Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A Plastic surgery review > Inservice 2014 > Flashcards

Inservice 2014 Flashcards

1
Q

Mathes flap classification

A 
1 = single dominant pedicle
2 = dominant pedicle and minor pedicles
3 = 2 dominant pedicles
4 = segmental vascular pedicle
5= one dominant pedicle and secondary segmental pedicle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Examples of the types of flap classes

A 
1 = TFL, gastroc, vastus lateralis
2 = gracilis, hamstring (biceps femoris), soleus
3 = gluteus maximus, rectus, intercostal, pectoralis minor
4 = sartorius, tibialis anterior
5 = latissimus dorsi, pec major
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Complications of treatment with silver nitrate

A

Good for staph, gram negative aeroves, pseudomonas
Poor tissue penetration
Will cause leaching of sodium, potassium, and calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Complications of treatment with Sulfamylon (mafenide acetate)

A

Excellent tissue penetration, including eschar
Painful application
Inhibits carbonic anhydrase resulting in hyperchloremic meabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Complications of treatment of Silver sulfadiazine

A

Intermediate tissue penetration, painless

Transient leukopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Chemical peels and their depth of penetration

A
  1. Alpha-hydroxy acid (glycolic and lactic)- superficial peeling
  2. Beta-hydroxy acid (salicyclic)- superficial peeling
  3. Jessner solution - superficial
  4. 20 TCA - papillary dermis
  5. Phenol-croton oil - reticular dermis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Velar competence after treatment of VPI with Furlow double-opposing Z-plasty is strongly correlated with what?

A

Size of preoperative closure gap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Failure of fusion of what results in formation of a cleft lip?

A

Failure of fusion of medial nasal and maxillary prominences at weeks 6-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Patient has VPI with no fistula, good coronal closure and poor lateral pharyngeal wall movement - intervention?

A

Sphincter pharyngoplasty - take pharyngopalatus

- do this when poor lateral wall movement to recreate a sphincter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the risks of a cleft lip :

  1. A child of male child with a cleft lip
  2. A child of female child with a cleft lip
  3. A child of a child of a child with a cleft (2nd gen)
  4. A child of a child with lip pits
A
  1. 4.7%
  2. 3.6%
  3. 17%
  4. 50% (van der woude, autosomal dominant)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the function of the meibomian gland secretions?

A

Outer oil lipid layer which prevents the evaporation of the tear film.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the function of the secretions of the lacrimal gland?

A

Middle aqueous layer to promote osmotic regulation and control of infectious agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the function of the secretions of the mucin-secreting goblet cells?

A

Inner layer promotes dispersion of the the aqueous layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hering law

A

When ptosis is corrected in one eye, it reveals ptosis in the other eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Between which eye fat pads is the inferior oblique muscle located?

A

Between the central and medial compartments of fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the tetrad of findings for blepharophimosis?

A

Ptosis, telecanthus, epicanthus inversus, decreased horizontal lid fissue. (congenital ptosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

SMAS is continuous with what structures?

A

Galea–> superficial temporal fascia (TPF) –> SMAS –> platysma –> superficial cervical fascia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The deep cervical fascia is continuous with what fascia?

A

parotidomasseteric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the ___ retaining ligaments ?

  1. osteocutaneous
  2. Fasciocutaneous
A
  1. zygomatic, mandibular

2. masseteric cutaneous, parotid cutaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

At what age should molding therapy be initiated for prominent ears?

A

before 3 days old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Indications for surgery in Dupuytren’s:

A

MCP joint contrature <30 degrees, PIP joint contracture. If PIP joint is still contracted, release checkrein ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Carpenter with distal ulcers on the ring and small finger, DBI<0.5, pain with exposure to cold?

A

Hypothenar hammer syndrome. Surgical tx with ulceration and DBI<0.7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The vascular pedicle fo the iliac osseocutaneous flap is?

A

Deep circumflex iliac vessels (DCIA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Superficial circumflex iliac vessels supply which flap?

