Instrument DQ

Question 1

What are the two elements of control when performing basic instrument maneuvers?

Answer 1

All basic instrument maneuvers require correct attitude and power settings. - FM 3-04.240 pg 2-1

There are only two elements of control in all aircraft - the attitude of the aircraft relative to the horizon and the power applied. - FTG pg 53

Question 2

Pitch attitude control instruments?

Answer 2

Airspeed Indicator
Attitude Indicator
Altimeter
Vertical Speed Indicator

Question 3

Bank attitude control instruments?

Answer 3

Attitude Indicator
Heading Indicator
Magnetic Compass
Turn & Slip Indicator

Question 4

Power instruments?

Answer 4

Airspeed Indicator

Torque Indicator

Question 5

In developing an instrument cross-check, what are the primary instruments that give the most pertinent information for any particular phase of maneuver?

Answer 5

FM 3-04.240
The pitch, bank and power instruments:
-Pitch - Altimeter.
-Bank - Heading indicators.
-Power - Airspeed indicator (level flight).

FTG pg 53
Those that give the most pertinent information for any particular phase of the maneuver. These are usually the instruments that should be held at a constant indication.

Question 6

Which instrument should always be used if available because it instantly portrays the actual bank and pitch of the aircraft?

Answer 6

The attitude indicator is the only instrument that portrays instantly and directly the actual flight attitude. Always use the attitude indicator, when available, in establishing and maintaining pitch and bank attitudes.

Question 7

Concerning a standard rate turn:

A. The initial bank is started with reference to what instrument?

Answer 7

A. Bank index pointer on the attitude indicator.

Bank Instruments: Attitude, heading and turn indicators.

Question 8

Concerning a standard rate turn: B. The desired angle of bank is how many degrees and why?

Answer 8

B. 12-15 degrees.

Use a bank angle that approximates the degree to turn up to a standard rate turn (not to exceed 30 degrees).

Question 9

Concerning a standard rate turn: C. How long should it take to roll into and out of the turn?

Answer 9

C. Roll-in and roll-out should take 4-6 seconds. Cross check the turn need for a standard rate turn.

Use 15% of TAS. 
80 knots = 12 deg.
90 knots = 13.5 deg.
100 knots = 15 deg. 
180 knots = 27 deg.

Question 10

Concerning a standard rate turn: D. How many degrees does the aircraft heading change per second and in one minute?

Answer 10

3 degrees per second

180 degrees per minute

Question 11

When making turns to a predetermined heading, “the bank angle should never exceed” what?

Answer 11

The number of degrees to be turned

As in any standard rate turn, the recovery rate should be the same as the rate for entry. During turns to predetermined headings, cross-check primary and supporting pitch, bank, and power instruments closely.

Example of Using Lead Point If using a 12º bank angle, use half, or 6º, as the lead point for rolling out on the desired heading.

Question 12

What is the maximum bank angle recommended under instrument conditions?

Answer 12

30 degrees

considered an unusual attitude for a helicopter

Question 13

For steep turns during BI, what is the desired angle-of-bank?

Answer 13

Approximately 20 degrees

additional power may be required to prevent loss of altitude and/or airspeed). Roll out on appropriate heading (should take approximately 7 seconds). If power was applied during the turn, to maintain altitude and airspeed, reduce power by equal amount concurrent with rolling out of the turn, maintain trim throughout the rollout.

Question 14

When may deviations in rate of climb or descent be corrected with pitch attitude?

Answer 14

When less than 100 feet as long as it doesn’t cause airspeed to vary by +- 5knots

Question 15

When may deviations in rate of climb or descent be corrected with power?

Answer 15

More than 100 feet or more than 5 Knots change in airspeed

Question 16

When making initial pitch attitude corrections to maintain altitude, what instrument should be used and procedurally how do you make the change?

Answer 16

Attitude indicator

Use the cyclic to raise or lower the miniature aircraft in relation to the horizon bar.

Question 17

Describe the procedure for level off during climbs.

Answer 17

(Initiate level off at 10% of VSI. 500ft climb = 50ft prior.)

Lower the pitch attitude to regain desired airspeed, then adjust collective to obtain cruising power.

Question 18

Describe the procedure for level off during descents.

Answer 18

(Initiate level off at 10% of VSI. 500ft climb = 50ft prior.)

Increase power to the setting necessary to maintain descending airspeed in level flight.

Question 19

Define spatial disorientation

Answer 19

A pilot’s erroneous perception of position, attitude, or motion in relation to the gravitational vertical and the Earth’s surface.

Question 20

What are the different types of Spatial Disorientation?

Answer 20

Type 1 (Unrecognized)
Type 2 (Recognized)
Type 3 (Incapacitating)

Question 21

Which type of SD is the most dangerous?

Answer 21

Type 1 (Unrecognized)

Unaware of a problem, the pilot fails to recognize and counteract the SD

Question 22

What is the treatment for spatial disorientation?

Answer 22

Delay intuitive actions long enough to check both visual references and the instruments.

Refer to the instruments and develop a good cross-check.

Transfer control to the other pilot (if two pilots are in the aircraft); rarely will both pilots experience SD at the same time.

Question 23

What is the proper sequence of flight control adjustments for unusual attitude recovery?

Answer 23

Attitude. Establishing a level bank and pitch attitude.

Heading. Establishing and maintaining a heading.

TQ. Adjusting the TQ to the appropriate setting.

Airspeed. Establishing and maintaining the appropriate airspeed.

Trim. Trimming the aircraft.

Question 24

Define the following and explain its relevance to you as Army aviator:

Indicated Altitude

Answer 24

Altitude as read on the dial with current altimeter setting (sea-level pressure) set in Kollsman window.

Altitude used by the pilot when flying.

Question 25

# Define the following and explain its relevance to you as Army aviator: Pressure Altitude

Answer 25

The height measured above the 29.92 inches of mercury pressure level (standard datum plane). Altitude used above 18,000' MSL as Flight Levels.

Question 26

# Define the following and explain its relevance to you as Army aviator: Density Altitude

Answer 26

The altitude for which a given air density exists in the standard atmosphere. (PA modified by temperature deviations from standard). Relevance: DA affects aircraft performance - High DA => Low performance.

Question 27

How does cold ambient temperature effect indicated altitude and how is it corrected for on an instrument approach?

Answer 27

True altitude (above MSL) will be less than indicated altitude for temperature colder than standard. The amount of error is about 4 feet per 1,000 feet for each degree Celsius (°C) of difference. Use the chart in figure 1-6 and corrections are made to decision attitudes/ decision heights and minimum decent altitudes, and other altitudes inside but not including, the final approach fix (FAF) To ensure adequate obstacle clearance, the values in the chart in figure 1-6, page 1-6, are— Added to the published decision altitude/DH or minimum descent altitudes (MDA) and step-down fixes inside the final approach fix (FAF) whenever outside air temperature is less than 0 degree C. Added to all altitudes in the procedure in designated mountainous regions whenever outside air temperature is 0 degree C or less. Added to all altitudes in the procedure whenever outside air temperature is –30 degrees C or less. Added to procedure turn, intermediate approach altitude, and height above touchdown (HAT)/height above airport (HAA) when they are 3,000 feet or more above the altimeter setting source.

Question 28

What are two possible ways of returning static pressure to the flight instruments should the primary static system fail during flight?

Answer 28

Alternate static source out Break the glass on the VSI Note: VSI reading are reversed once glass is broke. It will read climbing when descending, and vice versa.

Question 29

Explain the difference between the heading indicator “slaved gyro” and “free gyro” modes.

Answer 29

Slaved Gyro Mode: RMI and HSI are automatically slaved to the gyro compass unit for display of heading information. Free Gyro Mode: Allows manual slaving when fully automatic operation is not desired. RMI/HSI compass cards (heading) are adjusted by the CW/CCW switch. (-10)

Question 30

What should be done if you suspect your gyro stabilized heading indicators are in error?

Answer 30

If the gyro stabilized RMI or HSI compass cards are suspected to be in error, establish straight-and-level flight to determine magnetic compass heading, then apply any applicable deviation. If corrections are required, select free mode on the gyro that is in error and adjust the magnetic heading as required.

Question 31

Explain the terms variation and deviation as they apply to the magnetic compass.

Answer 31

Variation - The north magnetic pole (MN), to which the magnetic compass points, is not collocated with the north geographic pole(TN) but is some 1,300 miles away. Directions measured from the magnetic poles are called magnetic directions. In aerial navigation, the difference between true and magnetic directions is called variation. Deviation - Magnets in a compass align with any magnetic field. Local magnetic fields in an aircraft caused by electrical current flowing in the structure, in nearby wiring, or in any magnetized part of the structure will conflict with the Earth's magnetic field and cause a compass error called deviation.

Question 32

Are gyro stabilized compass systems (RMI/HSI) subject to these influences?

Answer 32

Yes. Although the remote compass transmitter containing the flux valve is usually mounted in a wingtip or placed in a position which will minimize these influences. The remote compass transmitter is a separate unit and is usually mounted in a wingtip to eliminate the possibility of magnetic interference. The remote compass transmitter contains the flux valve, which is the direction-sensing device of the system.

Question 33

BEARING

Answer 33

The horizontal direction to or from any point, usually measured clockwise from True North, Magnetic North or some other reference point, through 360 degrees.

Question 34

COURSE

Answer 34

The intended direction of movement in the horizontal plane.

Question 35

RADIAL

Answer 35

A magnetic bearing extending from a VOR/VORTAC/TACAN navigation facility.

Question 36

Explain the difference between “homing” and “tracking” inbound to a station or waypoint. Which procedure should be used on IFR flights when cleared “direct”?

