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121 Prep > Instrument > Flashcards

Instrument Flashcards

1
Q

Gate hold Procedures

A

hold aircraft at gate or ground location when delays expected to exceed 15 minutes

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2
Q

EDCT

A

runway release time - expected to depart within 5 mintues of assigned time

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3
Q

Abbreviated Clearance

A 
Clearance Limit
Route
Altitude (initial altitude)
Frequency
Transponder
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4
Q

Clearance void time

A

time at which departure clearance is cancelled - must obtain new clearance if not departed by this time

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5
Q

What are the 2 types of DPs

A

ODP - Obstacle Departure Procedure
SID - Standard Instrument Departure

Both provide obstruction Clearance
DP- Graphical or Textual
SID- Graphical - provide transition to enroute structure

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6
Q

IFR Takeoff Mins

A

2 engines or less - 1 SM Vis

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7
Q

ILS Critical Hold Short Area

A

in affect with less than 800 and/or less than 2

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8
Q

Jet Routes

A

18000MSL-FL450
Depicted in Black wiht J followed by airway number
Predicated on VOR or VORTAC Facilities

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9
Q

Meaning of sideways “T” depicted at intersection

A

change in MEA, MOCA, and/or MAA

Do not appear at a navaid

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10
Q

MEA

A

Minimum Enroute Altitude

ensure nav signal & obstacle clearance

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11
Q

MOCA

A

Min Obstacle Clearance Altitude
Obstacle Clearance
Nav reception only with 22nm of VOR

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12
Q

MCA

A

Mic Crossing Altitude

lowest altitude at which intersection can be crossed when proceeding in direction of higher MEA

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13
Q

MRA

A

Min Reception Altitude

Lowest alt at which intersection can be determined

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14
Q

MAA

A

Max Authorized Altitude

max altitude at which adequate nav reception is assured

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15
Q

OROCA

A

Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude
1000 clearance non-mountainous
2000 clearance mountainous

No nav reception guarantee

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16
Q

What is the minimum altitude if no MEA or MOCA are published

A

1000 ft (2000 mountainous) above highest obstlance within 4nm of course

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17
Q

ATC Reporting (AIM 5-3-3)

A 
Missed Approach
Airspeed +/- 10/5%
Reach holding fix/clerance limit
VFR on Top
*ETA +/-2
Leaving holding fix
*Outer Marker/FAF
Unforecasted Wx
Safety of Flight
Vacating Altitude
Radio/Nav Failure
*Compulsory Reporting Point
500FPM unable to climb or descend

*not in radar contact

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18
Q

Radio Comm Failure Procedures

A

VFR - continue under vfr, land as soon as practical

IFR
Route: Assigned, Vectored, Expected, Filed
Altitude: Highest of Min IFR Altitude, Expected, Assigned

Leave clearance limit as close as possible to EFC to fly approach or to fix at which an approach begins

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19
Q

RNAV Routes

A

Depicted in Blue
Q- Routes - 18000MSL-FL450
T-Routes: 1200AGL- 17999MSL

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20
Q

Controller Pilot Data Link Communication (CPDLC)

A

supplement air/ground voice communication

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21
Q

What is a STAR

A

Standard Terminal Arrival Route

Purpose: transition from Enroute-Terminal Area
Simplify clearance delivery

Found in TPP

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22
Q

What does RNAV1 on RNAV STAR indicate?

A

procedure requires track keeping accuracy be +/-

1NM for 95% of total flight time

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23
Q

At what point can an aircraft start a descent when cleared for the approach?

A

When established on a published route or procedure

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24
Q

What is a Profile Descent?

A

Uninterrupted descent from cruise altitude to interception of glide slope or min altitude on a non-precision approach.

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25
Q

What is MVA?

A

Minimum Vectoring Altitude

lowest MSL altitude IFR aircraft can by vectored by a controller

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26
Q

Minimum Safe Altitude

A
  • depicted on approach chart
  • provide 1000ft obstacle clearance within 25nm of defined reference point
  • used for emergency
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27
Q

What procedure is used when the clearance “cleared for the visual” is issued?

A
  • Visual Approach conducted
  • must have airport or preceding aircraft in sight
  • Min wx 1000/3
  • Cloud clearances not applicable
28
Q

Contact Approach

A
  • May deviate from instrument approach and proceed visually to airport
  • Must have ATC authorization, clear of clouds, min 1 mile flight vis
  • Must be pilot requested
29
Q

When is procedure turn not required?

A 
SHARPTT
Straight In Approach
HILO
ARC
Radar Vector
No PT
Teardrop Depicted
Turn barb not present
30
Q

What information will ATC provide for a hold? (where hold is not charted)

A 
Direction of Hold
Fix
Direction of Turn
Radial/Course
Leg Length
EFC
31
Q

Max Hold Speeds

A

Up to 6000 MSL 200KTS
6001 - 14000 MSL 230KTS
>14000MSL 265KTS

32
Q

If approach holding fix in excess of hold speed - what procedure is appropriate?

A

start speed reduction within 3 minutes of reaching fix

33
Q

Standard hold procedures?

