Instrument

Question 1

Your aircraft had the static pressure system and altimeter tested and inspected on January 5th, of this year, and was found to comply with FAA standards. These systems must be reinspected and approved for use in controlled airspace under IFR by:

A) January 31st, 2 years hence
B) January 5th, next year.
C) January 5th, years hence

Answer 1

A) January 31st, 2 years hence.

Question 2

If a half standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn clockwise from a heading of 090 degrees to a heading of 180 degrees.

A) 1 minute 30 seconds
B) 1 minute
C) 30 seconds

Answer 2

B) 1 minute

Question 3

Which procedure is recommended if a pilot should unintentionally penetrate embedded thunderstorm activity?

A) Set power for recommended turbulence penetration airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight attitude

B) Reverse aircraft heading or proceed toward and area of know VFR conditions.

C Reduce airspeed to maneuvering speed and maintain a constant altitude

Answer 3

A) Set power for recommended turbulence penetration airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight attitude

Question 4

If severe turbulence is encountered during your IFR flight, the airplane should be slowed to the design maneuvering speed because the

A) Amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing will be decreased.
B) Airplane will stall at a lower angle of attack, given an increased margin of safety
C) Maneuverability of the airplane will be increased

Answer 4

A) Amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing will be decreased.

Question 5

On what headings will the magnetic compass read most accurately during a level 360 degree turn, with a bank of approximately 15 degrees?

A) 180 Degrees and 0 degrees
B) 135 degrees through 225 degrees
C) 90 degrees and 270 degrees

Answer 5

C) 90 Degrees and 270 degrees

Question 6

What indication should a pilot observe if an airspeed indicator ram air input and drain hole are blocked?

A) The airspeed indicator will react as an altimeter
B) The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude.
C) No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents

Answer 6

A) The airspeed indicator will react as an altimeter

Question 7

What does the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator directly display?

A) Rate of roll and rate of turn
B) Angle of bank and rate of turn
C) Angle of bank

Answer 7

A) Rate of roll and rate of turn

Question 8

Which instrument indicates the quality of turn?

A) Attitude indicator
B) Heading indicator or magnetic compass
C) Ball of the turn coordinator

Answer 8

C) Ball of the turn coordinator

Question 9

What is the relationship between the centrifugal force and the horizontal lift component in a coordinated turn?

A) Centrifugal force exceeds horizontal lift.
B) Horizontal lift and centrifugal force are equal
C) Horizontal lift exceeds centrifugal force

Answer 9

B) Horizontal lift and centrifugal

Question 10

The lighter workloads associated with glass (digital) flight instrumentation

A) Are instrumental in decreasing flightcrew fatigue
B) May lead to complacency by the flightcrew
C)Have proven to increase safety in operations

Answer 10

B) May lead to complacency by the flightcrew

Question 11

If a half standard-rare turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 135 degrees?

A) 1 minute
B) 1 minute 20 seconds
C) 1 minute 30 seconds

Answer 11

C) 1 minute 30 seconds

Question 12

When airspeed is increased in a turn, what must be done to maintain a constant altitude?

A) Decreased the angle of bank
B) Increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the angle of attack
C) Decrease the angle of attack

Answer 12

B) Increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the angle of attack

Question 13

Where should the bearing pointer be located relative to the wingtip reference to maintain the 16 DME range in a right-hand arc with a right crosswind component?

Answer 13

Ahead of the right wingtip reference for VOR-2

Question 14

(Refer to figure 47.) When en route on V448 from YKM VORTAC to BTG VORTAC, what minimum navigation equipment is required to indenting ANFOO intersection?

A) Two VOR receiver
B) One VOR receiver
C) One VOR receiver and DME

Answer 14

B) One VOR receiver

Question 15

(Refer to figure 55.) As a guide in making range corrections, how many degrees of relative bearing change should be used for each one half mile deviation from the desired arc?

A) 2 degrees to 3 degrees
B) 5 degree maximum
C) 10 degrees to 20 degrees

Answer 15

C) 10 degrees to 20 degrees

Question 16

(Refer to figure 30) To which maximum service volume distance from he OED VORTAX should you expect to received adequate signal coverage for navigation at a flight planned altitude of 8,000?

A) 100 NM
B) 40 NM
C) 80 NM

Answer 16

B) 40 NM

Question 17

Which is the maximum tolerance for the VOR indication when the CDI is centered and the aircraft is directly over the airborne checkpoint?