Answer 36

HOMING (P/CG) - Flight toward a navigational aids, without correcting for wind, by adjusting the aircraft heading to maintain a relative bearing of zero degrees. The aircraft will follow a curved path to the station. Tracking: The use of a heading to maintain the desired track to or from a station, regardless of wind conditions. The aircraft follows a straight path to/from a station. Tracking is used when "Cleared Direct".

Question 37

Concerning VORs, what is the only positive method of identification and what is the course accuracy?

Answer 37

The only positive method of identifying a VOR is by its Morse Code identification or by the recorded automatic voice identification which is always indicated by use of the word “VOR” following the range's name. The accuracy of course alignment of the VOR is excellent, being generally plus or minus 1 degree.

Question 38

What is the normal range of L and H/HA class VORs at 1000 ft. AGL?

Answer 38

40 NM ``` IFR Supplement VOR normal anticipated interference-free standard service volumes (SSV); T Class: 25 NM up to 12.000' AGL. L Class: 40 NM up to 18.000' AGL. HA Class: 40 NM below 14.500' AGL 100 NM 14.500 - 60.000' AGL 130 NM 18.000 - 45.000 AGL ```

Question 39

What is the maximum distance you can file a direct route between two VOR navigational facilities below 14,500’ AGL and be assured VOR reception?

Answer 39

80 NM between L and HA VORs 25 NM for T VORs all above 1,000’

Question 40

If you wanted to file a direct flight between two VORs without an operational updated GPS, where would you find exceptions to distance in part A of this question? Give an example

Answer 40

Exceptions can be found in the IFR supp and NOTAMs. Example: cairns VOR unusable 016 - 049 beyond 20 NM 221 - 234 beyond 20 NM 307 - 315 beyond 17 NM

Question 41

When navigating between two ground based navigation facilities, when should the pilot change over from one NAVAID to the next?

Answer 41

At designated Change Over Points (COPs); - Midway between NAVAIDs. - At Doglegs intersections. - When not located at midpoint (refer to aeronautical chart for symbols for VOR Changeover Point, Mileage Breakdown or Computer Navigation Fix).

Question 42

What are general dimensions of a victor airway depicted on an IFR en-route low altitude chart (ELA)?

Answer 42

Extends from 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL. 4 NM to each side of the centerline

Question 43

If a course change is required at an intersection, when should that change be started?

Answer 43

The FAA expects aviators to lead turns and take other actions considered necessary during course changes to adhere as closely as possible to the airways or route being flown. Aviators should attempt to adhere to course centerline whenever possible. i.e. taking into account variables such as, turn radius, wind effect, AS, degree of turn, & cockpit instrumentation.

Question 44

What four weather hazards to flight are described on the En Route/Mission Data section of the DD 175-1 Weather brief/forecast?

Answer 44

Thunderstorms Turbulence Icing Precipitation

Question 45

According to TC 3-04.5, Appendix C, Section III, what are the “Three P’s for risk management and decision making for preflight weather planning and in-flight weather decision making? Give an example of how the “Three Ps” could be applied to one of the hazards to flight from the previous question.

Answer 45

Perceive weather hazards that could adversely affect the flight. Process information to determine whether hazards create risk, which is the potential effect of a hazard not controlled or eliminated. Perform by acting to eliminate the hazard or mitigate the risk. Example: Perceive- daily weather brief or jet on owls Process - icing conditions reduced aircraft performance and could be hazardous if not careful. Perform - Stay below freezing altitude and turn on pitot heater and engine anti icing if below 4 degrees C. Periodically getting weather updates along the way and checking free air temperature.

Question 46

MIA

Answer 46

Minimum IFR Altitude - minimum altitude published on approach procedures, 1000ft above highest obstacle within 4nm over flat terrain, 2000 ft above highest obstacle within 4 nm in mountainous areas. *** Minimum altitude for Instrument Flight Rules operations as prescribed in Code of Federal Regulations Part 91. These altitudes are published on aeronautical charts and prescribed in Code of Federal Regulations Part 95, for airways and routes, and in Code of Federal Regulations Part 97, for standard Instrument Approach Procedures. If no applicable minimum altitude is prescribed in Code of Federal Regulations Parts 95 or 97, the following minimum IFR altitude applies: (1) In mountainous areas, 2000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 nautical miles from the course to be flown; or (2) Other than mountainous areas, 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 nautical miles from the course to be flown; or (3) As otherwise authorized by the Administrator or assigned by Air Traffic Control. (See Minimum Narrate IFR Altitude, Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude, Minimum Crossing Altitude, Minimum Safe Altitude, Minimum Vectoring Altitude) (Refer to Code of Federal Regulations Part 91)

Question 47

MEA

Answer 47

Minimum IFR Enroute Altitude - Lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements. *** The minimum en route altitude (MEA) is the lowest published altitude between radio fixes that ensures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes. The MEA ensures a navigation signal strong enough for adequate reception by the aircraft navigation (NAV) receiver and adequate obstacle clearance along the airway. The obstacle clearance, within the limits of the airway, is typically 1,000 feet in non-mountainous areas and 2,000 feet in designated mountainous areas. MEAs can be authorized with breaks in signal coverage; if this is the case, the NACO en route chart notes the MEA gap parallel to the affected airway. MEAs are usually bidirectional; however, they can be unidirectional. Arrows are used to indicate the direction to which the MEA applies.

Question 48

MOCA

Answer 48

Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude - Provides appropriate obstacle clearance between fixes and navigational signal coverage within 22nm of VOR. *** The minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) is the lowest published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off-airway routes, or route segments that meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and ensures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 25 statute (22 nautical) miles of a VOR. The MOCA provides the same obstruction clearance as an MEA; however, the NAV signal reception is only ensured within 22 nautical miles of the closest NAVAID defining the route. The MOCA is listed below the MEA and indicated on NACO charts by a leading asterisk (*3400).

Question 49

MRA

Answer 49

Minimum Reception Altitude - The lowest altitude at which an airway intersection can be determined. *** The minimum reception altitude (MRA) is the lowest altitude at which an airway intersection can be determined. The MRA identifies an intersection from an off-course NAVAID. If reception is line-of-sight based, signal coverage extends to the MRA or above. However, if the aircraft is equipped with DME and the chart indicates the intersection can be identified with such equipment, the aviator could define the fix without attaining the MRA. On NACO charts, the MRA is indicated by the symbol (flag and staff with R in it), and the altitude is preceded by MRA (MRA 9300).

Question 50

MCA

Answer 50

Minimum Crossing Altitude - The lowest altitude at certain fixes at which an aircraft must cross when it is proceeding in the direction of a higher MEA. *** The minimum crossing altitude (MCA) is the lowest altitude at certain fixes at which an aircraft must cross when it is proceeding in the direction of a higher MEA. The MCA is depicted along an MEA route segment where altitude increases. The MCA is usually indicated when the route approaches steeply rising terrain and obstacle clearance and/or signal reception is compromised. In this case, the pilot is required to initiate a climb so that the MCA is reached by the time that the intersection is crossed. On NACO charts, the MCA is indicated by the symbol (flag and staff with X in it) , Victor airway number, and applied direction.

Question 51

MVA

Answer 51

Minimum Vectoring Altitude - The lowest MSL altitude at which IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller, except when on radar approaches, departures, and miss approaches. May be lower than the published MEA. *** The lowest mean sea level altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller, except as otherwise authorized for radar approaches, departures and missed approaches. The altitude meets Instrument Flight Rules obstacle clearance criteria. It may be lower than the published Minimum Enroute Altitude along an airway or J-route segment. It may be utilized for radar vectoring only upon the controllers' determination that an adequate radar return is being received from the aircraft being controlled. Charts depicting minimum vectoring altitudes are normally available only to the controllers and not to pilots.

Question 52

OROCA

Answer 52

Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude - An off-route altitude that provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000 ft buffer in non-mountainous terrain areas and a 2,000 ft buffer in designated mountainous areas within the U.S. This altitude may not provide signal coverage from ground-based NAVAIDs, ATC Radar, or communications coverage. *** 4-29. An off route obstruction clearance altitude (OROCA) which provides obstruction clearance within each bounded latitude/longitude quadrant plus 4 NM as shown on FAA IFR charts. This altitude provides obstruction clearance of 1,000 feet in designated non-mountainous areas and a 2,000 foot vertical buffer in designated mountainous areas within the United States. For areas in Mexico and the Caribbean, located outside the United States' air defense identification zone, the OROCA provides obstruction clearance with a 3,000 foot vertical buffer. 4-30. OROCA is intended primarily as a pilot tool for emergencies and situational awareness. It does not provide an acceptable obstruction clearance for the purposes of off-route, random RNAV direct flight in either controlled or uncontrolled airspace. This altitude may not provide signal coverage from ground-based navigational aids, air traffic control radar, or communications coverage.

Question 53

Black, Brown, and Blue NAVAIDs

Answer 53

Black = very high frequency (VHF) and ultra-high frequency (UHF) Brown = low frequencies (LFs) and medium frequencies (MFs) Blue = area navigation (RNAV)

Question 54

Is an aircraft on an IFR flight plan navigating by an IFR approved GPS considered to be an RNAV aircraft?

Answer 54

Yes, because it’s equipped with RNAV capability *** A method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path within the coverage of station referenced navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of self contained aids or a combination of these.

Question 55

What XPNDR suffix would you use on the DD form 175 if you plan on using only VOR and ILS for your TH-67 IFR flight? Why?

Answer 55

G Use of the suffix which denotes the maximum transponder or navigational capability of the aircraft. Aircraft with RNAV equipment should use the appropriate RNAV suffix even if RNAV routing has not been requested. G = Global Navigational Satellite System (GNSS) including GPS or WAAS with enroute / terminal capability.

Question 56

Are slight differences between GPS and conventional NAVAID data considered acceptable? why?

