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Instrument 2 Flashcards

1
Q

When may a pilot make a straight in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums.

A) A straight in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land.
B) The pilot may land straight in if the runway is the active runway and he has been cleared to land.
C) A straight in landing may not be made, but the pilot may continue to the runway at MDA and then circle to land on the runway.

A

A) A straight in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land.

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2
Q

During an instrument approach, under what conditions, if any, is the holding pattern course reversal not required?

A) When cleared for the approach
B) When radar vectors are provided
C) None, since it is always mandatory

A

B) When radar vectors are provided

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3
Q

Due to visual illusion, when landing on a narrower than usual runway, the aircraft will appear to be

A) lower than actual, leading to a higher than normal approach
B) higher than actual, leader to a higher than normal approach
C) higher than actual, leader to a lower than normal approach

A

C) higher than actual, leader to a lower than normal approach

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4
Q

(Refer to figure 124.) What options are available concerning the teardrop course reversal for LOC RWY 35 approach to Duncan/Halliburton Field?

A) A normal procedure turn may be made if the 10 DMS limit is not exceeded.
B) The point where the turn is begun and the type and rate of turn are optional.
C) If a course reversal is required, only the teardrop can be executed.

A

C) If a course reversal is required, only the teardrop can be executed.

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5
Q

Which of the following conditions is required before “timed approaches from a holding fix” may be conducted?

A) If more than one missed approach procedure is available, only one may require a course reversal
B) If more than one missed approach procedure is available, none may require a course reversal
C) Direct communication between the pilot and the tower must be established prior to beginning the approach.

A

B) If more than one missed approach procedure is available, none may require a course reversal

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6
Q

When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the maximum speed should not be greater than

A) 190 knots IAS
B) 250 knots IAS
C) 200 knots IAS

A

C) 200 knots IAS

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7
Q

If only one missed approach procedure is available, which of the following conditions is required when conducting “timed approaches from a holding fix”?

A) The reporter ceiling and visibility minimums must be equal to or greater than the highest prescribed circling minimums for the IAP
B) The reporter ceiling and visibility minimums must be equal to or greats than the highest prescribed straight in MDA for the IAP
C) The pilot must contact the airport control tower prior to departing the holding fix inbound.

A

A) The reporter ceiling and visibility minimums must be equal to or greater than the highest prescribed circling minimums for the IAP

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8
Q

If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by ATC

A) Begun a climbing turn immediately and follow missed approach procedures.
B) Proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turn maneuver.
C) Maintain altitude and continue past MAP for 1 minute or 1 mike which ever occurs first.

A

B) Proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turn maneuver.

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9
Q

(Refer to figure 126.) If cleared for a straight-in LOC approach from over OALDY, it means the flight should

A) Begin final approach without making a procedure turn
B) Comply with straight-in landing minimums
C) Land straight in on runway 31

A

A) Begin final approach without making a procedure turn

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10
Q

When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?

A) At the localizer MDA minimum and when the runway is in sight.
B) As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.
C) At the published minimum altitude for a circling approach

A

B) As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.

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11
Q

While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until

A) Reaching The FAF
B) Established on a segment of a published route or IAP
C) Advised to begin descent

A

B) Established on a segment of a published route or IAP

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12
Q

You are being vectored to the ILS approach course, but have not been cleared for the approach. It becoming evident that you will pass through the localized course. What action should be taken?

A) Continue in the assigned heading and query ATC
B) Turn outbound and make a procedure turn.
C) Start a turn to the inbound heading and inquire if you are cleared for the approach

A

A) Continue in the assigned heading and query ATC

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13
Q

When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is needed to lose altitude or become better established on course, the additional circuits can be made

A) only in an emergency
B) At pilotMs discretion
C) only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves

A

C) only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves

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14
Q

A pilot is making an ILS approach and is past the OM to a runway which has a VASI. What action is appropriate if an electronic glide slope malfunction occurs and the pilot has the VASI in sight?

A) The pilot should inform ATC of the malfunction and then descend immediately to the localizer DH and make a localized approach
B) The pilot must request an LOC approach, and may descend below the VASI at the pilot’s discretion
C) The pilot may continue the approach and use the VASI glide slope in place of the electronic glide slope

A

C) The pilot may continue the approach and use the VASI glide slope in place of the electronic glide slope

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15
Q

Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within

A) The 1-minuet time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view
B) A radius of 5 miles from the holding fix
C) 10 knots of the specified holding speed

A

A) The 1-minuet time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view

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16
Q

If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach action should be to

A) climb to the published circling minimums then proceed direct to the final approach fix
B) Make a climbing turn toward the runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course.
C) Execute a climbing turn to parallel the published final approach course and climb to the initial approach altitude

A

B) Make a climbing turn toward the runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course.

