Investor

A

To be an accredited investor you must meet the 1, or 2, 3 test! $1 million, or $200,000 of income if single, or $300,000 of spousal income.

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29
Q

CFP Practice Standards for the Financial Planning Process (7 Steps)

A

U-I-A-D-P-I-M-> Uber is a Drunk Person’s Immediate Motor-vehicle!

  1. Understanding the Client’s Personal and Financial Circumstances
  2. Identifying and Selecting Goals
  3. Analyzing the Client’s Current Course of Action and Potential Alternative Course(s) ofAction
  4. Developing the Financial Planning Recommendation(s)
  5. Presenting the Financial Planning Recommendation(s)
  6. Implementing the Financial Planning Recommendation(s)
  7. Monitoring Progress and Updating
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30
Q

Life Insurance Benchmark?

A

10-16 x gross pay

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31
Q

LTC Benchmark?

A

Policy with inflation protection covering 36-60 months

32
Q

Housing Benchmarks?

A

28 and 36:

  • ​Housing: 28% = PITI/Monthly Gross Income
  • Housing + all other debt: 36% = (PITI + Recurring Debt Payments)/Monthly Gross Income
33
Q

Retirement Benchmarks?

A
  • Amount (16 x Pre-Retirement Income)
  • Savings Rate (10-12%) for Retirement
  • Return (8-10%)
  • expected Risk/standard deviation (8-14%) for a diversified portfolio
34
Q

Estate/Legacy Benchmarks?

A
  • Will
  • Durable Power of Attorney for Healthcare
  • Advanced Medical Directive
35
Q

Education Planning Benchmark?

A

$3,000/$6,000/$9,000 per child per year for 18 years

36
Q

Debt Benchmarks?

A
  • Goodz; a 15-year mortgage or 3-year car loan
  • Reasonable: a 30-year mortgage or 5-year car loan
  • Bad: carrying credit card debt each month
37
Q

Business Life Cycle

A
38
Q

Business Life Cycle: Investments

A

Expansion

  • Investments should be in short-duration bonds and equities.

Peak

  • Since interest rates are increasing to cut off inflation; bonds, preferred stock, and other high-duration or fixed income assets should be sold. Equities and hard assets, such as gold and real estate, tend to perform well in this environment.

Contraction/Recession

  • Equities and hard assets should be sold and reinvested into short-term cash and bonds until the market settles out.

Trough

  • High-duration bonds will tend to perform well as bond yields drop and interest rates continue to fall. Stock purchases late in the cycle should be considered if valuations seem appropriate.
39
Q

During a period of recession/contraction, which of the following would be true?

  1. The supply of goods and services would be decreasing.
  2. Interest rates would be decreasing.
  3. Unemployment would be decreasing.
  4. Inflation would be decreasing.

a) 1, 2 and 3.
b) 1 and 3.
c) 1, 2, 3, and 4.
d) 1, 2 and 4.
e) 1 and 2.

A

Answer: D

  1. The supply of goods and services would be decreasing.
  2. Interest rates would be decreasing.
  3. Unemployment would be decreasing – would be increasing.
  4. Inflation would be decreasing.
40
Q

Length of Time Associated with Recession vs. Depression?

A

Recession = 6 months / 2 quarters

Depression = 18 months / 6 quarters

41
Q

Formula to Measure Inflation

A

Inflation = (Price level (year x) – Price level (year x – 1)) / Price level (year x – 1)

Stated differently …

Inflation = (new price - original price) / original price

42
Q

Interest Rates

A

Interest rates represent the cost of “buying” or borrowing money. As money becomes scarce (or the money supply decreases) it becomes more expensive in the form of interest rates to “buy” or borrow money. Be sure to understand the relationship between the money supply and interest rates.

43
Q

Federal Reserve and Monetary Policy: Four Tools

A

The Federal Reserve does not control the prime lending rate. The discount rate is the rate that member banks will borrow from the Federal Reserve. The Fed Funds Rate is the overnight borrowing rate between member banks.