Answer 56

Yes, Differences may exist between PBN systems and the charted magnetic courses on ground-based NAVAID instrument flight procedures (IFP), enroute charts, approach charts, and Standard Instrument Departure/Standard Terminal Arrival (SID/STAR) charts. These differences are due to the magnetic variance used to calculate the magnetic course. Every leg of an instrument procedure is first computed along a desired ground track with reference to true north. A magnetic variation correction is then applied to the true course in order to calculate a magnetic course for publication.

Question 57

Describe how to perform a hover power check

Answer 57

While near the intended takeoff point and in the direction of takeoff, establish the aircraft at a stabilized 3-foot HVR. Compare the actual TQ required to HVR with the predicted MAX TQ AVAIL. Depending on the TQ differential, the following takeoff and landing restrictions apply: a. Less than 5% TQ differential. Ensure that adequate room exists for takeoff with minimum or existing PWR. The destination must allow a normal or shallower-than-normal approach to landing areas with a surface, which will permit a descent to the ground if necessary. b. Five to 9% TQ differential. Normal approaches and takeoffs may be performed. c. Ten to 14% TQ differential. Steep approaches, instrument takeoffs and confined area operations may be performed. d. 15% or more TQ differential. Takeoff and landing restrictions do not apply.

Question 58

Give conditions for which additional hover power checks must be performed.

Answer 58

Anytime the load or environmental conditions increase significantly (5° C, 500 feet PA, or 100 lbs aircraft WT), additional HVR PWR checks must be performed.

Question 59

Describe how to perform an ITO from the ground.

Answer 59

Align the aircraft with the desired takeoff heading. Set/confirm the attitude indicator for takeoff. With the cyclic in the neutral position, smoothly increase the collective until the aircraft becomes light on the skids. Use outside visual references to prevent movement of the aircraft and check controls for proper response. Apply pressure and counter-pressure on the pedals to ensure the aircraft is free to ascend. While referring to the flight instruments, smoothly increase the collective to obtain takeoff PWR. As the collective is increased, cross-check the attitude indicators to ensure proper attitude and constant heading. When takeoff PWR is reached and the altimeter shows a positive climb, adjust the pitch attitude 2 bar-widths below the horizon for the initial acceleration. Maintain heading with pedals until airspeed increases (generally 20 to 30 KIAS) and then make the transition to coordinated flight. Upon reaching climb airspeed, adjust the controls as required to maintain desired climb airspeed. *** Takeoff PWR will normally be 10% above TQ required for HVR (15% TH-67). **** 1. Set attitude indicator. OH-58A: on the horizon; OH-58C: 5 above the horizon; TH-67: verify that the standby attitude indicator is coincidental with the primary attitude indicator prior to takeoff. 2. Maintain required takeoff PWR ±5% TQ. 3. Maintain accelerative climb attitude ±1 bar width. 4. Maintain aircraft in trim after ETL.

Question 60

Describe how to perform an ITO from a HVR (per CMP performed as VMC takeoff with IMC transition).

Answer 60

On the runway or takeoff pad, align the aircraft with the desired takeoff heading. Set/confirm the attitude indicator for takeoff and check the controls for proper response. Establish the aircraft at a 3-foot HVR. Initiate the takeoff by smoothly and steadily increasing the collective until takeoff PWR is reached. Simultaneously adjust pitch attitude as necessary to establish initial accelerative climb attitude. Visually maintain runway clearance and alignment on takeoff until the aircraft accelerates through ETL. Prior to entering actual or simulated IMC, the P* will direct attention to the flight instruments and establish an instrument cross-check. *** Takeoff PWR will normally be 10% above TQ required for HVR (15% TH-67). **** 1. Set attitude indicator. OH-58A: on the horizon; OH-58C: 5 above the horizon; TH-67: verify that the standby attitude indicator is coincidental with the primary attitude indicator prior to takeoff. 2. Maintain required takeoff PWR ±5% TQ. 3. Maintain accelerative climb attitude ±1 bar width. 4. Maintain aircraft in trim after ETL.

Question 61

What is considered “established on course” in the TH-67 for: VOR course LOC course GPS course

Answer 61

VOR = +or- 5 degrees or half scale deflection LOC = less than full scale deflection or 2.5 GPS = less than full scale deflection

Question 62

What are instrument Departure Procedures (DPs) and why are they necessary? Give an example of each type from an IAP publication.

Answer 62

pre-planned instrument flight rule (IFR) procedures which provide obstruction clearance from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure. There are two types of DPs, Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODP), printed either textually or graphically, and Standard Instrument Departures (SID), always printed graphically The primary reason is to provide obstacle clearance protection information to pilots. A secondary reason, at busier airports, is to increase efficiency and reduce communications and departure delays through the use of SIDs.

Question 63

How does the pilot ensure obstacle clearance is provided when flying a DP?

Answer 63

the aircraft crosses the end of the runway at least 35 feet AGL, climbs to 400 feet above airport elevation before turning, and climbs at least 200 feet per nautical mile (FPNM), unless a higher climb gradient is specified to the assigned altitude.

Question 64

When would you choose to do a diverse departure and how would you perform it?

Answer 64

If airport has at least one IAP and ND published OPs, fly runway heading until 400 AGL with climb it 200 fpnm *** If the airport has at least one instrument approach procedure (IAP), and there are no published IFR departure procedures (because there were no penetrations to the 40:1 obstacle identification surface (OIS)), then an aircraft departing under IFR can ensure obstacle clearance by executing a “diverse departure”. ATC will not specifically clear an aircraft for a diverse departure; the clearance may simply be cleared as filed. In order to fly a diverse departure, fly runway heading until 400 feet above the field elevation before executing any turns while maintaining a minimum climb gradient of 200 feet per nautical mile (unless a higher gradient is published) until reaching a minimum IFR altitude.

Question 65

Where are non-standard IFR takeoff minimums found? Do they apply to Army helicopter pilots?

Answer 65

TPP/TLA All aviators/operators will comply with published nonstandard IFR takeoff minimums

Question 66

What is the absolute lowest weather that would permit an Army aviator with less than 50 hours of actual weather experience as pilot in command to depart from RWY 16 at ALABASTER, AL?

Answer 66

300 - 1 1/4

Question 67

What if the copilot had more than 50 hours of weather experience as pilot in command?

Answer 67

Same

Question 68

Explain when to start the outbound timing of a holding pattern at a NAVAID, intersection, and waypoint that requires timing.

Answer 68

When holding at a NAVAID, begin the outbound time when abeam the station. When holding at an intersection, begin the outbound time upon establishing the outbound heading.

Question 69

Are recommended holding entry procedures determined from ground track or aircraft heading?

Answer 69

Aircraft heading due to necessary wind corrections.

Question 70

What tolerance in degrees is considered to be within good operating limits for determining the recommended holding entry procedure?

Answer 70

+ or - 5 degrees

Question 71

While in a holding pattern that requires timing, you fly a 60 second outbound leg after which you turn inbound and cross the holding fix at 43 seconds. How long will you fly on your next outbound leg?

Answer 71

84 seconds. On E6B, align 60 on out with 43 on inner, read number above arrow

Question 72

You are holding at BITZY INT as depicted on the Dothan VOR RWY 14 approach plate. You determine that the inbound drift correction is 7 deg east. What amount of correction and in what direction will you apply on the outbound leg; what heading will you fly?

Answer 72

Triple the inbound drift correction - correct 21 degrees east. Final heading - 129 deg

Question 73

What is the primary difference between a Procedure Turn and a Procedural Track? Give an example of each from an IAP.

Answer 73

Procedure Turn; - Prescribed when it is necessary to reverse direction to establish an aircraft on the intermediate approach segment or final approach course. - The point of turn, turn rates and type (Teardrop, standard 45 degree turn, 80/260, racetrack) is at the discretion of the pilot. However - the "Remain within distance" MUST be adhered to at all times. Procedural Track; - There is no specific depiction for a Procedural Track. It may employ arcs, radials, courses or turns. - When a specific flight path is required, Procedural Track symbology (heavy black line) is used to depict the flight path between IAF and FAF to show the intended ground track. Conform to the specific ground track shown on IAP. Examples: Procedure Turn; TLA VOL-14, p. 20- COPTER NDB RWY 29 (Andalusia) Procedural Track; TLA VOL-14, p.23 - ILS or LOC RWY 5 (Anniston)

Question 74

Define MSA

Answer 74

Minimum Safe Altitude: Minimum altitude for aircraft operations; altitudes depicted provide at least 1000 feet obstacle clearance for emergency use. Two Types: Minimum Sector Altitude: provide at least 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance within a 25 mile radius Emergency Safe Altitude: Provide at least 1,000' feet obstacle clearance in non-mountainous areas and 2,000' in mountainous areas within a 100 Mile radius of nav facility *** Altitudes depicted on approach charts which provide at least 1000 feet of obstacle clearance for emergency use within a specified distance from the navigation facility upon which a procedure is predicated. These altitudes will be identified as Minimum Sector Altitude or Emergency Safe Altitude and are established as follows: (a) MINIMUM SECTOR ALTITUDES - Altitudes depicted on approach charts which provide at least 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance within a 25-mile radius of the navigation facility upon which the procedure is predicated. Sectors depicted on approach charts must be at least 90 degrees in scope. These altitudes are for emergency use only and do not necessarily assure acceptable navigational signal coverage. (b) EMERGENCY SAFE ALTITUDES - Altitudes depicted on approach charts which provide at least 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance in non-mountainous areas and 2,000 feet of obstacle clearance in designated mountainous areas within a 100-mile radius of the navigational facility upon which the procedure is predicated and normally used only in military procedures. These altitudes are identified on published procedures as "Emergency Safe Altitudes".