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17
Q

(Refer to figure 126.) What landing minimums apply for a 14 CFR part 91 operator at Dothan, AL, using a category C aircraft during a circling LOC 31 approach at 120 knots? (DME available)

A) MDA 720 fest MSL and visibility 3/4 SM
B) MDA 860 fest MSL and visibility 1 and 1/2 SM
C) MDA 860 fest MSL and visibility 2 SM

A

B) MDA 860 fest MSL and visibility 1 and 1/2 SM

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18
Q

Which substitution is appropriate during an ILS approach?

A) DME, When locates at the localizer antenna site, should be substituted for either the outer or middle marker
B) LOC minimums should be substituted for ILS minimums whenever the glide slope becomes inoperative
C) A VOR radial crossing the outer marker site may be substituted for the outer marker.

A

B) LOC minimums should be substituted for ILS minimums whenever the glide slope becomes inoperative

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19
Q

The point on the teardrop procedure where the turn in bound (LOC REY 35) Duncan/Halliburton, is initiated is determined by

A) Estimating ground speed and radius of turn
B) DME and timing to remain within the 10-NM limit
C) Timing for a 2 minute maximum

A

B) DME and timing to remain within the 10-NM limit

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20
Q

When pilot action is appropriate if more than one component of an ILS is unusable?

A) use the highest minimum required by any single component that is useable
B) request another approach appropriate to the equipment that is useable
C) Raise the minimums a total of that required by each component that is unusable

A

A) use the highest minimum required by any single component that is useable

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21
Q

The RVE minimums for takeoff or landing are published in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the runway at the time. Which of the following would apply?

A) RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing the runway has an operative HIRL system
B) RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing all other components of the ILS system are operative
C) RVR minimums which are specified in the procedure should be converted and applied as ground visibility

A

C) RVR minimums which are specified in the procedure should be converted and applied as ground visibility

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22
Q

What is the touchdown zone elevation for RWY 6?

A) 174 fest MSL
B) 200 fest AGL
C) 270 fest MSL

A

A) 174 feet MSL

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23
Q

What minimum airborne equipment is required to be operative for RNAV RWY 36 approach at Adams Field?

A) Any approved RNAV received
B) An approved RNAV received that provides both horizontal and vertical guidance
C) A transponder and an approved RNAV received that provides both horizontal and vertical guidance

A

A) Any approved RNAV received

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24
Q

Aircraft approach categories are based on

A) 1.3. Times you spell speed at maximum gross weight
B) certificate approach speed at maximum gross weight
C) 1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight

A

C) 1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight

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25
Q

What is the purpose of the 10,300 MSA on the Price/Carbon County Airport Approach Chart?

A) It is the minimum vector altitude for radar vectors in the sector southwest of PUC between 020 and 299 magnetic bearing to PUC VOR
B) It provides an altitude above which navigational course guidance is assured
C) It provides safe clearance above the highest obstacle in the defined sector out to 25 NM

A

C) It provides safe clearance above the highest obstacle in the defined sector out to 25 NM

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26
Q

During an instrument precision approach, terrain and obstacle clearance depends on adherence to

A) minimum altitude shown on the IAP
B) terrain contour information
C) natural and man made reference point information

A

A) minimum altitude shown on the IAP

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27
Q

When obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector Altitudes depicts on the IAP charts?

A) 1,000 fest within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility, but not acceptable navigation signal coverage
B) 1,000 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility
C) 500 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 10 NM radius of the navigation facility

A

A) 1,000 fest within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility, but not acceptable navigation signal coverage

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28
Q

The missed approach point of the ATL S-LOC 8L procedure is located how far from the LOM?

A) 5.1
B) 4.8
C) 5.2

A

C) 5.2

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29
Q

The final approach fix for the precision approach is located at

A) glide slope intercept (lightning bolt)
B) ROMEN intersection/locator outer marker
C) DENAU intersection

A

A) glide slope intercept (lightning bolt)

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30
Q

Which fixes on the IAP Charts are initial approach fixes?