A) Plus or minus 4 degree of the designed radial
B) Plus 6 degrees or minus 4 degrees of the designated radial
C) Plus or minus 6 degrees of the designed radial

Answer 17

C) Plus or minus 6 degrees of the designed radia

Question 18

Determine the approximate time and distance to a station if a 5 degree wingtip bearing change occurs in 1.5 minutes with a true airspeed of 95 knots

A) 18 minutes and 28.5 NM
B) 16 minutes and 14.3 NM
C) 18 Minutes and 33.0 NM

Answer 18

A) 18 minutes and 28.5 NM

Question 19

(Refer to figure 82.) which is an acceptable range of accuracy when performing on operational check of dual VOR’s using one system against the other?

A) 2.
B) 4.
C) 1.

Answer 19

B) 4.

Question 20

During IFR operation using an approved GBS system for navigation

A) The aircraft must have an approved and operational alternate navigation system appropriate for the route
B) Active monitoring of an alternate navigation system is always required
C) No other navigation system is required

Answer 20

A) The aircraft must have an approved and operational alternate navigation system appropriate for the route

Question 21

Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between Ground and distance to the VORTAC and displayed distance?

A) Low altitudes far from the VORTAC
B) High altitudes far from the VORTAC
C) High altitudes close to the VORTAC

Answer 21

C) High altitudes close to the VORTAC

Question 22

(Refer to figure 105.) If the magnetic heading shown for aircraft 5 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the aircraft is on the 210 degree magnetic bearing TO the station?

A) 4
B) 2
C) 3

Answer 22

A) 4

Question 23

What limitation is imposed on a newly certified commercial airplane pilot if that person does not hold an instrument pilot rating?

A) The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-counter flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited.
B) The carrying of passengers or property for hire on cross-country flights at night is limited to a radius of 50 NM
C) The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-country flight is limited to 50 NM for night flights, but not limited for day flights.

Answer 23

A) The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-counter flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited.

Question 24

What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?

A) The final approach fix on the expected instrument approach
B) The initial approach fix on the expected instrument approach
C) The point of first intended landing

Answer 24

C) The point of first intended landing

Question 25

Do regulations permit you to act as pilot in command of an airplane in IMC if you hold a Private Pilot Certificate with ASSL, Rotorcraft category, with helicopter class Rating and instrument helicopter Rating?

A) Yes, if you comply with the recent IFR experience requirements for helicopter
B) No, you must hold either an unrestricted Airline Transport Pilot-Airplane Certificate or an airplane instrument rating.
C) No, however, you may do so if you hold an Airline Transport Pilot-Airplane Certificate, limit to VFR

Answer 25

B) No, you must hold either an unrestricted Airline Transport Pilot-Airplane Certificate or an airplane instrument rating.

Question 26

What portion of dual instruction time may a certificates instrument flight instructor log as instrument flight time?

A) All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor in actual instrument weather conditions
B) All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor, regardless of weather conditions
C) Only the time during which the instructor flies the aircraft by reference to instruments

Answer 26

A) All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor in actual instrument weather conditions

Question 27

The pilot in command of a civil aircraft must have an instrument rating only when operating

A) under IFR in positive control airspace
B) In weather conditions less than the minimum prescribed for VFR flight.
C) Under IFR, in weather conditions less the minimum for VFR flight or in class A airspace.

Answer 27

C) Under IFR, in weather conditions less the minimum for VFR flight or in class A airspace.

Question 28

Your aircraft had the static pressure system and altimeter tested and inspected on January 5, of this year, and was found to comply with the FAA standards. These systems must be reinspected and approved for use in controlled airspace under IFR by

A) January 5, 2 years hence
B) January 31st, 2 years hence
C) January 31st, next year

Answer 28

B) January 31st, 2 years hence

Question 29

Which checks and inspections of flight instruments or instrument system must be accomplished before an aircraft can be flown under IFR?

A) VOR within 30 day, altimeter systems within 24 calendars months, and transponder within 24 calendar months.
B) ETL rest within 30 days, altimeter systems within 12 calendar months, and transponder within 24 calendar months
C) BOR within 24 calendar months, transponder within 24 calendar months, and altimeter system within 12 calendar months.

Answer 29

A) VOR within 30 day, altimeter systems within 24 calendars months, and transponder within 24 calendar months.

Question 30

When using VOT to make a VOR receicer check, the CDI should be centered and the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the

A) 360 radial
B) 090 radial
C) 180 radial

Answer 30

A) 360 radial

Question 31

Under what conditions must the pilot in command of a civil aircraft at least an instrument rating?

A) When operating in class E airspace
B) For a flight in VFR conditions while on an IFR flight plan.
C) For any flight above an altitude of 1,200 feet AGL, when the visibility is less than 3 miles

Answer 31

B) For a flight in VFR conditions while on an IFR flight plan.

Question 32

In which publication can the VOD received ground checkpoint(s) for a particular airport be found?

A) En route low altitude chart
B) Airport/Facility Directory
C) Airman’s Information Manual

Answer 32

B) Airport/Facility Directory

Question 33

What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two way communication radio communications failure?

A) Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEA’s along the clearance route.
B) Fly direct to an area that has been forecast to have VFR conditions, fly at an altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacles along the route
C) Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA

Answer 33

C) Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA

Question 34

Which rules apply to the pilot in command when operating on a VFR on Top clearance?

A) VFR and IFR
B) VFR only
C) VFR when ‘in the clear’ and IFR when ‘in the clouds.’

Answer 34

A) VFR and IFR

Question 35

(Refer to figure 81.) When checking a dual VOR system by use of VOT, which illustration indicated the VOR’s are satisfactory?

A) 4
B) 2
C) 1

Answer 35

C) 1

Question 36

When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?

A) Standard alternate minimums (600-2 or 800 2).
B) The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected.
C) The IFR alternate minimums listed for that airport

Answer 36

B) The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected.

Question 37

MOAs are established to

A) Prohibit all civil aircraft because of hazardous or secret activities
B) Restrict civil aircraft during periods oh high density training activities
C) Separate certain military activity from IFR traffic

Answer 37

C) Separate certain military activity from IFR traffic

Question 38

When are you required to establish communications with the towers, (class D airspace) if you cancel your IFR flight plan 10 miles from the destination?

A) Immediately after canceling the flight plan
B) Before entering Class D airspace
C) When advised by ARTCC

Answer 38

B) Before entering Class D airspace

Question 39

In addition to a VOR receiver and two-way communication capability, which additional equipment is required for IFR operation in Class B airspace?

A) Standby communications receiver, DME, and coded transponder
B) DME and an operable coded transponder having Mode C capability
C) An operable coded transponder having Mode C capability

Answer 39

C) An operable coded transponder having Mode C capability

Question 40

(Refer to figure 93.) What is the floor of Class E airspace when designed in conjunction with an airway?

A) 1,200 feet AGL
B) 1,500 feet AGL
C) 700 feet AGL

Answer 40

A) 1,200 feet AGL

Question 41

The pilot in command of a civil aircraft must have an instrument rating only when operating?

A) Under IFR, in weather conditions less than the minimum for VFR flight or in class A airspace
B) in weather conditions less than the minimum prescribed for VFR flight
C) Under IFR in positive control airspace

Answer 41

A) Under IFR, in weather conditions less than the minimum for VFR flight or in class A airspace

Question 42

Where is DME required under IFR?

A) In positive control airspace
B) At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required
C) Above 18,000 feet MSL

Answer 42

B) At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required

Question 43

(Refer to figure 94.) What sign is designated by illustration 7!

A) Mandatory instruction sign
B) Location sign
C) Direction sign

Answer 43

A) Mandatory instruction sign

Question 44

(Refer to figure 93.) What altitude is the upper limit for Class A airspace?

A) 60,000 feet MSL
B) 14,500 feet MAL
C) 18,000 feet MSL

Answer 44

A) 60,000 feet MSL

Question 45

(Refer to figure 93.) What is generally the maximum altitude for Class B airspace?

A) 4,000 feet MSL
B) 14,500 feet MSL
C) 10,000 feet MSL

Answer 45

C) 10,000 feet MSL

Question 46

(Refer to figure 93.) What is the floor of Class A airspace?

A) 18,000 feet MSL
B) 10,000 feet MSL
C) 14,500 feet MSL

Answer 46

A) 18,000 feet MSL

Question 47

In which airspace is VFR on Too operation prohibited?

A) Class E airspace
B) Class B airspace
C) Class A airspace

Answer 47

C) Class A airspace

Question 48

What is the procedure when the DME malfunctions at or above 24,000 feet MSL?