  1. Reserve Requirement (First Tool).
    • The reserve requirement is a percentage of deposits a bank must maintain in cash.
    • As the reserve requirement increases, there’s less cash available to lend; therefore, the money supply decreases and interest rates increase.
    • As the reserve requirement decreases, there’s more cash available to lend; therefore, the money supply increases and interest rates decrease.
  2. Discount Rate (Second Tool).
    • The discount rate is the overnight interest rate at which member banks can borrow from the Federal Reserve to meet their reserve requirements.
    • As the discount rate increases, short-term interest rates increase.
    • As the discount rate decreases, short-term interest rates decrease.
  3. Open Market Operations (Third Tool).
    • As the Federal Reserve buys or sells government securities, the money supply is influenced and places pressure on interest rates.
    • As the Federal Reserve buys Treasuries, money supply increases and interest rates decrease.
    • As the Federal Reserve sells Treasuries, money supply decreases and interest rates increase.
  4. Excess Reserves (Fourth Tool)
    • Excess reserves are monies that a bank holds at the Federal Reserve (or central bank) in excess of the required reserve amount.
    • In 2008, under the Economic Stabilization Act, the Federal Reserve began paying interest on excess reserves.
44
Q

Which of the following is a fiscal policy used by the Congress that influences the money supply and interest rates?

a) Prime Lending Rate.
b) Open Market Operations.
c) Discount Rate.
d) Debt Management.

A

Answer: D

Choices B and C are examples of monetary policy which is controlled by the Federal Reserve. Prime lending rate is not part of monetary or fiscal policy.

45
Q

A client had five credit cards in his wallet when the wallet was stolen. He reported the cards as missing the next morning, but the following transactions had already occurred:

Discover Card$ 350
MasterCard $100
VISA $425
Sears $25
Marshall Fields $685

How much is the client’s expected liability for the fraudulent transactions on these cards? (CFP® Certification Examination, released 11/94)

a) $50.
b) $225.
c) $250.
d) $1,235.

A

Answer: B

Discover Card: $350 -> $50 (Max Liability)

MasterCard: $100 -> $50 (Max Liability)

VISA: $425 -> $50 (Max Liability)

Sears: $25 -> $25 (Only $25 charged)

Marshall Fields: $685 -> $50 (Max Liability)

46
Q

Bankruptcy: Chapter 7

A

Provides relief through liquidation.

Below are examples of debts that are not discharged through Chapter 7:

  • Students and Government loans.
  • 3 years of back taxes.
  • Alimony and Child support.
  • Monies owed due to malicious acts, drunk driving, criminal fines and penalties, or embezzlement.

Exempt property:

  • homestead, life insurance, qualified plans

Debts related to fraud are not discharged but debts associated with negligence are discharged.

Contributory Traditional and Roth IRAs are exempt assets, up to $1 million as indexed every three years. Filings between April 1, 2019 and March 31, 2022 with have $1,362,800 in protection.

  • IRAs Inherited by a non-spousal beneficiary will have no bankruptcy protection (unless a trust is named).

Qualified plans along with converted IRAs have an unlimited exemption. Converted IRAs (aka rollover) must be clearly marked rollover and have no other contributions commingled.

Bankruptcy filing may remain on the credit report for up to 10 years.

Means testing began in October 2005 to determine if a debtor would be permitted to file for Chapter 7 Bankruptcy protection.

  • If the debtor’s average monthly income for their region is in excess of the threshold they cannot file for Chapter 7.
47
Q

Orenthal James Sampson lost a wrongful death lawsuit and was ordered to pay the plaintiff $5 million dollars. As a result of the lawsuit, Mr. Sampson filed for bankruptcy. Which of the fol-lowing assets are exempt from his creditors?