A

Right Turns

Leg Length
1 min inbound leg at or below 14000
1.5 min inbound leg above 14000

34
Q

Definition of a Precision Approach

A

glide slope is provided - ILS, PAR

35
Q

Outer, Middle, Inner Marker indications

A

Outer: Blue, Dull Tone, Slow Speed: 4-7nm Threshold
Middle - Amber, Med tone & speed: 3500ft to Thld
Inner - White, High tone & Speed: btwn Middle & Thld

36
Q

Where is localizer/transmitter antenna installation located in relation to runway?

What is the normal usable range?

A

far end of the approach runway

18NM

37
Q

Where is glideslope antenna located?

What is the normal usable range?

A

Offset from approach end of runway

10NM

38
Q

2 Methods to calculate rate of descent for 3 deg glide slope.

A

Ground speed x 5

Ground speed / 2 x 10

39
Q

Localizer & VOR sensitivity

A

LOC Full Deflection - 2.5* from centerline

VOR Full Deflection - 10* from centerline

40
Q

Define Decision Altitude

A

Altitude at which a pilot must initiate missed approached if runway not insight

Expressed in MSL

41
Q

91.175

A

Defines when pilot can descend below MDA/DA

  1. position for a normal descent using normal maneuvers to runway of intended landing
  2. Required flight visibility
  3. Visual Reference (1 of the following)
    Runway - Markings - Lights
    Threshold - Markings - Lights
    Touchdown zone - Markings - Lights
    REILs
    Visual glide slope indicator
    Approach Lighting System (May not descend below 100 above TDZ unless red terminating or side bars in sight)
42
Q

Lowest ILS Mins Cat I,II,III

DH/RVR

A 
Cat I : 200/2400
Cat II: 100/1200
Cat IIIa: 100/700
Cat IIIb: 50/150
Cat IIIc: No Limits
43
Q

Nonprecision Instrument Approach

A

no glide slope provided

44
Q

Define MDA

A

Minimum Descent Altitude

lowest altitude specified in Non P Instrument approach

45
Q

Define VDP

A

Visual Descent Point

point on nonprecision approach which allows for normal descent from MDA to runway

Identified in Profile View by “V”

46
Q

Formula to Calculate VDP

A

Distance

HAT/300 = Miles

47
Q

What is VDA

A

Vertical Descent Angle

found on non-p approach charts - descent angle for stabilized approach descent

Utilize VDA, Groundspeed, & Rate of CLimb/Descent table to calculate Descent Rate for stabilized appraoch

(Table in back of TPP)

48
Q

Does VDA guarantee obstacle protection below MDA?

A

No

49
Q

If no FAF published, where does final approach segment begin on Nonprecision Approach?

A

begins where procedure turn intersects final approach course inbound

50
Q

What are required conditions for “straight-in” minimums to be published?

A

Final approach segment within 30 degrees of runway alignment (15* for GPS IAPs)

51
Q

What is a stepdown fix?

A

permits additional descent on segment of a IAP

52
Q

What does a VASI System provide?

A

Visual descent guidance

obstacle clearance within 10* centerline to 4nm

53
Q

What is a sidestep approach?

A

visual maneuver which can be flown at completion of instrument approach

permits straight in landing on parallel rwy w/n 1200 ft of approach runway

54
Q 
Describe the following: 
LNAV
LNAV/VNAV
LP
LPV
A
  • LNAV - Lateral Nav - Non precision
  • LNAV/VNAV - Lateral Nav/Vertical Nav - APV Approach - requires Baro-VNAV or WAAS
  • LP - Localizer Performance - Non-P - Requires WAAS
  • LPV - Localizer performance w/ Vertical Guidance - APV approach - requires WAAS
55
Q

Explain how WAAS enhances GPS

A

GPS satellite signals monitored by ground reference stations linked to WAAS network

The WAAS network implements required corrections & transmits to WAAS receivers

56
Q

What is an APV approach?

A

Approach with Vertical Guidance

does not meet precision approach standards but provides glidepath information

57
Q

What are circle-to-land approaches?

A

Maneuver initiated by pilot to align aircraft with runway when straight-in not available or desirable

58
Q

Why do some airports only have circling minimums?

A

normal descent rate or runway alignment factor of 30* (15* for GPS) is exceeded

59
Q

Can a pilot make a straight-in landing if an approach only has circling minimums published?

A

Yes, circling mins only mean the alignment factor or normal descent rate is exceeded. Can maneuver to land any (tower approved if applicable) runway

60
Q

If cleared for a “straight-in” approach can a pilot circle to land if needed?

A

Yes
Straight-in approach is an approach where final approach is initiated without executing a procedure turn

has nothing to do with straight-in/circling mins

61
Q

What is the correct procedure if you lose visual contact with runway environment while circling to land?

A

1 - Initial climbing turn toward landing runway

2- Continue turn until established on missed approach course

62
Q

How can a pilot determine the approach category mins applicable to particular aircraft

A

1.3 x Vso @max gross landing weight =approach speed

Category
A - 90 or less
B-  91-120
C-  121-140
D- 141-165
E-  above 166
63
Q

When must a pilot execute a missed approach?

A

1) MAP or DA & 91.175 not met
2) visual lost on circle to land
3) directed by ATC
4) safe landing not possible

64
Q

How can MAP be identified on Non-Precision Approach?

A

1) timing from FAF
2) DME
3) Fix/Navaid

65
Q

During IAP, before reaching MAP or DA, you determine missed approach is necessary. What procedure is recommended

A

Fly IAP to MAP at or above MDA/DA before executing a turning maneuver

121 Prep (3 decks)

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