A) any fix on the run route facilities ring, the feeder facilities ring, and those at the start of arc approaches
B) any fix that is identified by the letter IAF
C) only the fixes at the start of arc approaches and those on either the feeder facilities ring or en route facilities ring that have a transition course shown to the approach procedure

A

B) any fix that is identified by the letter IAF

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31
Q

Approaching DFW from Abilene, which frequencies should you expect to use for regional approach control, control tower, and ground control respectively?

A) 119.0); 124.15; 121.8
B) 125.8; 124.15; 121.8
C) 119.05; 126.55; 121.65

A

B) 125.8; 124.15; 121.8

32
Q

What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?

A) teardrop-type procedure turn is authorized
B) racetrack-type procedure turn is authorized
C) a procedure turn is not authorized

A

C) a procedure turn is not authorized

33
Q

If the RVR is not reported, what meteorological value should you substitute for 2,400 RVR?

A) a slant range visibility of 2,400 feet for the final approach segment of the published approach procedure
B) a ground visibility of 1/2 NM
C) a ground visibility of 1/2 SM

A

C) a ground visibility of 1/2 SM

34
Q

When using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, any required alternate airport must have

A) authorization to fly approaches under IFR using GOS avionics systems
B) an approved operational instrument approach procedure other than GPS
C) a GOD approach that is anticipated to be operational and available at the ETA

A

B) an approved operational instrument approach procedure other than GPS

35
Q

Which of the following is true concerning GPS approaches?

A) terminal mode occurs within 20NM of the destination airport
B) in approach mode, the sensitivity on the CDU changed from 1NM to 0.3NM
C) handheld GPS receivers are approved in emergency situations

A

B) in approach mode, the sensitivity on the CDU changed from 1NM to 0.3NM

36
Q

On a GOD with WAAS capability, what is the significance or “LNAV+V” being delayed?

A) advisory vertical guidance is provided that must be used in lieu of published step-down fixes on the instrument approach
B) advisory vertical guidance is provided as an aid to the pilot during descent to the runway
C) Approved vertical guidance to descend to the decision altitude is provided to the pilot

A

B) advisory vertical guidance is provided as an aid to the pilot during descent to the runway

37
Q

If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available prior to beginning a GOS approach, the pilot should

A) use a navigation or approach system other than GOS for an approach
B) continue the approach, expecting to recapture the satellites before reaching the FAF
C)Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured

A

A) use a navigation or approach system other than GOS for an approach

38
Q

How do you recognize the missed approach point on the LNAV/VNAV approach?

A) at the RW30 waypoint
B) At the Decision Altitude (DA) for the LPV portion of this approach
C) arrival to the LNAV/VNAV Decision Altitude (DA)

A

C) arrival to the LNAV/VNAV Decision Altitude (DA)

39
Q

Which what point is the pilot authorized to descend below 5200 feet when cleared to the SUXYO waypoint from the West?

A)24 NM from SUXYO
B) 24 N from AJCIZ
C) 30 NM from SUXYO

A

A)24 NM from SUXYO

40
Q

What waypoint are designated as fly-over waypoints?

A) missed approach and the FAF’s
B) FAF and AGGAN
C) missed approach and AGHAN

A

C) missed approach and AGHAN

41
Q

How can a pilot determine if a Global Positioning System (GOS) installed in an aircraft is approved for IFR entourage and IFR approaches?

A) aircraft owner’s handbook
B) flight manual supplement
C) GPS operator’s manual

A

B) flight manual supplement

42
Q

When flying a GPS approach procedure, what effect will overriding an automatically selected sensitivity have?

A) no effect
B) initiate a descent to MDA
C) cancel the approach mode annunciation

A

C) cancel the approach mode annunciation

43
Q

What is true regarding the use of airborne weather-avoidance radar for the recognition of certain weather conditions?

A) the avoidance of hail is assured when flying between and just clear of the most intense echos
B) the clear area between intense echoes indicates that visual sighting of storms can be maintained when flying between the echoes
C) The radarscope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions

A

C) The radarscope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions

44
Q

What is indicated by the term ‘embedded thunderstorms’?