Question 75

MDA

Answer 75

Minimum Descent Altitude: Lowest altitude in MSL, to which descent is authorized on final approach for non precision approaches

Question 76

DA/DH

Answer 76

Decision Altitude/Decision Height: Specified altitude or height in precision approach at which a missed approach must be initiated if required visual reference to continue approach has not been established

Question 77

HAT

Answer 77

HEIGHT ABOVE TOUCHDOWN/HAT - The height of the Decision Height or Minimum Descent Altitude above the highest runway elevation in the Touchdown Zone (first 3000 feet of the runway). HAT is published on instrument approach charts when utilized to determine straight-in minimums. Example: 462 MSL

Question 78

HAA

Answer 78

HEIGHT ABOVE AIRPORT/HAA - The height of the minimum descent altitude above the published airport elevation. This is published in conjunction with circling minimums. Example: 459

Question 79

HAL

Answer 79

HEIGHT ABOVE LANDING/HAL - The height above a designated helicopter landing area used for helicopter instrument approach procedures. Example: 361

Question 80

When should a pilot descend below MDA or continue an approach below the DA/DH?

Answer 80

An aircraft will not be flown below the published MDA, or an approach continued below the decision altitude unless the following exist: (1) The approach threshold of the runway, or the approach lights or other markings, identifiable with the approach end of the runway or landing area, must be visible to the pilot. (2) The aircraft must be in a position from which a safe approach to the runway or landing area can be made.

Question 81

Define a Visual Descent Point (VDP) and state if its use is ever a mandatory requirement?

Answer 81

a defined point on the final approach course of a nonprecision straight-in approach procedure. *** VDP will be published on most RNAV IAPs. VDPs apply only to ACFT utilizing LP or LNAV minima, not LPV or LNAV/VNAV minimums. Mandatory for LNAV appr, not mandatory for fixed. *** Pilots not equipped to receive the VDP should fly the approach procedure as though no VDP had been provided.

Question 82

Give at least 5 situations when a procedure turn would not be flown.

Answer 82

A PT will not be flown (unless specifically cleared) when: - ATC gives clearance for Straight-in approach, - ATC provides radar vectors to the Final Approach course, - When conducting a Timed Approach to a holding fix - A PT is not required if an approach can be made directly from an Intermediate Fix or FAF - If the procedure states "NO PT". Contact ATC when in doubt or for approval to execute a PT. ***When ATC gives clearance for a straight-in approach. When flying the approach via No PT routing. When the aircraft is established in holding and subsequently cleared for the approach and the holding course and procedure turn course are the same. When ATC provides radar vectors to the final-approach course. When ATC clears the aircraft for a timed approach (when the aircraft is established in a holding pattern and the aviator is given a time to depart the FAF inbound).

Question 83

How long should the aircraft be flown outbound before beginning a standard 45-degree or 80/260 procedure turn?

Answer 83

1-3 min stay within the "stay within" range.

Question 84

How long should the aircraft be flown outbound when performing a holding pattern in-lieu of procedure turn?

Answer 84

Flown as holding pattern adjusting OB to for a 1min IB If the aircraft is at an altitude from which the approach can be safely executed and the aviator is ready to turn inbound immediately, he or she may request approval for an early turn from ATC.

Question 85

Describe how to perform a standard 45 degree Procedure Turn (course reversal) under no-wind conditions if you were outbound from JUDD on NDB-A approach at Andalusia-Opp.

Answer 85

Turn left heading 015 degrees and start clock after roll out fly 1 min. Then turn right to 195. At completion of turn fly for 45 seconds. Then turn right and fly 240 inbound.

Question 86

How would you perform an 80/260 procedure turn for that same approach?

Answer 86

Turn left heading 340. At completion turn right immediately for heading 240 inbound.

Question 87

Define a step-down fix and use the TALLAHASSEE, FL S-LOC RWY 27 approach to explain how one is used.

Answer 87

A fix permitting additional descent at which a controlling obstacle has been safely overflown. Depicted by a vertical dashed line. If On a final approach segment the fix can not be identified, the altitude at the fix becomes the MDA. When flying the S-LOC RWY 27, the minimum altitude after passing the FAF (GACED) inbound is 800' MSL until SPADD INT. When passing SPADD further descent to LOC MDA (420' MSL) is approved. 400 1/4

Question 88

Describe when an Army Aviator may reduce planning weather visibility requirements

Answer 88

Aviators flying helicopters may reduce destination and alternate Category A visibility minimums by 50 percent, but not less than 1/4 mile or metric equivalent. Reduction of visibility for approaches labeled “copter only” is not authorized, and this reduction is applied after all other corrections.

Question 89

Can an IFR GPS approach be flown by manually entering the waypoint information?

Answer 89

No - Manual entry or update of the navigation database other than storing user defined data is not author-ized (except for approved emergency GPS procedures). ****Use of commercial IFR databases in Army aircraft is only author-ized in the United States and U.S. territories. Use of commercial databases elsewhere in the world are restricted to en route navigation (including STARs) or to U.S. military facilities. Consult the USAASA HNAL for approved RNAV/RNP ap-proach procedures.

Question 90

If the crew retrieves a GPS procedure from a current, non-corruptible database and there is a difference from the published (paper copy) procedure, which takes precedence?

Answer 90

the published approach chart, supplemented by NOT-AMs, holds precedence.

Question 91

For each approach type, state if it has glide-slope, whether you use an MDA or DA, and where the missed approach point is located: ``` A) LNAV B) LNAV+V C) LP D) LNAV/VNAV E) LPV ```

Answer 91

LNAV- no glide slope has MDA, MAP is waypoint LNAV+V - glide slope has MDA, MAP is waypoint LP - no glide slope has MDA , MAP is waypoint LNAV/VNAV - glide slope, has DA, MAP is DA LPV - glide slope has DA, MAP is DA

Question 92

Concerning Basic T/Terminal Arrival Area (TAA) procedures: Does an RNAV approach with a TAA have an MSA? Which fix should be used to determine which area of the TAA the A/C is entering and why could this be critical?

Answer 92

No, TAA replaces MSA The IF (IAF), is the most critical when entering the the TAA by determining the magnetic bearing of the aircraft TO the fix labeled IF/IAF. The bearing should then be compared to the published lateral boundary bearings that define the TAA areas. Do not use magnetic bearing to the right-base or left-base IAFs to determine position. *** Altitudes published within the TAA replace the MSA altitude. However, unlike MSA altitudes the TAA altitudes are operationally usable altitudes. These altitudes provide at least 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance, more in mountainous areas. It is important that the pilot knows which area of the TAA the aircraft will enter in order to comply with the minimum altitude requirements. The pilot can determine which area of the TAA the aircraft will enter by determining the magnetic bearing of the aircraft TO the fix labeled IF/IAF. The bearing should then be compared to the published lateral boundary bearings that define the TAA areas. Do not use magnetic bearing to the right-base or left-base IAFs to determine position. (a) An ATC clearance direct to an IAF or to the IF/IAF without an approach clearance does not authorize a pilot to descend to a lower TAA altitude. If a pilot desires a lower altitude without an approach clearance, request the lower TAA altitude from ATC. Pilots not sure of the clearance should confirm their clearance with ATC or request a specific clearance. Pilots entering the TAA with two−way radio communications failure (14 CFR Section 91.185, IFR Operations: Two−way Radio Communications Failure), must maintain the highest altitude pre-scribed by Section 91.185(c)(2) until arriving at the appropriate IAF

Question 93

What should the pilot do to verify the validity of retrieved GPS database information: During Preflight In-Flight

Answer 93

Preflight-check date/time of database expiration, verify there is no notice from database provider on use of certain waypoints/procedures In-flight-ensure names on database match procedure chart exactly ensure waypoints are logical in location, correct order, and orientation matches procedure chart ***Preflight: [1] Determine the date of database issuance, and verify that the date/time of proposed use is before the expiration date/time. [2] Verify that the database provider has not published a notice limiting the use of the specific waypoint or procedure. In-flight: [1] Determine that the waypoints and transition names coincide with names found on the procedure chart. Do not use waypoints which do not exactly match the spelling shown on published procedure charts. [2] Determine that the waypoints are logical in location, in the correct order, and their orientation to each other is as found on the procedure chart, both laterally and vertically. NOTE− There is no specific requirement to check each waypoint latitude and longitude, type of waypoint and/or altitude constraint, only the general relationship of waypoints in the procedure, or the logic of an individual waypoint's location.

Question 94

Describe how you would execute the RNAV (GPS) RWY 28 at MONTGOMERY RGNL (MGM) with the following set-up: Your position from ICOTE is 210 deg and 30 NM at 5000 ft MSL; ATC clearance "Army 123, Your position 30nm South-West of ICOTE, Cleared Direct ICOTE, Cleared RNAV RWY 28 approach, contact Montgomery Tower TEBOC inbound."

Answer 94

Anticipating to use the LPV approach decend for 4500, direct to ICOTE parallel entry, and decend to 2600, turn right to intercept inbound course of 277 Intercepting the glide path after ICOTE cross TEBOC, contact twr, *(glide path intercept) Then decend to DA 397 MAP is RWY 28 waypoint

Question 95

May an Army pilot use an RNAV (GPS) approach for an alternate airport?

Answer 95

Pilots may plan for a GPS-based instrument approach at either the destination or alternate, but not at both locations. This restriction does not apply to RNAV systems using TSO – C145/C146 equipment. ***At the alternate airport, pilots may plan for applicable alternate airport weather minimums using: (a) Lateral navigation (LNAV) or circling minimum descent altitude (MDA); (b) LNAV/vertical navigation (LNAV/ VNAV) DA, if equipped with and using approved barometric vertical navigation (baro-VNAV) equip-ment; (c) RNP 0.3 DA on an RNAV (RNP) IAP, if they are specifically authorized users using approved baro-VNAV equipment and the pilot has verified required navigation performance (RNP) availability through an approved prediction program. 2. If the above conditions cannot be met, any required alternate airport must have an approved instrument approach procedure other than GPS that is anticipated to be operational and available at the estimated time of arrival, and which the aircraft is equipped to fly. 3. This restriction does not apply to TSO-C145() and TSO-C146() equipped users (WAAS users).