A) Continue to your destination in VFR conditions and report the malfunction
B) Notify ATC immediately and request an altitude below 24,000 feet
C) After immediately notifying ATC, you continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made

Answer 48

C) After immediately notifying ATC, you continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made

Question 49

(Refer to figure 93.) Whaf is generally the maximum altitude for Class B airspace?

A) 10,000 feet MSL
B) 4,000 feet MSL
C) 14,500 feet MSL

Answer 49

10,000 feet MSL

Question 50

When are you required to have an instrument rating for flight in VMC?

A) Flight through an MOA
B) Flight into class A airspace
C) Flight into a ADIZ

Answer 50

B) Flight into class A airspace

Question 51

In the 48 contiguous states, excluding the airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL, and operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all controlled airspace at and above

A) 10,000 feet MSL
B) 12,500 feet MSL
C) Flight Level (FL) 180.

Answer 51

A) 10,000 feet MSL

Question 52

(Refer to figure 93.) What is the maximum altitude that Class G airspace will exist (does not include airspace less than 1,500 feet AGL.)

A) 18,000 feet MSL
B) 14,500 feet MSL
C) 14,000 feet MSL

Answer 52

B) 14,5000 feet MSL

Question 53

When is an IFR flight plan required?

A) In all Class E airspace when conditions are below VFR, in a Class A airspace, and in defense zone airspace.
B) When less than VFR conditions exist in either Class E or Class G airspace and in Class A airspace.
C) In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace.

Answer 53

C) In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace.

Question 54

(Refer to figure 92.) What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL under special VFR during daylight hours in area 5?

A) 1 mile; (I) clear of clouds; (J) clear of clouds; (L) clear of clouds.
B) 3 miles; (I) Clear of clouds; (J) clear of clouds; (L) 500 feet
C) 1 mile; (I) 2,000 feet; (J) 2,000 feet; (L) 500 feet.

Answer 54

A) 1 mile; (I) clear of clouds; (J) clear of clouds; (L) clear of clouds.

Question 55

What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?

A) Two-way communications
B) Transponder and DME
C) Two-way communication and Mode C transponder

Answer 55

C) Two-way communication and Mode C transponder

Question 56

(Refer to figure 93) Which altitude is the normal upper limit for Class D airspace?

A) 2,500 feet AGL
B) 4,000 feet AGL
C) 1,000 feet AGL

Answer 56

A) 2,500 feet AGL

Question 57

Class G airspace is that airspace where

A) The minimum visibility for VFR flight is 3 miles
B) ATC controls only IFR flights
C) ATC does not control air traffic

Answer 57

C) ATC does not control air traffic

Question 58

(Refer to figure 93.) What are the normal literal limits for Class D airspace?

A) 8 NM
B) 5 NM
C) 4 NM

Answer 58

C) 4 NM

Question 59

If the aircraft’s transponder fails during flight within Class B airspace

A) The pilot should immediately request clearance to depart the Class B airspace
B) ATC may authorize deviation from the transponder requirement to allow aircraft to continue to the airport of ultimate destination
C) Aircraft must immediately descent below 1,200 feet AGL and proceed to destination

Answer 59

B) ATC may authorize deviation from the transponder requirement to allow aircraft to continue to the airport of ultimate destination

Question 60

When on the proper glide path of a 2 bar VASI, the pilot will see the near bar as

A) white and the far bar as red
B) White and the far bar as white
C) Red and the far bar as white

Answer 60

A) white and the far bar as red

Question 61

What service is provided by departure control to an IFR flight when operating within the outer area of Class C airspace

A) Desperation from all aircraft
B) Position and altitude of all traffic within 2 miles of the IFR pilot’s line of flight and altitude
C) Separation from all IFR aircraft and participating VFR aircraft

Answer 61

C) Separation from all IFR aircraft and participating VFR aircraft

Question 62

Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2 bar VASI?

A) If on the glidepath, the near bars will appear red, and the far bars will appear white.
B) If on the glidepath, both near bards and far bars will appear white.
C) If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the dad bars will change from red to white

Answer 62

C) If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the dad bars will change from red to white

Question 63

(Refer to figure 77.) At which point does the basic instrument departure procedure terminate?

A) Over the BOZEMAN VOR
B) When Helena Departure Control establishes radar contact
C) At STAKK intersection

Answer 63

C) At STAKK intersection

Question 64

A particular instrument departure procedure requires a minimum climb rate of 210 feet per NM to 8,000 feet. If you climb with a ground speed of 140 knots, what is the rate of climb required in feet per minute?