A) severe thunderstorms are embedded within a squall line
B) thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air mass
C) thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen

A

C) thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen

45
Q

Maximum down drafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as

A) 7,000 feet per minute
B) 6,000 feet per minute
C) 8,000 feet per minute

A

B) 6,000 feet per minute

46
Q

In which meteorological environment is aircraft structural icing most likely to have the highest rate of accumulation

A) freezing rain
B) high humidity and freezing temperatures
C) cumulonimbus clouds

A

A) freezing rain

47
Q

Fair weather cumulus clouds often indicate

A) smooth flying conditions
B) turbulence at and below the cloud level
C) poor visibility

A

B) turbulence at and below the cloud level

48
Q

An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a micro jet, may expect a total shear across the micro jet of

A) 40 knots
B) 80 knots
C) 90 knots

A

C) 90 knots

49
Q

Which clouds have the greatest turbulence

A) cumulonimbus
B) altocumulus castellanus
C) towering cumulus

A

A) cumulonimbus

50
Q

In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?

A) an air mass moving inland from the coast in winter
B) a light breeze blowing colder air out to sea
C) warm, moist air settling over a warmer surface under no wind conditions

A

A) an air mass moving inland from the coast in winter

51
Q

Hazardous wind shear is commonly encountered near the ground

A) during periods when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots and near mountain valley
B) during periods when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots
C) during periods of strong temperature inversion and near thunderstorms

A

C) during periods of strong temperature inversion and near thunderstorms

52
Q

What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?

A) direct headwind
B) light quartering tailwind
C) direct tailwind

A

B) light quartering tailwind

53
Q

When are severe weather watch bulletins (WW) issued

A) unscheduled and issued as required
B) every 12 hours
C) every 24 hours

A

A) unscheduled and issued as required

54
Q

WND’ in the categorical outlook in the Aviation Area Forecast means that the wind during that period is forecast to be

A) sustained surface wind speed of 6 knots or greater
B) sustained surface wind speed of 15 knots or greats
C) sustained surface wind speed of 20 knots or greats

A

C) sustained surface wind speed of 20 knots or greats

55
Q

The U.S Low Level Significant Weather Surfaced Prog Chart At 00z indicated that northwestern Colorado and eastern Utah can expect

A) moderate or greater turbulence above FL 240
B) no turbulence is indicated
C) moderate or greater turbulence from the surface to FL 240

A

C) moderate or greater turbulence from the surface to FL 240

56
Q

Using the DAY 2 CONVECTIVE OUTLOOK, what type of thunderstorms, if any, may be encountered on a flight from Montana to central California

A) General
B) moderate risk area, surrounded by a slight area, of possible severe turbulence
C) none

A

A) General

57
Q

What is the height of the tropopause over Kentucky

A) FL390
B) FL300 sloping to FL 400 fest MSL
C) FL340

A

C) FL340

58
Q

The chart symbols shown in the Gulf of Mexico at 12Z and extending into AL, GA, SC, and northern FL indicate a

A) tornado originating in the Gulf of Mexico
B) hurricane
C) tropical storm

A

C) tropical storm

59
Q

A prognostic Chart depicts the conditions

A) existing at the surface during the past 6 hours
B) which presently excuse from the 1,000 millibar through the 700 millibar level
C) forecast to exist at a specific time in the future

A

C) forecast to exist at a specific time in the future

60
Q

A planned low altitude flight for northern Florida to southern a Florida at 00Z is likely to encounter

A) intermittent rain or rain showers, moderator turbulence, and freezing temperature above 8,000 feet
B) showery precipitation, thunderstorms/rain showers covering half or more of the area
C) showery precipitation covering less than half the area, no turbulence below 18,990 feet, and freezing temperatures above 12,000 feet

A

B) showery precipitation, thunderstorms/rain showers covering half or more of the area

61
Q

What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow E?

A) frequent embedded thunderstorms, less than 1/8 coverage, and tips at FL370
B) occasional cumulonimbus, 1/8 to 4/8 coverage, based below 24,000 feet MSL, and tops at 40,000 feet MSL
C) frequent lightning in thunderstorms at FL370

A

B) occasional cumulonimbus, 1/8 to 4/8 coverage, based below 24,000 feet MSL, and tops at 40,000 feet MSL

62
Q

The area indicated by arrow H indicates

A) moderate turbulence at and below 34,000 feet
B) light turbulence below 34,000 feet
C) isolated embedded cumulonimbus clouds with bases below FL180 and Rios At FL340

A

A) moderate turbulence at and below 34,000 feet

63
Q

During a “no-gyro” approach and prior to being handed off to the final approach controller, the pilot should make all turns

A) standard rate unless otherwise advised
B) any rate not exceeding a 30 bank
C) one-half standard rate unless otherwise advised

A

A) standard rate unless otherwise advised

64
Q

After being handed off to the final approach controller during a “no-gyro” surveillance or precision approach, the pilot should make all turns

A) one-half standard rate
B) based upon the ground speed of the aircraft
C) standard rate

A

A) one-half standard rate

65
Q

Which information, in addition to headings, does the radar controller provide without request during an ASD approach?