  1. A Roth IRA worth $900,000.
  2. A rollover IRA from a 401(k) worth $3.5 million.
  3. Football memorabilia worth $1.5 million.
  4. A brokerage account worth $2 million.

a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) 3 and
4. d) 1 and 2.

A

Answer: D

A Roth IRA up to $1,362,800 million is exempt. A rollover IRA has unlimited protection from creditors.

48
Q

All of the following will be discharged in bankruptcy except:

a) Tort claim as a result of personal negligence.
b) Consumer credit card debt.
c) A claim arising out of a breach of contract.
d) Child support.

A

Answer: D

49
Q
A
50
Q

Securities Act of 1933

A
  • Regulates new issues of securities in the primary market.
  • The primary market is the securities market where new issues are sold to the public for the first time.
  • New issues constitute initial public offerings.
51
Q

Securities Act of 1934

A
  • Regulates secondary markets
  • Secondary markets constitute the buying and selling of securities that were previously sold in the primary market.
  • Established the SEC, whose primary function is to regulate the securities market.
52
Q

Securities Investor Protection Act of 1970

A
  • Created Securities Investor Protection Corporation (SIPC)
  • Provides coverage if a broker-dealer becomes insolvent or if there is unauthorized trading in an investor’s account.
53
Q

Tip!

A

Life cycle position may be important in a case question when determining a client’s goals, needs, strengths and weaknesses.

54
Q

Identify where an account balance appears on the balance sheet. What are some examples of cash & cash equivalents, invested assets, personal use assets, current and long-term liabilities?

A

Cash & Cash Equivalents, or Current Assets

  • Examples include: cash, checking, money market, CD (12 months or less maturity).
  • Includes laddered CDs set to mature every 6 months.
  • Includes anything that the client expects to convert to cash within one year.
  • Does not include EE savings bonds.

Invested Assets

  • Examples include: stocks, bonds, mutual funds, retirement accounts, business ownership and any assets maturing in greater than 12 months.

Personal Use Assets

  • Examples include: personal residence, car, furniture, boat and clothing.
  • Include any assets used to maintain the client’s lifestyle.

Current Liabilities:

  • Obligations that are due within the next 12 months.
  • It excludes interest unless already incurred.
    • For example, includes credit cards, taxes payable and any unpaid bills such as utilities, cable, cell phone bills, etc. •

Long-Term Liabilities:

  • The remaining balance on any outstanding debt beyond 12 months.
  • For example, includes the outstanding balance on a loan for the client’s house, car, boat or any other outstanding loan.
55
Q

Which of the following is not a current asset or current liability?

  1. Laddered CDs maturing within the year.
  2. Credit card debt.
  3. EE savings bonds.
  4. IRA.
  5. Taxes payable.

a) 1, 2, 3, and 5.
b) 3 and 4.
c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
d) 1, 2 and 4

A

Answer: B

EE savings bonds are not considered a current asset. An IRA and EE savings bonds are consid-ered an invested asset. All other are considered a current asset or current liability.

56
Q

Assuming the following transactions, what was the change in net worth?

  • Purchased $10,000 of furniture on credit cards.
  • Stocks in a brokerage account increased by $5,000.
  • Spent $2,000 in cash on a vacation to Aruba. Purchased a $30,000 car with 10% down in cash and financed the remaining portion.

a) $0.
b) .
c) $3,000.
d) $5,000.

A

Answer: C

  • Purchased $10,000 of furniture on credit cards:
    • Personal Use Asset (PUA) + $10,000 - Liabilities +$10,000 = 0 change in net worth
  • Stocks in a brokerage account increased by $5,000:
    • Invested Assets +$5,000 – Liabilities 0 = Net Worth +$5,000
  • Spent $2,000 in cash on a vacation to Aruba:
    • Current Assets -$2,000 – Liabilities 0 = Net Worth - $2,000
  • Purchased a $30,000 car with 10% down in cash and financed the remaining portion:
    • Current Assets -$3,000 + PUA + $30,000 – Liabilities +$27,000 = 0 change in Net Worth
57
Q