A

groin flap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What Mathes/Nahai classificaction is the gluteal V-Y myocutaneous flap?

A

III (superior and inferior gluteal artery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Nerve supply to the medial plantar artery flap

A

medial plantar nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Nerve of the ALT

A

lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Sensation to the lateral side of the foot

A

Sural nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Motor innervation to the lateral leg

A

superficial peroneal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Sensory innervatino to the heel

A

Calcaneal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Treatment for remote middle phalanx intraarticular fracture with inability to flex finger

A

hemi-hamate arthroplasty

32
Q

Nerve injury: inability to extend thumb and MCP joints

A

radial nerve

33
Q

Between which muscles does the radial nerve run?

A

Between the EDC and ECRB in the forearm. Between brachialis and triceps in the upper arm

34
Q

Between which muscles does the median nerve run?

A

The course of the median nerve is relatively consistent. Just proximal to the elbow, at the medial epicondyle, there is a constant relationship of the median nerve, brachial artery, and the biceps tendon. From medial to lateral, the mnemonic, MAT, describes the relationship (Median nerve, brachial Artery, and biceps Tendon). In the cubital fossa, the nerve dives deep to the lacertus fibrosus, lying anterior to the brachialis muscle and medial to the brachial artery. The nerve enters the forearm between the superficial (humeral) and deep (ulnar) heads of the pronator teres muscle. As the nerve passes through the muscle bellies, it crosses the ulnar artery anteriorly, from medial to lateral, separated from the artery by the deep head of the pronator teres. After emerging from the pronator teres, the median nerve passes deep to an arch created by the two heads of the flexor digitorum superficialis. The nerve continues distally -forearm: between the flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor digitorum profundus.
-The nerve usually becomes superficial approximately 5 cm proximal to the wrist, emerging between the flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi radialis, dorsal and slightly radial to the palmaris longus tendon.

35
Q

Thumb functions to restore

A

Palmar abduction, flexion, and pronation

36
Q

What nerve controls thumb function

A

median nerve

37
Q

first line treatment of large venous malformation

A

sclerotherapy

38
Q

First line treatment of arteriovenous malformation

A

embolization

39
Q

Medical treatment for infantile hemangioma

A

propranolol, corticosteroids

40
Q

First line therapy of lymphatic malformations

  1. macrocystic
  2. microcystic
A
  1. macrocystic = sclerotherapy

2. microcystic = sclerotherapy

41
Q

Indications for surgical treatment of periorbital heangiomas

A

well-locatlied, greater than 2 diopters of astigmatism, visual obstruction, nonreponstive to medical tx (propranolol)

42
Q

vessle options for head and neck free flaps

A

external carotids, facial artery, internal mammary, transverse cervical

43
Q

2nd branchial arch nerves and muscles

A

Hyoid arch
95% of all branchial arch abnormalities
CN7 = facial expression: buccinators, stapedius, stylohyoid, posterior digastric, auricular, platysma

44
Q

1st branchia arch nerves and muscles

A

Mandibular arch
trigeminal nerve
Muscles of mastication (temporalis, masseter, pterygoids, anterior digastric, tensor veli palatini,

45
Q

3rd branchial arch

A

glossopharyngeal nerve (stylopharyngeus),

46
Q

4th branchial arch

A

vagus nerve (superior & inferior laryngeal) , intrinsic muscle of the palate (+ levator)

47
Q

Innervation of the anterior hard palate

A

sphenopalatine

48
Q

trauma that results in boutenerre deformity

A

central slip disruption

49
Q

swelling 4cm proximal to Lister tubercle, tenderness and crepitation over muscle bellies of APL and EPB

A

intersection syndrome: synovitis of the 2nd dorsal compartment

50
Q

options for tendon transfers for wrist and hand extension

A

palmaris longus to EPL, pronator teres to ECRB, FCU to EDC

51
Q

what articular surface is needed for proximal row carpectomy for SLAC wrist?

A

Capitolunate (scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum are removed)

52
Q

What thickens when a tissue expander is placed and inflated?