Question 96

What are the normal components of an IFR clearance?

Answer 96

Aircraft identification. Clearance limit. Departure procedure or SID. Route of flight. Altitude data in the order flown.

Question 97

What parts of a clearance should be read back if the clearance is received while on the ground?

Answer 97

runway assignment hold short instructions *** There is no requirement for pilots to readback Air Traffic Control clearances while on the ground (except runway assignment and hold short instructions); however, pilots should clarify any portion of clearance that is not completely understood. In addition, controllers may request pilots to readback any clearance.

Question 98

What parts of a clearance should be read back if the clearance is received while in the air?

Answer 98

altitude assignments/restrictions Radar vectors, as a means of mutual verification The readback should be made in the same sequence in which it was received and should be preceded by the aircraft identification. ***Runway assignments ***Pilots of airborne aircraft should read back those parts of Air Traffic Control clearances which contain altitude assignments/restrictions or Radar vectors, as a means of mutual verification. The readback should be made in the same sequence in which it was received and should be preceded by the aircraft identification. However, the readback of a clearance need not be verbatim.

Question 99

When should a pilot expect ATC to issue clearance beyond a short range clearance limit, and what pilot actions must be accomplished when approaching a short range clearance limit without further clearance?

Answer 99

will be issued at least 5 minutes before aircraft is estimated to reach the fix. If further clearance has not been received, hold in accordance with holding procedures

Question 100

What additional reports should be made to ATC without being requested?

Answer 100

Vacating any previously assigned altitude altitude change while VFR on top when unable to climb or decend @500fpm missed approach change in true airspeed greater than 5% or 10knots whichever is greater time and altitude upon reaching a holding fix or point which cleared to leaving any assigned fix or point nav system malfunction safety of flight *when not in radar environment final approach fix inbound ETE error in excess of 3 mins *weather unforecasted weather or forecasted hazardous weather ***1. When vacating any previously assigned altitude or flight level for a newly assigned altitude or flight level. 2. When an altitude change will be made if operating on a clearance specifying "VFR ON TOP." 3. When unable to climb/descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. 4. When approach has been missed. (Request clearance for specific action; i.e., to alternative airport, another approach, etc.). 5. Change in the average true airspeed (at cruising altitude) when it varies by 5 percent or 10 knots (whichever is greater) from that filed in the flight plan. 6. The time and altitude or flight level upon reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. 7. When leaving any assigned holding fix or point. NOTE: The reports in subparagraphs 6 and 7 may be omitted by pilots of aircraft involved in instrument training at military terminal area facilities when radar service is being provided. 8. Any loss, in controlled airspace, of VOR, TACAN, ADF, low frequency navigation receiver capability, complete or partial loss of ILS receiver capability or impairment of air/ground communications capability. Reports should include aircraft identification, equipment affected, degree to which the capability to operate under IFR in the ATC system is impaired, and the nature and extent of assistance desired from ATC. NOTE: Other equipment installed in an aircraft may effectively impair safety and/or the ability to operate under IFR. If such equipment (e.g. airborne weather radar) malfunctions and in the pilot's judgment either safety or IFR capabilities are affected, reports should be made as above. 9. Any information relating to the safety of flight. (b) When not in "radar contact". 1. When leaving final approach fix inbound on final approach (nonprecision approach) or when leaving the outer marker or fix used in lieu of the outer marker inbound on final approach (precision approach). 2. A corrected estimate at anytime it becomes apparent that an estimate as previously submitted is in error in excess of 2 minutes. For flights in the North Atlantic (NAT), a revised estimate is required if the error is 3 minutes or more. (c) Pilots encountering weather conditions which have not been forecast, or hazardous conditions which have been forecast, are expected to forward a report of such weather to ATC.

Question 101

What are the pilot's responsibilities when being radar vectored?

Answer 101

1. Promptly complies with headings and altitudes assigned to you by the controller. 2. Questions any assigned heading or altitude believed to be incorrect. 3. If operating VFR and compliance with any radar vector or altitude would cause a violation of any CFR, advises ATC and obtains a revised clearance or instructions.

Question 102

When may you leave the last assigned altitude after being radar vectored to the final approach course?

Answer 102

unless a different altitude is assigned by ATC or until the aircraft is established on a segment of a published route or IAP.

Question 103

While being radar vectored for an approach, what should the pilot do if it becomes apparent that a radar vector heading will cause the aircraft to fly through the final approach course before an approach clearance has been recieved?

Answer 103

continue on assigned heading but query the controller *** the pilot should query the controller. (c) The pilot is not expected to turn inbound on the final approach course unless an approach clearance has been issued.

Question 104

You are IMC, 5 nm due North of RUCKR NDB on a downwind vector of 240º and 2000' for the ILS RWY 6 approach at CAIRNS AAF (KOZR). If communication with ATC is lost and you cannot establish communications through any means, what should you do?

Answer 104

- Set transponder to 7600. - Keep transmitting "In the Blind" - listen for ATC communication on GUARD or NAVAID freqs. - Maintain last assigned altitude (2000') unless other minimum altitudes (i.e. Minimum Safe Sector ALT -> 3100' MSL) are to be adhered to. - Turn in shortest direction inbound the IAF and commence the published IAP for ILS RWY 6 and land. - If unable to land due to WX execute MAP > continue IAW the filed flight plan to alternate airfield.

Question 105

Where is the MAP (Missed Approach Point) for ASR and PAR approaches?

Answer 105

ASR – The controller informs the aviator when the aircraft is at the MAP. PAR – DA/DH is determined in the cockpit either as read on the altimeter or when advised by the controller, whichever occurs first.

Question 106

Can an ASR or PAR approach be affected by rain?

Answer 106

Yes. Radar can be reflected or attenuated by dense objects such as heavy clouds or precipitation (rain or snow).

Question 107

What MDA should the pilot descend to for an ASR approach to RWY 14 at WHITING FLD NAS-SOUTH (KNDZ), circle to land RWY 23? (Note: NAS Whiting is in Florida)

Answer 107

MDA 640 ft. MDA is for the runway to which the final approach is flown (RWY 14), not the landing runway. (IAP, IFR Landing Minima Legend)

Question 108

What actions should be taken on final during a GCA approach if communications are lost?

Answer 108

Initiate lost commo procedures, not missed approach procedures. If unable to reestablish commo or maintain VFR, proceed with a published instrument approach procedure or previously coordinated instructions. [The missed approach begins at the missed approach point.] Maintain last assigned altitude or MSA, whichever is higher, until established on a segment of the approach.

Question 109

Concerning the IFR Crew Mission Brief, define the two challenge rule and give a specific example of how it could be used during an IFR flight.

Answer 109

P observes something and lets P* know. If P* does not respond properly after two warnings, P will take the controls and take appropriate action. Could happen if P* experiences un-recognized SD ***Two Challenge rule: If the P observes that the P* is not following ATC instructions, is about to exceed some aircraft parameter, etc, he will explicitly state the condition up to two times. If the P* does not respond properly, the P will take the appropriate action to correct the situation. (The P should still assume controls immediately to prevent an accident!)

Question 110

What preflight planning items must Army aviators evaluate prior to flight?

Answer 110

The aviator will evaluate aircraft performance, departure, enroute and approach data, notices to airmen (NOTAMS), and appropriate FLIP or DOD publications

Question 111

How would you obtain NOTAM information for Marianna Muni on a flight departing from Cairns AAF?

Answer 111

Primary - DOD Internet NOTAMS Service (DINS) and Defense Aeronautical Information Portal (DAIP) websites Secondary - DINS server website (https://www.notams.faa.gov) The primary NOTAM query is DINS https://www.nota-ms.jcs.mil or DAIP https://www.daip.jcs.mil/daip/mobile/index and incorporates many features to assist the user when retrieving NOTAM requests. The secondary DINS Query is https://www.notams.faa.gov.

Question 112

What are FDC NOTAMs, where would you find them, and when would you (an Army aviator) use them?

Answer 112

Flight Data Center NOTAMs contain such things as amendments to published IAPs, other current aeronautical charts, and TFRs. Available through FSS on request NOTE− NOTAM data may not always be current due to the changeable nature of national airspace system components, delays inherent in processing information, and occasional temporary outages of the U.S. NOTAM system. ***While en route, pilots should contact FSSs and obtain updated information for their route of flight and destination.

Question 113

What does the following DINS NOTAM mean? KDHN DOTHAN RGNL RWY 32 MALSR O/S WIE UFN

Answer 113

Runway 32 Medium Intensity Approach Lighting System with Runway Alignment Indicator Lights Out of Service With Immediate Effect Until Further Notice

Question 114

From which six sources will Military pilots obtain required weather and NOTAM information when departing a location where military weather and NOTAM services are not available?

Answer 114

1. Operational Weather Squadron (OWS) 2. Command-approved weather sources 3. US National Weather Service (http://aviationweather.gov/) 4. National Weather Service/FAA-approved source IAW FAAO 8900.1 (http://fsims.faa.gov/) 5. Accredited local agencies 6. https://daip.jcs.mil

Question 115

Explain how to compute the ETE to an alternate airfield on the DD Form 175.

Answer 115

The ETE to the alternate airfield should include time from the— MAP to the missed approach holding point to include one circuit in the holding pattern. Missed approach holding point to the alternate including approach and landing time.

Question 116

What are the components of a position report?