Six months ago, a client purchased a new bedroom suite for $6,500. For purposes of preparing accurate financial statements, this purchase would appear as a (an): (CFP® Certification Exam-ination, 11/94)

  1. Use asset on the client’s net worth statement.
  2. Investment asset on the client’s net worth statement.
  3. Variable outflow on a client’s historic cash flow statement.
  4. Fixed outflow on the client’s cash flow statement.

a) 1, 2 and 3.
b) 1 and 3.
c) 2 and 4.
d) 4 only.
e) 1, 2, 3, and 4

A

Answer: B

  1. Use asset on the client’s net worth statement. aka balance sheet Absolutely!
  2. Investment asset on the client’s net worth statement. Not an investment asset.
  3. Variable outflow on a client’s historic cash flow statement. Must use this answer.
  4. Fixed outflow on the client’s cash flow statement. Not a recurring outflow.

The answer must include 1 and cannot include 2, therefore, the correct answer is B.

Note: In this question the CFP Board is using Cash Flow Statement as the Statement of Income and Expenses.

58
Q

Jennifer’s net worth increased from $600,000 to $750,000 this year. During the year she inher-ited $50,000 in stocks and bonds. Jennifer earned a salary of $80,000 and saved $10,000 of her salary in her 401(k) plan. Jennifer contributed $3,000 to her IRA, from her checking account. She also used $5,000 from her money market to purchase new bedroom furniture. Her invest-ments grew by $75,000. Assuming these are all of her transactions, what was the reduction in liabilities?

a) $5,000.
b) $10,000.
c) $15,000.
d) $20,000.
e) $25,000.

A

Answer: C

Assets – Liabilities = Net Worth

Start with increase to Net Worth + $150,000

Subtract out known increases:

  • Inheritance – $50,000
  • 401(k) Savings – $10,000
  • Investments – $75,000

The Net $15,000 remaining in the increase can be attributed to a reduction in liabilities.

59
Q

During the data gathering phase of the financial planning process, a client provides a statement of cash flows to a CFP® certificant. This financial statement will provide the certificant with an understanding of all of the following except:

a) 401(k) savings contributions.
b) Income taxes payable.
c) Variable expenses.
d) Discretionary cash flow.

A

Answer: B

Income taxes payable would be listed as a current liability on the balance sheet (statement of financial position). All others would be listed on the statement of cash flows.

60
Q

Joe has the following assets:

EE Bonds $6,000
Checking Account $5,000
Bills due in 10 days $1,500
CD Maturing in 6 months $1,000
IRA $25,000
Cash $500
Credit Card Balance $1,500
Money Market $10,000

What is his current ratio?

a) 3.0
b) 2.1
c) 5.5
d) 6.5

A

Answer: C

EE Bonds $6,000 (Invested Asset)
Checking Account $5,000 (Current Asset)
Bills due in 10 days $1,500 (Current Liability)
CD Maturing in 6 months $1,000 (Current Asset)
IRA $25,000 (Invested Asset)
Cash $500 (Current Asset)
Credit Card Balance $1,500 (Current Liability)
Money Market $10,000 (Current Asset)

Current ratio = Current Assets ÷ Current Liabilities Current ratio = 16,500 ÷ 3,000

Current ratio = 5.5

61
Q

Tip!

A

Tip If the CFP® Exam gives you combined fixed and variable expenses rather than nondiscretionary expenses, used the combined fixed and variable expenses as a substitute for nondiscretionary expenses.

62
Q

Your client’s current assets are $15,000. Monthly nondiscretionary expenses are $5,000 and monthly discretionary expenses are $2,000. What is the client’s emergency fund?

a) 3.0 months.
b) 2.1 months.
c) 5.5 months.
d) 6.5 months.

A

Answer: A

Emergency Fund = Current Assets ÷ Monthly Nondiscretionary Expenses Emergency Fund = 15,000 ÷ 5,000 = 3 months

63
Q

What are the debt ratio percentages?