A

Epidermis

53
Q

What is the most appropriate first step in reconstruction of a severe rheumatoid wrist/hand with panarthritis?

A

Total wrist arthrodesis with ulnar head excision

54
Q

Isolated rheumatoid DRUJ disease treatment

A

Sauve-Kapandji

55
Q

What tendon will rupture in the rheumatoid hand?

A

Extensor carpi ulnaris leading to dorsal dislocation of the ulnar head and caput ulna syndrome

56
Q

Marcus-Gunn pupil indicates injury to…

A

retina or optic nerve

57
Q

Treatment of nevus of Ota

A

Q-switched ruby laser, alexandrite, or Nd:YAG

58
Q

Describe the Gustilo classification

A

I Clean wound bed, simple/minimally comminuted bone injury, wound 1 cm
IIIA Wound highly contaminated, severe comminution, wound 1 to 10 cm
IIIB Wound highly contaminated, severe comminution, wound >10 cm
IIIC Major vascular injury requiring repair for limb salvage

59
Q

Treatment for women with arm lymphedema s/p ax dissection and mastectomy for breast cancer who has failed medical managment

A

liposuction of the arm has improved lymphedema in post-BD therapy

60
Q

Parotid malignancy with distant mets

A

Adenoid cystic carcinoma

61
Q

Bilateral parotid tumors with large eosinophilic granular cells. Teatment?

A

Warthins tumor. Superficial parotidectomy

62
Q

Craniofacial syndrome associated with hematoma of stapedial artery. What chromosome? What facial cleft is associated?

A

Hemifacial microsomia

63
Q

Hemifacial microsomia, colobomas, epibulbar dermoids, vertebral and rib anomalies

A

Goldenhar

64
Q

Chromosome 5q

A

Treacher collins

65
Q

Retrognathia, glossoptosis, respiratory distress, +- u-shaped cleft palate

A

Pierre robin sequence

66
Q

Long arm of chromosome 22q

A

Velocardiofacial syndrome. MC cleft palate; DiGeorge, Opitz

67
Q

Symptoms of fat embolism syndrome

A

altered mental status, respiratory dysfunction, petechial rash

68
Q

what is the fat grafting 6 month retention rate?

A

64%

69
Q

What are the upper lateral and lower lateral cartilage differences between asian and caucasian noses?

A

Length is the same, overlap is the same, height of asian cartilage is shorter

70
Q

What flaps for posterior decubitus ulcers are appropriate for ambulatory and sensate patients?

A

Go to thigh and fasciocutaneous flaps first; Gluteal thigh flaps; fasciocutaneous flaps. Posterior thigh flap with biceps femoris only

71
Q

What are the stages of decubitus ulcers?

A

Stage I pressure sores are non-blanchable erythema of intact skin and usually resolve after 1 hour.
Stage II is partial-thickness skin loss presenting clinically as a blister, abrasion, or shallow crater.
Stage III pressure sores are full-thickness tissue loss down to, but not through, fascia.
Stage IV pressure sores are full-thickness loss with involvement of underlying muscle, bone, tendon, ligament, or joint capsule.

72
Q

What are flap options for trochanteric ulcers?

A

TFL flaps, vastus lateralis flap

73
Q

What are the flap options for sacral ulcers

A

V-Y fasciocutaneous flap; superior gluteal artery flap; reverse latissimus; lumbosacral flap; reverse lat;

74
Q

What are flap options for ischial ulcers?

A

Use thigh flaps first; posterior thigh flap with biceps femoris (+semimem/tend if non-ambulatory); posteromedial thigh gracilis or adductor magnus perforator flaps.

75
Q

Woman FOOSH’d. What are the bones most likely fractured if the distal radius and scaphoid are ok?

A

Distal radius -> scaphoid ->triquetral, trapezium, lunate, hamate

76
Q

Most common bone tumor in children?

A

Osteochondroma

77
Q

Most common bone tumor?

A

Endochondroma

A Plastic surgery review (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions