Instrument 2 Flashcards

0
Q

VOR equipment checks for IFR flight

91.171

A
  • VOT: +/- 4 degrees
  • ground checkpoint: +/- 4 degrees
  • airborne checkpoint: +/- 6 degrees
  • VOR: +/- 4 degrees
  • VOR radial on airway centerline over identifiable ground point: +/- 6 degrees
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What reports must always be made to ATC?

A

M-missed approach
A-altitude changes VFR on top
T-true airspeed change +/- 10 KTS or 5%
H-holding: time/altitude when entering or leaving holding fix
C-cannot maintain a 500fpm climb/ descent
A-altitude and time when at holding fix or clearance
L-leaving an assigned altitude
L-lost comm. NAV. Equipment
S-safety mod flight, including in-forecasted weather

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Decide model

A
D- detect
E-estimate
C-choose
I-identify
D-do
E-evaluate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Non precision approach

Localizer approach

A
  • provides course guidance, audibly identified by a 3 letter designator
  • localizer course width normally 5, 2.5 degrees each side of centerline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Non precision approach

Localizer back course

A
  • no glide slope for back course
  • when flying with an HSI, there is no different in his set up our instrument and fly the approach. If flying with a VOR we can receive reverse sensing. To counter this, set your needle to the inbound course of the localizer front course, and fly the tail of the needed. This will b normal sensing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Non precision approach

Localizer type directional AID (LDA)

A
  • comparable utility and accuracy of a localizer, but not part of an ILS
  • course width is between 3-6 degrees
  • not aligned with the RWY, but straight in minimums may be published where the angle between the RWY centerline and LDA course does not exceed 30 degrees identifier is 3 letters preceded by an “I”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Non precision approach

VOR approach

A
  • full scale deflection = 10 degrees each side of centerline, 20 degrees total
  • step down fixes defined using DME or radials
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Non precision approach

Simplified directional facility (SDF)

A
  • provides course guidance similar to an ILS, however is less precise and may not be aligned with the RWY
  • course width is fixed at either 6 or 12 degrees
  • identified by 3 letters w/o an “I” presiding it
  • usable off course indications limited to 35 degrees either side of course centerline. If you are more than 35 degrees from course centerline, disregard any instrument indications until within limitation of 35 degrees
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

RVR

A
  • RWY visual range

- RVR is an instrumentally derived value that represents the horizontal distance a pilot may use seeing down the RWY.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the 3-1 rule and how is it calculated?

Planning descent

A

-calculated by multiplying how many feet you want to lose, and multiply that by 3
Example: cruise flight @ 10,000 and TPA of 1,200, need to lose 8,800feet (drop zeros)…88x3=26 miles. So, from 26 miles from your destination begins a descent at a rate that you calculate
-airspeed divided by 2=FPM
140/2=700fpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Reports made when not in radar contact

A
  • compulsory reporting points
  • inbound at final approach fix (FAF) or outer marker (OM)
  • ETA error of 3 mins or more
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Parallel ILS approaches

A

-conducted if centerline are at least 2,500’ apart, aircraft separated by 1.5 miles diagonally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Marker beacons

A

OM: dashes, blue light
MM: dots and dashes, amber light, 3,000-6,000’ from threshold
IM: dots, white light, arrival at DH on glide path, between MM and landing threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

(ILS)

Middle marker

A
  • located about 3,500’ from threshold or centerline generally where aircraft is at DH
  • ident by second 2 letters of the airport identifier approach lights
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

(ILS)

Outer marker

A
  • locate between 4-7 miles from airport
  • indicated an aircraft at approach altitude on localizer course will intercept glide path
  • identified by first 2 letters of the airport identifier
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Instrument landing system
(ILS)
Glide slope

A
  • loaded 750’-1,250’ down RWY
  • displaced 400’-600’ from centerline
  • width of signal=1.4 degrees
16
Q

PAR/ASR

A
  • Precision approach radar- controller provides Both azimuth and elevation navigational guidance
  • airport surveillance radar- provides azimuth guidance only
17
Q

RVV

A

Runway visibility value

18
Q

What is VDP, and how is it calculated.

A
  • a defined point on the final approach course of a non-precision straight in approach procedure from which normal descent from the MDA to the RWY touchdown point may be commenced, provided the RWY environment is clearly visible to the pilot
  • essentially, it is the decision making point whether we can make a normal safe approach and landing, or if the field is still not in sight, we execute a missed approach because we could not use normal maneuvers to a safe landing
  • calculation: HAT(MDA-TDZE)/ 300
19
Q

STAR

A

-standard terminal arrival route

  • simplifies clearance, provides guidance from en route to approach to destination
  • must have at least a textual or graphic depiction in order to perform
  • write”No Star” in remarks section of flight plan if you don’t want STAR
20
Q

Precision approach

A
  • includes both course guidance with a localizer, and altitude guidance with a glide slope, as well as DME
  • DH=decision height (proceed to land or go missed) this is the missed approach point in an ILS approach (AGL)
21
Q

Segments of an instrument approach

A
  • initial: aligns aircraft with approach course, begins at IAF
  • intermediate: designed primarily to position your aircraft for the final descent to the airport
  • final: navigate from this point to DH or MDA
  • missed: begins at MAP, by :DH, time, middle marker, DME, RWY (GPS)
22
Q

Non precision approach

A
  • will provide course guidance, but no glide slope or altitude guidance
  • MDA: this is the altitude which we can only descend from from requirements of 91.175 are met. This is not the missed approach point like DH is an a precision approach, but the aloft which the missed approach will be located
23
Q

Instrument landing system
(ILS)
Localizer

A
  • located opposite the approach end of the RWY
  • transmits 108.1-111.95 MHZ
  • transmits signal 18NM from antenna up to an altitude of 4,500 above antenna site
  • full scale deflection=2.5 degrees
  • width of signal=3-6 degrees
24
Q

(Contact) vs visual

A

Contact: Cannot be initiated by ATC, but can be requested by the pilot to expedite arrival instead of the published procedure if the following is met:…

- the airport has a standard of special instrument approach procedure 
- reported ground visibility is at least 1 mile 
- you can remain clear of clouds with 1 mile flight visibility
25
Q

Clearance limit

91.185c(3))

A
  • the fix point or location to which an aircraft is cleared when issued an air traffic clearance.
    • ONLY leave a clearance limit when:
      1. ) if clearance limit is a fix from which an approach begins (an IAF), commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the expect further clearance time if one has been received, or if one has not been received, as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended estimated time en route.
      2. ) if clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins, leave the clearance limit at the EFC time if one has been received, or if none has been received, upon arrival over the clearance limit, proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and comm nice descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended estimated time en route
26
Q

Non precision approach

GPS approach

A
  • put the GPS in GPS mode
  • receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) must be maintained throughout the approach in order to continue, by final approach fix the GPS must sequence into approach mode (APR)
  • sensitivity of the GPS = 5 miles en route, 1 mile terminal, and .3 miles in approach mode
  • can only file to an airport where the only approach is a GPS approach if you have filed for an alternate airport that has something other than GPS
  • WAAS enabled approach are considered precision for instrument currency and IPC, but not considered precision during real IMC conditions
    • constellation:
      • 24 satellites, min of 5 needed for RAIM
      • 4 satellites need d for 3D positioning
27
Q

Circling approach

A
  • if approach course is not aligned within 30 degrees of the RWY, only circling mins will be published will also be published on standard straight in approaches in the case that a circling approach is needed circling mins provides 300’ AGL obstacle clearance in the circling area. These are mins, so if weather allows a higher altitude to be flown that more closely approximates TPA, fly it, it will create a more realistic approach and landing
  • if you lose sight of the RWY at any time, immediately begin a climbing turn toward the airport to intercept the missed approach procedure
28
Q

Contact vs (visual)

A
  • visual: can be initiated by ATC or…
    1. ) ATC must ensure that you have the airport or the preceding aircraft in sight, once you announce aircraft in sight you are responsible for aircraft separation
    2. ) is authorized when ceiling is reported or expected to be at least 1,000’ AGL and 3 mile vis, and you remain clear of clouds at all times