A
  • Consumer debt payments should not exceed 20% of NET income.
  • Housing debt should be less than or equal to 28% of GROSS income.
  • Housing plus all other recurring debt should be less than or equal to 36% of GROSS income.
64
Q

Housing Ratio

A
65
Q

Housing & All Other Debt Ratio

A
66
Q

A young couple would like to purchase a new home using one of the following mortgages:

1: 10.5% interest with 5 discount points to be paid at time of closing.
2: 11% interest with 2 discount points to be paid at time of closing.

Assuming the couple could qualify for both mortgages, which of the following aspects should be considered in deciding between these mortgages. (CFP® Certification Examination, 11/94)

  1. Gross income.
  2. Estimated length of ownership.
  3. Real estate tax liability.
  4. Cash currently available.

a) 1 and 2.
b) 2 only.
c) 2 and 4.
d) 4 only.
e) 1, 2, 3, and 4.

A

Answer: C

  1. Gross income – NO, they already qualify, per the question
  2. Estimated length of ownership – YES, payback on lower rate vs. points
  3. Real estate tax liability – NO, same property, same taxes, they already qualify
  4. Cash currently available – YES, higher points, higher initial cost
67
Q

Daveed owns a primary residence on Miami beach for $3.0 million. Ten years ago, he put 20% down on the house and finance the rest at 4.25% over 15 years. He is looking to refinance his home to pay for a new roof. His roofing estimate is $80,000. The mortgage officer at the local bank offered Daveed the following refinance options. Which option will result in a lower pay-ment?

  1. His remaining balance plus $80,000 financed for 15 years at 3.75%
  2. His remaining balance plus $80,000 financed for 15 year at 3.68% with Daveed paying 2 points

a) Loan option 1 will result in a lower monthly payment.
b) Loan option 2 will result in a lower monthly payment.

A

Answer: A

The first step is to figure his current balance.
PV = 2.4 million, n = 15 x 12, i = 4.25%/12, solving for PMT = $18,054.68

Step 2
Use Amortization to find the balance after 10 years; 12c: 120 f AMORT, f INT, x>

Step 3
Calculate the balance plus $80,000 for the first loan option. For the second loan option calculate the balance plus $80,000 plus 2% of the loan amount for the points, $21,087.44. Points are equal to 1% of the loan balance and can be spread over the loan in a refinance.

Loan 1 payment = $7,667.63; Loan 2 payment = $7,783.68

68
Q

Federal Pell Grant

A
  • Strictly need based and dependent on the expected family contribution (EFC) amount.
  • The EFC determines a student’s eligibility and how much is awarded.
  • Only students that have not earned a bachelors or professional degree qualify.
69
Q

Stafford Loan

A
  • The primary type of financial aid provided by the US Department of Education.
  • Stafford loans are student loans.
  • Repayment begins after a six-month grace period of leaving school or falling below part-time status (6 semester hours).
  • There are two types of a Stafford Loan (Subsidized versus Unsubsidized).
  • With a Subsidized Stafford Loan the interest is paid for by the federal government while the undergrad is in school.
  • With an Unsubsidized Stafford Loan the interest begins to accrue when the funds are disbursed.
  • The Subsidized Stafford is need based.
  • The Unsubsidized Stafford is NOT need based, and are available to undergrad and graduate students.
  • Stafford Loans are not appropriate if the parents intend to repay the loans.
70
Q

Parent Loans for Undergraduate Students (PLUS)

A
  • The PLUS loan is a loan for parents to pay for their children’s undergrad studies.
  • The PLUS loan is NOT need based, but depends on the parent’s credit score.
  • PLUS loans are not subsidized.
  • PLUS loans are appropriate for parents who can afford to make a loan payment, but may not have saved anything for education.
71
Q

Grad PLUS loan for Graduate Students (PLUS Direct)

A
  • A graduate or professional student enrolled at least half-time at an eligible school in a program leading to a graduate or professional degree or certificate.
  • Dependent on student credit score.
  • Maximum PLUS loan amount you can borrow is the cost of attendance minus any other financial assistance you receive.
  • Begin making payments six months after you graduate, leave school, or drop below half-time enrollment.
  • Interest accrues as you go, you can pay it as you go or let it be added to your balance.
72
Q

Joe and Holly are looking to fund their daughter Sydney’s education. Sydney is currently 4 years old and will start college in 14 years. Joe would like to be able use part of the funds to help pay for private secondary school, as well as postsecondary. Joe and Holly have an AGI of $70,000 and would like to make use of any tax-advantaged savings plans. Which options below might you suggest?

a) 529 Savings Plan.
b) Prepaid Tuition.
c) Zero Coupon Bonds in an UTMA Account.
d) Coverdell Education Savings Account.
e) Roth IRA. Answer: A or D A Coverdell ESA and a 529 Plan both provide education benefits for secondary education.

A

Answer: A or D

A Coverdell ESA and a 529 Plan both provide education benefits for secondary education.

73
Q

Geoff and Rhonda want to plan for their children’s college education. Their children are cur-rently ages 2 and 4. They anticipate needing to save $5,000 per year, per child, to fund their edu-cation. Which of the following investments would you recommend in the education account?

a) High yielding corporate bonds in an UGMA account.
b) Highly appreciating rental property in an UTMA account.
c) Well-diversified portfolio of common stocks in an UGMA account.
d) EE savings bonds in the children’s name.

A

Answer: C

High yielding corporate bonds and rental property may create a kiddie tax problem. EE savings bonds need to be purchased in parent’s name.

74
Q

American Opportunity Tax Credit and Lifetime Learning Credit Coordination Rules

A
  • An individual may claim an American Opportunity Tax Credit or Lifetime Learning Credit in the same year as a distribution from a 529 Plan, just not for the same expenses.
  • An individual may not claim both an American Opportunity Tax Credit and Lifetime Learning Credit for the same child, in the same year.
  • An individual may not use an American Opportunity Tax Credit or Lifetime Learning Credit for the SAME expense paid by a qualified tuition program.
  • An individual may use the American Opportunity Tax Credit or Lifetime Learning Credit in the same year a distribution from a qualified tuition plan, just not the same expenses.
75
Q

Which of the following statements concerning educational tax credits and savings opportunities is correct? (CFP® Certification Examination, released 8/2004)

a) The Lifetime Learning Credit is equal to 100% of qualified educational expenses up to a certain limit.
b) The American Opportunity Tax Credit is available for the first 4 years of postsecondary education.
c) A parent who claims a child as a dependent is entitled to take the American Opportu-nity Tax Credit for the educational expenses of the child.
d) The contribution limit for Coverdell Education Savings Accounts is applied per year per donor.

A

Answer: Both B and C

a) The Lifetime Learning Credit is equal to 20% of qualified educational expenses up to a certain limit – 20% up to $10,000 in expenses.
b) The American Opportunity Tax Credit available for the first 4 years of postsecondary education.
c) A parent who claims a child as a dependent is entitled to take the American Opportu-nity Tax Credit for the educational expenses of the child.
d) The contribution limit for Coverdell Education Savings Accounts is applied per year per donor – per student, not per donor.

76
Q

John and Mary have AGI of $125,000 and have not planned for their children’s education. Their children are ages 18 and 17 and the parents anticipate paying $20,000 per year, per child for edu-cation expenses. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation to pay for the children’s education.

a) 529 Savings Plan.
b) PLUS Loan.
c) Pell Grant.
d) Coverdell ESA.

A

Answer: B

It’s too late for the parent’s to begin savings for their children’s education so that eliminates the 529 Savings Plan and Coverdell ESA. Their AGI is too high for a Pell Grant.