Answer 116

``` ID position time altitude ETA and name of next reporting point name only of succeeding reporting point remarks ```

Question 117

When must position reports be made on an IFR flight?

Answer 117

Designated compulsory reporting points along airways Each point on the flight plan used to define a direct route Discontinue reports when informed the aircraft is in a "Radar Contact"

Question 118

What does the radio call consist of when making initial contact with ATC on a direct flight to a NAVAID in a non-radar environment? B. In a radar environment?

Answer 118

NonRadar: On initial contact, the pilot should inform the controller of the aircraft's present position, altitude, and time estimate for the next reporting point. After initial contact, when a position report will be made, the pilot should give the controller a complete position report. Radar: On initial contact, the pilot should inform the controller of the aircraft's assigned altitude preceded by the words "level" or "climbing" or "descending", as appropriate; and the aircraft's present vacating altitude if applicable.

Question 119

What is the purpose of Temporary Flight Restrictions (TFRs) and how does the pilot know a TFR is in effect?

Answer 119

The purpose for establishing a temporary flight restrictions area is to: 1. Protect persons and property in the air or on the surface from an existing or imminent hazard associated with an incident on the surface when the presence of low flying aircraft would magnify, alter, spread, or compound that hazard; 2. Provide a safe environment for the operation of disaster relief aircraft; 3. Prevent an unsafe congestion of sightseeing aircraft above an incident or event which may generate a high degree of public interest; 4. Protect declared national disasters for humanitarian reasons in the State of Hawaii; 5. Protect the President, Vice President, or other public figures; 6. Provide a safe environment for space agency operations. Disseminated as a NOTAM beginning with the phrase “FLIGHT RESTRICTIONS.”

Question 120

What actions must be performed by the P* when IIMC is encountered?

Answer 120

P* announces “Inadvertent IMC”. P* performs recovery procedure: a. Attitude-Level the wings on the attitude indicator. b. Heading-Maintain heading; turn only to avoid known obstacles. c. Torque-Adjust torque to climb power. d. Airspeed-Adjust airspeed to climb airspeed. e. Trim-Maintain the aircraft in trim. Complete IIMC recovery procedure per local regulations and policies. Note: P* announces if disoriented or unable to recover. *** a. Announce “inadvertent IMC” (P*). b. Transition to instrument flight (P*). c. Begin recovery procedures. (1) Attitude. P* levels the wings on the attitude indicator. (2) Heading. P* will announce and maintain the current heading; turning only to avoid known obstacles. (3) TQ. P* will announce and adjust the TQ to climb/cruise PWR as appropriate. (4) Airspeed. P* will adjust and announce the desired airspeed to climb or cruise as appropriate. (5) Trim. P* will maintain the aircraft in trim. 2. After aircraft control is established. a. P sets the transponder to emergency. b. Complete the recovery procedure per local regulations and policies (P*). Note. The P* announces if disoriented and unable to recover.

Question 121

What actions must be performed by the P when IIMC is encountered?

Answer 121

When the P/P* announces “inadvertent IMC” P immediately transitions to instrument flight to CROSS-MONITOR the P* for aircraft control. Continue to assist the P* to complete the recovery procedure by tuning avionics, contacting and coordinating with ATC. Note: P may need to take the controls and implement recovery procedures if P* is disoriented or unable. *** a. Announce “inadvertent IMC” (P). b. Transition to instrument flight (P). c. Begin recovery procedures. P will monitor. 2. After aircraft control is established. a. P sets the transponder to emergency. b. Complete the recovery procedure per local regulations and policies (P). Note. The P shall tune the radios to the appropriate frequencies, make the appropriate radio calls, and request ATC assistance, acknowledge and record ATC information. Note. The P may need to take the controls and implement recovery procedures.

Question 122

When an emergency GPS recovery procedure is required, who is tasked to develop it and who must approve it?

Answer 122

An Instrument Examiner (IE) is tasked to develop the procedure. The first O-6 in the chain-of-command with mission-risk approval authority must approve the procedure. *** the emergency recovery procedure containing a non-approved instrument approach

Question 123

Why are military pilots required to advise the TIE-IN FSS of their actual departure time when departing from a civilian airfield?

Answer 123

If the takeoff time is not passed to the TIE-IN FSS, the aircraft will arrive unannounced at the destination. IMPORTANT: This is NOT for the purpose of “opening my flight plan.” The concern is arriving at military airfields unannounced. The military base operation needs to know when aircraft will arrive due to VIP, parking, and servicing requirements. (**NOTE 1: See GP 6-9.c and 6-9.c.(2) for supporting information. When flying to a civilian airfield the FBO usually doesn't care unless you have a large multi-ship flight. In that case someone should coordinate that ahead of time via phone.***) (**NOTE: DUAT is not formatted to provide flight notification messages to military users/installations.***

Question 124

Who is responsible and what are the procedures for closing flight plans?

Answer 124

PC will ensure flight plan is closed per DOD FLIP. Military base: verbal confirmation with TWR or Base Ops Non-Military: close with FSS with any means available.

Question 125

What is the proper pronunciation of the following? (Altitude) "2500, 10,000"

Answer 125

"Two thousand five hundred", "One zero thousand"

Question 126

What is the proper pronunciation of the following? (Airspeed) "90"

Answer 126

"Niner zero knots" | controllers may omit the word "knots" for airspeed adjustments ie. "reduce speed to eight zero"

Question 127

What is the proper pronunciation of the following? (Time) "Midnight"

Answer 127

"Zero zero zero zero"

Question 128

What is the proper pronunciation of the following? (Frequency) "126.9"

Answer 128

"One two six point niner"

Question 129

What is the proper pronunciation of the following? (Altimeter) “30.02”

Answer 129

“Three zero zero two”

Question 130

Using the CPU-26A/P (aka “whiz-wheel”) what rate of climb must be obtained on the VSI during a 75 knot climb (no wind) if a climb rate of 550' per NM is required ? Explain how you arrived at your answer.

Answer 130

Climb rate required at 75kts = 690 FPM. Set arrow to 75 (outer scale) for 75 knots. Above 55 (inner scale) for 550 feet, read 69 (outer scale) for 690 FPM.

Question 131

Concerning TH-67 fuel management procedures: A. How much fuel is required at takeoff on an IFR flight? B. When must the initial airborne fuel reading be accomplished? C. How is the fuel consumption check and monitoring performed?

Answer 131

A. Enough fuel to reach the destination and alternate (if required) and have a planned reserve of 30 min at cruise. B. With the aircraft in mission cruise profile (IFR: upon level off at initial cruise altitude). C. Initiate by recording fuel remaining on analog gauge and time At 30 to 60 min after initial reading, again record fuel remaining on the analog gauge and time. If analog and digital FUEL FLOW INDICATOR - GAL REM within 3 gal, use the digital FUEL FLOW INDICATOR to record rate of consumption, time remaining to burnout, and reserve time. If not within 3 gal, use the analog fuel quantity gauge to complete the check. Periodically monitor fuel quantity and consumption rate. If burn rate or consumption change repeat fuel check. ***With the aircraft in mission/cruise profile, 30 to 60 minutes after performing the initial fuel reading, record the remaining fuel and time of reading. Compute and record the rate of consumption, burnout, and reserve entry time. This may be done utilizing the Fuel Flow Indicator if the fuel remaining agrees within 3 gallons of the Fuel Quantity Indicator. Otherwise, the Fuel Quantity Indicator will be used. Determine if the remaining fuel is sufficient to complete the flight with the required reserve. If the fuel quantity is inadequate, initiate an alternate course of action. c. Fuel quantity and consumption. Periodically monitor the fuel quantity and consumption rate. If the fuel quantity or flow indicates a deviation from computed values, repeat the fuel consumption check to determine if the fuel quantity is adequate to complete the flight.

Question 132

What considerations should go into selecting an enroute altitude for IFR operations?

Answer 132

Weather, Direction of Flight, MEA, MOCA, MAA, MRA, MCA, Aircraft Performance and equipment,and Air Traffic Control.

Question 133

When should a direct flight be used and what two basic enroute considerations then becomes the pilot's responsibility?

Answer 133

Only if the mission requires it or if considerable savings of fuel or time can be realized. The pilot becomes responsible for obstruction clearances and NAVAID range limitations. ***two basic considerations: CFR Title 14, Part 91.177 must be complied with to ensure obstruction clearance, and NAVAID ranges and restrictions must be researched to ensure reception for the entire leg.

Question 134

Can airfields listed as Official Business Only or Prior Permission Required be used as an alternate for IFR flights? Explain.

Answer 134

Yes, airfields listed as Official Business only and PPR can be used as an alternate for IFR flight. If PPR is indicated for a military airfield you do not have to obtain the PPR ahead of time to use it as an alternate, BUT if a non-US military [civil or foreign] airfield requires a PPR one must be obtained to list it as an alternate. *** OFFL BUS or PPR does not preclude the use of US Military airports as an alternate for IFR flights. If a non-US military airport is used as a weather alternate and requires a PPR, the PPR must be requested and confirmed before the flight departs. The purpose of PPR is to control volume and flow of traffic rather than to prohibit it.

Question 135

Describe how to perform an ITO from a HVR (per CMP: VMC takeoff with IMC transition).

Answer 135