A) when reaching the MDA
B) the recommended altitude for each mile from the run way
C) When ton commence descent to MDA, the aircraft position each mile on final from the runway, and arrival at the MAP

A

C) When ton commence descent to MDA, the aircraft position each mile on final from the runway, and arrival at the MAP

66
Q

What options are available concerning the teardrop course reversal for LOC RWY 35 approach to Duncan/Halliburton Field?

A) a normal procedure turn may be made if the 10 DME limit is not exceeded
B) the point wheee turn is begun and the type and rate of turn are optional
C) if a course reversal is required, only the teardrop can be executed

A

C) if a course reversal is required, only the teardrop can be executed

67
Q

Which of the following conditions is required before “timed approaches from a holding fix@ may be conducted?

A) If more than one missed approach procedure is available, only one may require a course reversal
B) If more than one missed approach procedure is available, none may be require a course reversal
C) direct communication between the pilot and the tower must be established prior to beginning the approach

A

B) If more than one missed approach procedure is available, none may be require a course reversal

68
Q

When the approach procedure involved a procedure turn, the maximum speed should not be greater than

A) 180 knots IAS
B) 250 knots IAS
C) 200 knots IAS

A

C) 200 knots IAS

69
Q

If only one missed approach procedure is available, which of the following conditions is required when conducting “timed approaches from a holding fix”?

A) The reporter ceiling and visibility minimums must be equal or greater than the highest prescribed circling minimums for the IAP
B) The reporter ceiling and visibility minimums must be equal or greater than the highest prescribed straight in MDA for the IAP
C) the pilot must contact the airport control tower prior to departing the holding fix inbound

A

A) The reporter ceiling and visibility minimums must be equal or greater than the highest prescribed circling minimums for the IAP

70
Q

If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by ATC

A) begin a climbing turn immediately and follow missed approach procedures
B) proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver
C) maintain altitude and continue past MAP for 1 minute or 1 mile whichever occurs first

A

B) proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver

71
Q

If clearing for a straight-in LOC approach from over OALDY, it means the flight should

A) begin final approach without making a procedure turn
B) comply with straight-in landing minimums
C) land straight in on runway 21

A

A) begin final approach without making a procedure turn

72
Q

When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?

A) at the localizer MDA minimum and when the runway is in sight
B) as soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight
C) at the published minimum altitude for a circling approach

A

B) as soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight

73
Q

While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until.

A) teaching the FAF
B) established on a segment of a published route or IAP
C) advised to begin descent

A

B) established on a segment of a published route or IAP

C) advised to b

74
Q

A pilot is making an ILS approach and is past the OM to a runway which has a VASI. What action is appropriate if an electronic glide slope malfunction and the pilot has the VASI in sight?

A) the pilot should inform ATC of the malfunction and then descend immediately to the localizer DH and make a localizer approach
B) the pilot must request an LOC approach, and may descend below the VASI at the pilot’s discretion
C) the pilot may continue the approach and use the VASI glide slope in place of electronic glide slope

A

C) the pilot may continue the approach and use the VASI glide slope in place of electronic glide slope

75
Q

If, during a VFR practice instrument approach, Radar Approach Control assigns an Altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds what action should be taken?

A) enter clouds, since ATC authorization for practice approaches is considered an IFR clearance
B) abandon the approach
C) avoid the clouds and inform ATC that altitude/heading will not permit VFR

A

C) avoid the clouds and inform ATC that altitude/heading will not permit VFR

76
Q

Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn the holding maneuver must be executed within

A) The 1-minute time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view
B) a radius of 5 miles from the holding fix
C) 10 knots of the specified holding speed

A

A) The 1-minute time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view

77
Q

When making a “timed approach from a holding fix at the outer marker, the pilot should adjust the

A) holding pattern to leave the final approach fix inbound at the assigned time
B) holding pattern to start the procedure turn at the assigned time
C) airspeed at the final approach fix in order to arrive at the missed approach point at the assigned time

A

A) holding pattern to leave the final approach fix inbound at the assigned time

Instrument Ground (2 decks)

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