A) 450
B) 210
C) 490

Answer 64

C) 490

Question 65

Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are ok the airway and to ‘RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.’ This phrase means that

A) Radar services are terminated and you will be responsible for position reports
B) You are assume responsibility for your own navigation
C) You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.

Answer 65

B) You are assume responsibility for your own navigation

Question 66

What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?

A) Instrument takeoffs and not authorized
B) Takeoff minimums are not standards and/or departure procedures are published
C) Takeoff minimums are 1 mile aircraft having two engines or less and 1/2 mile for those with more than two engines.

Answer 66

B) Takeoff minimums are not standards and/or departure procedures are published

Question 67

(Refer to figure 85.) What procedure should be followed if communication are lost before reaching 9,000 feet?

A) At 9,000 turn left direct to FMG VORTAC, then via assigned route if at proper altitude; if not, climb in holding pattern until reaching the proper altitude
B) Continue bling to WAGGE INR, turn left direct to FMG VORTAC, then if at or above MCA, proceed on assigned route; if not, continue climb in holding pattern until at proper altitude
C) Continue climb on LOC course to cross WAGGE INT at or above 9,000, turn left direct to FMG VORTAC to cross at 10,000 or above, and continue on assigned course.

Answer 67

B) Continue bling to WAGGE INR, turn left direct to FMG VORTAC, then if at or above MCA, proceed on assigned route; if not, continue climb in holding pattern until at proper altitude

Question 68

Which procedure applies to instrument departure procedures?

A) Instrument departure clearance will not be issued unless requested by the pilot
B) The pilot in command must accept an instrument departure procedure when issued by ATC
C) If an instrument departure procedure is accepted, the pilot must possess at least textual or graphic description

Answer 68

C) If an instrument departure procedure is accepted, the pilot must possess at least textual or graphic description

Question 69

(Refer to figure 77.) Which en route low altitude navigation chart would cover the proposed routine at the BOZEMAN VORTAC?

A) L 9.
B) L 2.
C) L 7.

Answer 69

A) L 9

Question 70

What is meant when departure control instructs you to ‘resume own navigation’ after you have been vectored into a Victor airway?

A) Radar service is terminated
B) You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment
C) You are still in radar contact, but must make position report

Answer 70

B) You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment

Question 71

What does the ATC term ‘radar contact’ signify?

A) You aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility
B) You will be given traffic advisories until advised the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost
C) You aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight following will be provided until radar identification is terminated

Answer 71

C) You aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight following will be provided until radar identification is terminated

Question 72

(Refer to figure 85.) What route should you take if cleared from the Washoe Two Departure and your assigned route is V6?

A) Climb on LOC south course to cross WAGGE at 9,000, turn left and fly first to FMG VORTAC and cross at or above 10,000, and proceed on FMG R 241
B) Climb on the LOC south course to WAGGE where you will be vectored to V6
C) Climb on the LOC south course to WAGGE, turn left and fly direct to FMG VORTAC. If at 10,000 then left and proceed on FMG R 241; if not at 10,000 enter depicted holding pattern as climb to 10,000 before proceeding on FMF R 241

Answer 72

B) Climb on the LOC south course to WAGGE where you will be vectored to V6

Question 73

(Refer to figure 211.) At which minimum altitude should you cross the STAKK intersection?

A) This cake is not apparent on the chart
B) 10,700’ is the minimum altitude after passing STAKK but it is not required for crossing
C) The information area on the right of STAKK shows 10,200 with an underline, indicating the minimum crossing altitude is 10,200’ . Also indicated in route description

Answer 73

C) The information area on the right of STAKK shows 10,200 with an underline, indicating the minimum crossing altitude is 10,200’ . Also indicated in route description

Question 74

What does the Runway Visual Range (RVR) value, depicted on certain straight in IAP Charts, represent?

A) The slant range distance the pilot can see down the runway while crossing the threshold on glide slope
B) The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft.
C) The slant visual range a pilot should see down the final approach and during landing.

Answer 74

B) The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft.

Question 75

(Refer to figure 85) What is the minimum rate climb per NM to 9,000 feet required for the WASH2 WAGGE Departure?

A) 750 feet
B) 400 feet
C) 875 feet

Answer 75

B) 400 feet

Question 76

What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure?