Perform normal VMC takeoff from 3' HVR on assigned heading/course. After accelerating through ETL adjust to climb power(15% TQ above hvr pwr desired, 10% required) and climb airspeed. Transition to instruments prior to actual or simulated IMC. *** On the runway or takeoff pad, align the aircraft with the desired takeoff heading. Set/confirm the attitude indicator for takeoff and check the controls for proper response. Establish the aircraft at a 3-foot HVR. Initiate the takeoff by smoothly and steadily increasing the collective until takeoff PWR is reached. Simultaneously adjust pitch attitude as necessary to establish initial accelerative climb attitude. Visually maintain runway clearance and alignment on takeoff until the aircraft accelerates through ETL. Prior to entering actual or simulated IMC, the P* will direct attention to the flight instruments and establish an instrument cross-check.

Question 136

What are the required items for the approach brief? Give an approach brief for an approach selected by the Flight Commander.

Answer 136

1. Name of the approach. 2. MDA/DA/DH. 3. Missed Approach Point (MAP). (Flight Commander selects an Approach from an IAP and student gives a proper approach brief.)

Question 137

Describe the Crew Coordination between the P* and P during Final Approach through the Missed Approach segments.

Answer 137

P*: During the approach the P* stays focused on the flight instruments and executes the missed approach at the MAP (i.e. transitions to a stabilized climb straight ahead). P: On final, the P determines if AR 95-1 requirements are met to go below the MDA/DA/DH (what are they?) and announces it. Depending on the crew brief, the P will either assume controls by stating “I have the controls, RWY in sight” or direct the P* to transition to VMC by stating “RWY [DIR] and [DIST], proceed visual”. (the P* should acknowledge that he has RWY in sight.) Missed Approach: After the P*/P (as appropriate for the procedure) announces “Missed Approach” and A/C is in stabilized climb, the P talks the P* through the MAP procedure one step at a time. * ** (1) The approach threshold of the runway, or the approach lights or other markings, identifiable with the approach end of the runway or landing area, must be visible to the pilot. (2) The aircraft must be in a position from which a safe approach to the runway or landing area can be made. *** During the approach, the P* stays focused on the flight instruments, and executes the missed approach at the MAP. On final, the P determines if AR 95-1 requirements are met to continue the approach beyond the MAP and if so, announces it. Depending on the crew briefing, if break-out occurs, the P may elect to take the controls and land, or if conditions permit, the P may state direction and distance to RWY/landing point so the P* can transition to VMC and land. Absent either of the aforementioned options, the P* will initiate missed approach procedures upon arriving at the MAP. If a missed approach procedure is required, after the P* begins to climb, the P should talk the P* through the procedure one step at a time to avoid overwhelming him/her with information.

Question 138

A severe thunderstorm should be avoided by what distance if possible?

Answer 138

Avoid by at least 20 miles any thunderstorm identified as severe or giving an intense radar echo. This is especially true under the anvil of a large cumulonimbus.

Question 139

How much angular difference can surface friction affect wind direction?

Answer 139

This angle varies from 10 degrees over the oceans to as much as 45 degrees over rugged terrain.

Question 140

Up to what altitude can surface friction slow winds?

Answer 140

Surface friction slows winds up to about 2,000 or 3,000 feet AGL Therefore, air about 3,000 feet or more AGL tends to flow parallel to the contours.

Question 141

Are flight-level winds on your DD Form 175-1 Forecast or Actual winds?

Answer 141

Forecast

Question 142

What are some of the chief hazards to flight found in the vicinity of a cold front? A warm front?

Answer 142

A. Cold Front: Turbulence (may be extreme), thunderstorms, lightning, heavy rain showers, tornadoes, hail, and clear icing. Also, strong, variable, gusty surface winds around and under the thunderstorms. B. Warm Front: Wide overcast area with low ceilings and poor visibility ahead of the front (200 miles or more). May encounter embedded thunderstorms during warm months and severe icing during winter.

Question 143

What are the different types of icing and where can icing conditions most likely be expected?

Answer 143

clear, rime and mixed. Frost is another form of icing, but is not forecasted as a type of icing. Icing conditions should be expected in cloud layers where the air temperature ranges from 0 degrees Celsius to - 10 degrees Celsius. *** Conditions most favorable for clear ice formation are high water content, large droplet size, and temperatures slightly below freezing. Clear ice normally forms when temperatures are between 0 degrees and -16 Degrees C, and is most frequently forecasted in cumuliform clouds between 0 degrees and -08 degrees C and during freezing precipitation. Clear icing can also be encountered in cumulonimbus clouds in temperatures as low as -25 degrees C. ***Rime ice is most frequently encountered in stratiform clouds but also occurs in cumulus clouds. Rime ice may form in stratiform clouds from 0 degrees to -30 C, but most frequently occurs within stratus clouds between -08 degrees and -10 degrees C.It may also accumulate when temperatures in cumuliform clouds are between 0 degrees and -20 degrees C but can be expected in thunderstorms as cold as -40 degrees C.

Question 144

Outside of icing that can form in thunderstorms, what icing condition is considered the most dangerous?

Answer 144

Freezing rain and drizzle, is the most dangerous of all icing conditions. It can build hazardous amounts of ice in a few minutes and is extremely difficult to remove.

Question 145

A. What conditions are ideal for the formation of fog? B. What type of fog normally forms over the southeastern U.S. during the winter months?

Answer 145

Small temperature dew point spread (5 degrees F or less) Abundant condensation nuclei (smoke, dust, etc.) Light surface wind Cooling land surfaces, warmer air above (i.e, air is cooled from below) Advection fog over the southeastern United States and along the Gulf Coast results from moist tropical air moving over cold ground, for this reason, it is more frequent in winter than summer. Airfields located downwind from cold, freshwater lakes can experience frequent bouts with advection fog during the summer months. *** A. 1. High relative humidity- temp/dewpoint spread of 0 to 2.2 degrees C 2. Light wind-causes gentle mixing action. 3. Condensation nuclei-smoke, dust ect... B. Advection fog normally forms over South-eastern U.S. during the winter months. Warm air from the Gulf of Mexico or the Atlantic ocean moves over a cooler land mass.

Question 146

What is the receivable range of AWOS and ASOS?

Answer 146

AWOS and ASOS both receivable to a maximum range of 25nm and up to 10,000 AGL. Local conditions may limit max reception distance and/or altitude.

Question 147

Does AWOS-2 give altimeter and cloud ceiling?

Answer 147

Altimeter = Yes / Ceiling = No *** AWOS-1 - usually reports altimeter setting, wind data, temperature, dew point, and density altitude. AWOS-2 - reports the same as AWOS-1 plus visibility.

Question 148

Give one example of an airfield with AWOS and one with ASOS and state two ways you could listen to them. (Be specific.)

Answer 148

Enterprise AWOS Frequency 118.9 Call 334-347-3524 Aberdeen Rgnl ASOS Frequency 125.875 Call 605-229-4512

Question 149

What is PMSV and how is it used? Give an example of one to include their call sign and FREQ.

Answer 149

Direct pilot to forecaster service provided by the USAF Air Weather Service. Full or limited service as noted on chart and IFRS, some less then continuous. Weather radar available at selected sites. Range varies with altitude. Radio call for PMSV is "[name] Metro". Cairns Metro 134.1

Question 150

State the ceiling and visibility conditions associated with each of the following categorical outlooks used for advanced planning used only in an area forecast: LIFR, IFR, MVFR, VFR

Answer 150

LIFR (Low IFR). Ceiling less than 500 feet and/or visibility less than 1 mile. IFR. Ceiling 500 to less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility 1 to less than 3 miles. MVFR (Marginal VFR). Ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles inclusive. VFR. Ceiling greater than 3,000 feet and visibility greater than 5 miles; includes sky clear.

Question 151

A. What is an AIRMET, a SIGMET, and a Convective SIGMET? B. If an AIRMET/SIGMET/Convective SIGMET is issued as part of an Area Forecast, does that mean the condition will exist along the your planned route of flight?

Answer 151

A. AIRMETs: Sierra – IFR conditions and/or extensive mountain obscurations. Tango – Moderate turbulence, sfc wind 30 kts+, non-convective low-level wind shear. Zulu – Moderate icing and freezing level heights. SIGMETS: Severe icing, severe or extreme turbulence, dust storms or sandstorms with visibility below 3 miles, volcanic ash. Convective SIGMETS: Severe, embedded, or lines of thunderstorms. Implies severe or greater turbulence, severe icing, and low-level wind shear. B. The condition requiring the issuance of a SIGMET or AIRMET could in fact exist only in a small portion of the total forecast area [see 7-1-6b]. The pilot must determine whether or not the condition would be encountered and determine if he should continue as planned, modify the plan, or cancel the flight.

Question 152

What is the aircraft currency requirement for an Army PI or PC, and what happens if they lose currency?

Answer 152

To be considered current in the aircraft, individuals must take part in flight once every 60 days at a crew station with access to the flight controls. Individuals must perform designated duties in a crew station authorized on the Commanders Task List. If 60 days have elapsed since the last flight, the crewmember will be administered a PFE in the aircraft. NVD currency will be per TC 3 – 04.11 and the appropriate MTL.

Question 153

A. What are standard Army helicopter Special VFR (SVFR) minimums? B. What are SFVR minimums for Cairns AAF (KOZR)?

Answer 153

A. AR 95-1 helicopter SVFR minima is ½ mile visibility and clear of clouds unless a higher minimum is required at the airfield. B. Cairns SVFR minimums published in AP/1 require 300 ft ceiling and ½ mile visibility daytime, 500 ft ceiling and 1 mile at night. It's also listed on the board at Cairns Base Operations.

Question 154

A. When planning to depart SVFR, what would go in the “TYPE FLT PLAN” block on a DD 175? B. Who would you contact to request a SVFR clearance to depart or enter Class D airspace?

Answer 154

(GP) A. “V” because it is a VFR segment. *** Do not combine IFR and VFR route segments on the same line. (AIM) B.The tower *** When a control tower is located within the Class B, Class C, or Class D surface area, requests for clearances should be to the tower.

Question 155