A) enter “NO DP” or “NO SID” in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan
B) Advise clearance delivery or ground control before departure
C) Advise departure control upon initial contact

Answer 76

A) enter “NO DP” or “NO SID” in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan

Question 77

Unless otherwise stated, instrument procedures use the standard IFR climb gradient of

A) 400 feet per nautical mile
B) 200 feet per nautical mile
C) 500 feet per minute

Answer 77

B) 200 feet per nautical mile

Question 78

For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points where using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?

A) Fixed selected to define the route
B) There are no compulsory reporting points unless advised by ATC
C) At the changeover points

Answer 78

A) Fixed selected to define the route

Question 79

(Refer to figure 53.) What service is indicated by the inverse ‘H’ symbol in the radio surfs to navigation box for PRB VORTAC?

A) En route Flight Advisory Service Available
B) VOR and TACAN compatible DME
C) Availability of HIWAS

Answer 79

C) Availability of HIWAS

Question 80

(Refer to figure 24.) At which point should a VOR changeover be made from JNC VOR to MANCA intersection southbound on V187

A) 52 NM south of JNC
B) 36 NM south of JNC
C) 74 NM south of JNC

Answer 80

A) 52 NM south of JNC

Question 81

Acceptable navigation signal coverage at the MOCA is assured for a distance from the VOR if only

A) 12 NM
B) 22 NM
C) 25 NM

Answer 81

B) 22 NM

Question 82

When a VFR on Top clearance, the cruising altitude is based on

A) Magnetic course
B) True course
C) Magnetic Headinf

Answer 82

A) Magnetic course

Question 83

When must a pilot fly at a cardinal altitude plus 500 feet on an IFR flight plan?

A) When flying in VFR conditions above clouds
B) When assigned a VFR on Top clearance
C) When flying above 18,000 feet in VFR clearance

Answer 83

B) When assigned a VFR on Top clearance

Question 84

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is

A) 3,00 feet over designed mountainous terrain; 2,000 feet over terrain elsewhere
B) 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.
C) 3,000 feet over all terrain

Answer 84

B) 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.

Question 85

(Refer to figure 53.) Where is the VOR COO on V27 between the GVO and MQO VORTACs?

A) 20 DME from MQO VORTAC
B) 30 DME from SBA VORTAC
C) 20 DME from GVO VORTAC

Answer 85

C) 20 DME from GVO VORTAC

Question 86

The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigation signal coverage is the

A) MEA
B) MRA
C) MOCA

Answer 86

A) MEA

Question 87

(Refer to figure 24.) What is the MOCA between JNC and MANCA intersection on V18?

A) 13,700 feet MSL
B) 10,900 feet MSL
C) 12,000 feet MSL

Answer 87

A) 13,700 feet MSL

Question 88

(Refer to figured 78, 79.) What is your position relative to the VOR COP southeast bound on V86 between the BOZEMAN and LIVINGSTON VORTAC? The No. 1 VOR is tuned to 116.1 and the No. 2 VOR is tuned to 112.2

A) Past the LVM R-246 and west of the BZN R-110
B) Approaching the LVM R-246 and west of the BZN R-110
C) Past the LVM R-246 and east of the BZM R-110

Answer 88

C) Past the LVM R-246 and east of the BZM R-110

Question 89

Hand-held GPS systems, and GPS systems certified for VFR operation, may be used during IFR operations as

A) The principal reference to determine earlier waypoints
B) An aid situational awareness
C) The primary source of navigation

Answer 89

B) An aid situational awareness

Question 90

For which speed variation should you notify ATC?

A) When the ground speed changes more than 5 knots
B) When the average true airspeed changes 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater
C) Any time the ground speed changes 10 MPH

Answer 90

B) When the average true airspeed changes 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater

Question 91

(Refer to 70, 71) Which VORTAC along the proposed route of flight could provide HIWAS information?

A) KINGSTON VORTAC
B) SPARTA VORTAC
C) HUGUENOT VORTAC

Answer 91

A) KINGSTON VORTAC

Question 92

During the en route phase of an IFR flightC the pilot is advised ‘Radar service terminated.’ What action is appropriate?

A) Resume normal position reporting.
B) Set transponder to Code 1200
C) Activate the IDENT feature of the transponder to reestablish radar contact

Answer 92

A) Resume normal position reporting.

Question 93

Which report should be made to ATF without a specific request when not in radar contact?

A) Entering instrument meteorological conditions
B) Correcting an E.T.A any time a previous E.T.A is in error in excess of 2 months
C) When leaving final approach fix in bound on final approach

Answer 93

C) When leaving final approach fix in bound on final approach