Would it be legal for an Army aviator with less than 50 hours of weather experience as pilot in command to depart from G Pad at Cairns AAF with an observation of 100 ft overcast, visibility 1/8 mile fog, RWY 6 RVR 1400 ft?

Answer 155

No, however it would be legal to depart from RWY 6 because RVR applies to the runway for which it is reported. (95-1) *** ceiling 100 feet and either visibility 1/4 mile, RVR 1,200 feet, or metric equivalent. The RVR may be used when takeoff is made from the runway for which RVR is reported.

Question 156

You are planning an IFR flight to Troy Muni (TOI) to arrive at 1200hrs local. The NOTAMS state that the ILS glide slope is OTS and the RNAV approaches are NA WIE UFN. A. State which approach procedure would allow the lowest forecast weather minimums to file there and explain how you arrived at your answer. B. State which approach procedure would allow the lowest forecast weather minimums to file there without requiring an alternate and explain how you arrived at your answer.

Answer 156

Wx to file: 300-3/8 @ETA + 1hr for PAR RWY 7 (50% of 3/4 = 3/8) . Wx to file w/o alternate: 900/1-1/2 @ETA +1hr for LOC RWY 7.

Question 157

Situation: You are flying to TRI COUNTY, FL (1J0) planning for the RNAV 19 approach and are 7nm north-west of CWATR. The prevailing weather is for IFR conditions and surface winds are from the north at 25kts. There is a NOTAM stating the Marianna ASOS is OTS. What MDA would you give for your approach brief and why?

Answer 157

660' for the CIRCLING MDA. You must use the NW Florida Beaches Intl altimeter setting and increase all MDAs 20ft, and to avoid a 25kt tailwind landing you would select CIRCLING to RWY 1.

Question 158

Dothan (DHN), AL is your intended destination, but for this flight you need an alternate and would like to use Enterprise Muni (EDN), AL (there are no NOTAMs). What minimum weather forecast would allow the use of Enterprise as the alternate? Explain how you arrived at your answer.

Answer 158

2200-3 @ETA + 1hr using the transition from RRS. EDN is unmonitored so VFR descent criteria is applied. (VFR Exception rule) 2000 – 361 = 1639 + 500 = 2139 rounded up = 2200 **NOTE** It must be based on an ENROUTE altitude that will be flown to the alternate airport, not a PT or STEP-DOWN FIX altitude used for an approach procedure!

Question 159

At the MDA for the VOR B approach at Marianna, Fl. over MAFBA, are you in class E or class G airspace? Explain how you arrived at your answer and why it is important to know.

Answer 159

Class-G airspace because the MDA goes to 720 which is 610 ft AGL and Class-E starts at 700' AGL. It's important because VFR traffic can be operating at the base of the clouds and there is no tower to provide aircraft separation.

Question 160

A. What are the weather requirements to operate VFR in class B airspace? B. Is there any difference in the equipment requirements between filing VFR and IFR to an airfield in class B airspace?

Answer 160

A. Clear of clouds and 3 miles visibility. B. Yes. A VOR or TACAN receiver or suitable RNAV system is required for IFR operations but not for VFR. ***two way radio and mode c transponder

Question 161

Is an ATC clearance required to enter class C airspace VFR?

Answer 161

No, but radio commo must be established prior to entering. If the controller responds to a radio call with, "(aircraft callsign) standby," radio communications have been established and the pilot can enter the airspace. [Point out how this differs from class B airspace, where a CLEARANCE is required]. 20 NM ***Two-way radio communication must be established with the ATC facility providing ATC services prior to entry and thereafter maintain those communications while in Class C airspace.

Question 162

On a VFR flight, must you communicate with anyone to depart from or land to an airfield within a magenta segmented line on a VFR Sectional when the weather is 1000 and 2 miles?

Answer 162

(AIM) Yes. It is class "E" surface based airspace and Part 91.155 restricts entry into the airspace when ceiling is below 1000 ft or visibility is less then 3 miles unless an ATC clearance has been received. Special VFR has to be requested

Question 163

Explain IFR planning and flight through a Restricted Area or a MOA.

Answer 163

(GP and .5) Planning: Restricted Areas - According to the GP under DD 175, Route of Flight, RNAV procedures, plan to avoid Restricted Areas by 3NM unless permission has been obtained to operate in that airspace and ATC is advised. MOA - Pilots should evaluate routes, altitudes, and MOA hours of operation/planned activation during IFR planning. A pilot may plan to fly through a MOA IFR but must be prepared to be diverted in the event ATC cannot guarantee separation. In-flight: ATC may clear an IFR aircraft through joint use restricted airspace if it has been released to the controlling agency (ATC), or MOAs if they are not active or if separation can be provided. If ATC does not have joint use or cannot guarantee separation they will route non-participating IFR traffic around the areas. Military pilots may obtain their own permission to operate in an activeRestricted Area or MOA and inform ATC.

Question 164

What minimum rate of descent is needed at 90 kts ground speed during final approach for the VOR-B at Marianna Muni, FL (MAI)? Explain how you got your answer.

Answer 164

600 fpm 600 1080’ ^ 1:48 **NOTE: A greater rate of descent than 500fpm may sometimes be necessary (due to high ground speeds or short final approach segments) in order for visual reference with the runway environment to be established within the FAF to MAP time. The PC may consider flying some approaches at a lower airspeed to increase FAF to MAP time and reduce descent rate.**

Question 165

Explain how to fly the VOR RWY 6 missed approach procedure at Cairns AAF if visual contact with the ground is lost while circling south to land to RWY 24.

Answer 165

Make initial climbing turn towards the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course. 2000’ R-162 from Cairns VOR

Question 166

Due to temp error, what would be the new MDA at GREENVILLE DOWNTOWN (GMU) for the LOC RWY 1 approach if the FAT is -15 degrees? Explain how you got your answer.

Answer 166

Published MDA 1540' MSL, HAA 525', TEMP -15 degrees C 1) Read where 500 (525 rounded) HAT/HAA intersects with -15 degrees C = 60' 2) Published MDA 1540' MSL + 60' = new MDA 1600' (Amdt 29A) Published MDA 1420' MSL, HAA 405', TEMP -15 degrees C 1) Read where 400 (405 rounded) HAT/HAA intersects with -15 degrees C = 50' 2) Published MDA 1420' MSL + 50' = new MDA 1470'

Question 167

Explain the difference between a “visual approach” and a “contact approach.”

Answer 167

Visual Approach: An IFR approach clearance that can be given by ATC when the WX is at least 1000' ceiling and 3 mi visibility. The pilot must remain clear of clouds and have either the airport or preceding aircraft in sight. Contact Approach: An IFR approach clearance that can only be initiated by the pilot's request. The pilot must remain clear of clouds, have at least 1 mile visibility, and can reasonably expect to continue to the destination airport in those conditions while maintaining ground contact. Pilot assumes responsibility for obstruction clearance.

Question 168

Explain the difference between being cleared for a “straight in approach” versus a “straight in landing.”

Answer 168

Straight in Approach means executing an instrument approach procedure with no procedure turn. *** Not necessarily completed with a straight-in landing or made to straight-in landing minimums. Straight in landing is landing on a runway aligned within 30 degrees of the final approach course (as opposed to performing a circle-to-land maneuver).

Question 169

You are departing Tallahassee Regional, FL (TLH) IFR from RWY 27 and the WX is 300' ceiling and 3/4 mile visibility. CLNC DEL cleared you direct to the SZW VOR at 2000 ft. The tower says "Pick 123, after departure fly heading 270, cleared for takeoff". After takeoff, do you maintain 270 degrees or turn direct to the SZW VOR passing through 400' AGL? Why?

Answer 169

Maintain heading 270 degrees. “Pilots operating in a radar environment are expected to associate departure headings with vectors to their planned route of flight.”

Question 170

You are on an IFR flight from Dothan, Al. to Tallahassee, Fl. You are cleared direct RRS, V-7, SZW, climb maintain 3000, expect 4000 at OALDY intersection (there are no NOTAMs concerning your route of flight). A. If communications is lost 2 miles prior to OALDY and you are IMC, what altitudes would you fly for the remainder of the flight? B. What altitudes would you fly if communications was lost 2 miles after crossing OALDY?

Answer 170

A. Maintain 3000 until reaching OALDY since this altitude is higher than the MEA of 2500, upon crossing OALDY climb to and maintain 4000 since this altitude is higher than the MEA for the airway. B. Maintain 3000 because you have already gone beyond the fix that the expected change in altitude was to take place and this altitude is higher than the published MEA for the remainder of the airway.

Question 171

When may a pilot leave a clearance limit if communications with ATC has been lost?

Answer 171

a. When the clearance limit is a fix from which an approach begins, commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the expect further clearance time if one has been received, or if one has not been received, as close as possible to the expected time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time enroute. b. If the clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins, leave the clearance limit at the expect further clearance time if one has been received, or if none has been received, upon arrival over the clearance limit, and proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time enroute.

Question 172

You are on a radar vector of 330 degrees, 3000' and exactly halfway between the 1J0 (Bonifay, FL) and OZR(Cairns AAF) located on ELA L-22 panel I. The weather is 1500 SCT, 10,000 BKN and 4 miles visibility. You were last told to expect the ILS RWY 6 to Cairns AAF. If communications with ATC has been lost and all attempts to re-establish communications fail, what would you do?

Answer 172

Maintain VMC, SQUAWK 7600, proceed VFR to Cairns AAF (or other location at PC's discretion) and land as soon as practicable by entering the traffic pattern and watching for light gun signals from the tower.

Question 173

You are filing IFR to GULF SHORES/JACK EDWARDS (JKA) with the following NOTAM : RWY 27 MALSR OTS UFN. What is the lowest weather you need to file there? Explain how you got your answer.

Answer 173

Ref. IAP chart and INOP Components Table 200-3/8 Landing minimums on IAP charts are based on full operation of all components and visual aids. 50% reduction in visibility is made AFTER you determine what the CAT-A minimums would be for a fixed-wing.