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Neuroscience > INS Exam 3 2014 > Flashcards

INS Exam 3 2014 Flashcards

1
Q

A lesion in which of the labeled areas of the spinal cord would be expected to cause the loss of fine touch in the ipsilateral upper limb?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 5

D. 9

E. 8

A

B. 2

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2
Q

The diagram illustrate the cell bodies and axonal distribution of which neurotransmitter system?

A. Acetylcholine

B. Dopamine

C. Serotonin

D. Norepinephrine

E. GABA

A

D. Norepinephrine

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3
Q

Identify the structure the following that is a prioproceptor?

A. Pacinian corpuscle

B. Meissner’s Corpuscle

C. Neuromuscular spindle

D. Ruffini corpuscle

E. Krause end bulb

A

C. Neuromuscular spindle

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4
Q

Which of the following is a correct distinction between the sympathetic (SNS) and parasympathetic (PNS) branches of the ANS?

A. Postganglionic fibers of the PNS use norepinephrine, whereas those of the SNS uses acetylcholine

B. The SNS postganglionic cell bodies are largely present in a chain alongside the spinal cord, whereas the PNS ganglia are more peripherally distributed and close to target tissues

C. The PNS long postganglionic fibers, whereas the SNS has quite short postganglionic fibers

D. The PNS is activated during exercise, whereas the SNS is active during feeding

E. All of the above

A

B. The SNS postganglionic cell bodies are largely present in a chain alongside the spinal cord, whereas the PNS ganglia are more peripherally distributed and close to target tissues

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5
Q

During mechanical ventilatory support in the intensive care unit, random spontaneous movement may interfere with the efficacy of this support. Administration of which of the following drugs can prevent this type of muscle movement?

A. Trimethaphan

B. Neostigmine

C. Pancuronium

D. Succinylcholine

E. Atropine

A

C. Pancurium

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6
Q

Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding Botulinum toxin? It

A. Increase ACH release

B. Blocks Acetylcholine esterase (ACHES)

C. Blocks musacrinic receptors

D. Blocks nicitonic receptors

E. Inhibits ACH release

A

E. Inhibits ACH release

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7
Q

An 80-year-old man suddenly becomes unconscious, and over several hours develops a left-sided hemiplegia. He is a known diabetic and has severe coronary artherosclerosis. Intially, the area of the brain affected by this lesion will most likely demonstrate

A. Cyst formation

B. Edema

C. Gliosis

D. Hemmorrhage

E. Neutophilic infiltrate

A

B. Edema

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8
Q

Treatment of myasthenia gravis has as its goal:

A. Depletion of T lymphocytes by thymectomy

B. Increase in transmitter at the neuromuscular junction

C. Immunomodulation

D. Removal of disease causing immunoglobuins by dialysis

E. A, B and C

F. All of the above

A

E. A, B and C

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9
Q

A young woman who has been in a motor vehicle accident presents with a head injury. Soft itssue window from an axial-contrast head CT is shown. Which of the following is the diagnosis?

A. Cerebral contusion

B. Subdural hematoma

C. Subarachnoid hemmorhage

D. Subdural hygroma

E. Epidural hematoma

A

B. Subdural hematoma

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10
Q

A 74-year old woman developed right face, arm and leg weakness. The patinet was residing in a rehabilitation facility while recovering from an infection. She was doing well until one morning she suddenly developed slurred speech and right sided weakness. Medical history was notable for hypertension, coronary artery disease and recent onset of atrial fibrillation. Motor examination also revealed right hyper-reflexia and Babinski sign including dysarthia, decreased right plate movement and rightward tongue deviation with no sensory deficits. The most likely cause of the symptoms was interruption of

A. Basal ganglia circuitry

B. The Corticospinal tract and corticobulbar pathways on the left

C. The Corticospinal and corticbular pathways on the left

D. Anterior limb of internal capsule on the right

E. Anterior limb of internal capsule on the left

A

C. The corticospinal and corticobulbar pathways on the left

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11
Q

The drug sildenafil, which increases nitric oxide by inhibiting a phosphodiesterase, directly aids

A. Cognitive aspects of reproduction

B. The functioning of sympathetic preganglionic neurons

C. The functioning if sympathetic preganglionic neurons

D. The relaxation of venous (cavernous) sinusoids

E. The stimulation of prostatic and vaginal secretions

A

D. The relaxation of venous (cavernous sinusoids)

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12
Q

Lesion in the pathway indicated by the arrow labeled 2 in figure will reduce the perception of

A. Touch in the ipsilateral lower extremity

B. Touch in the contralateral lower extremity

C. Pain from the ipsilateral upper extremity

D. Pain rom the contralateral upper extremity

E. Touch in the ipsilateral upper extremity

A

E. Touch in the ipsilateral upper extremity

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13
Q

Identify the structure at the tip of the arrow labeled 4 in Figure-1

A. Substantia gelatinosa

B. Marginal zone

C. Nucleus proprius

D. Nucleus dorsalis of Clarke

E. Lissauer’s tract

A

A. Substantia gelatinosa

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14
Q

Axons of neurons in the nucleus indicated by arrow labeled 1 in figure 4 give rise to the

A. Lateral Lemniscus

B. Medial Lemniscus

C. Anterolateral system

D. Brachium of the superior colliculus

A

B. Medial lemniscus

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15
Q

Lesion of the nucleus indicated by arrow labeled E in figure 5 will likely produce impaired perception of

A. Touch from the ipsilateral upper extremity

B. Pain from the ipsilateral upper extremity

C. Pain from the ipsilateral contralateral side of the face

D. Pain from the contralateral side of the face

E. Touch from the ipsiateral side of the face

F. Pain from the contralateral upper extremity

A

C.

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16
Q

Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to perorming an MRI examination?

A. Metallic fragments in the eye

B. Cardiac pacemarker

C. Older aneurysm clips

D. Metallic heart valve

E. Skull base lesion

A

E. Skull base lesion

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17
Q

Neuronal cell bodies that give rise to pathways indicated by arrow labeled 4 in figure 7 are located in the

A. Lateral geniculate nucleus

B. Retina

C. Medial geniculate nucleus

D. Inferior colliculus

E. Dorsal cochlear nucleus

F. Occipital cortex (V1)

A

B. Retina

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18
Q

Axons of neurons preent in the nucleus indicated by arrow labeled 3L in figure 8 terminate in the

A. Frontal cortex

B. Parietal cortex

C. Temporal cortex

D. Occipital cortex

A

D. Occipital Cortex

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19
Q

Fiber pathway indicated by arrow labeled 9 in figure 6 terminate in the

A. Inferior colliculus

B. Medical geniculate nucleus

C. Dorsal column nuclei

D. Ventral posterior lateral (VPL) nucleus

E. Posterior parietal cortex (S1)

A

D. Ventral Posterior Lateral (VPL) nucleus

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20
Q

Axons of neurons in the nucleus indicated by arrow labeled 1 in figure 10 terminate in the

A. Dorsal column nuclei

B. Lateral geniculat nucleus

C. Medial geniculate nucleus

D. Ventral posterior lateral nucleus

E. Temporal lobe

F. Occipital lobe

A

C. Medial geniculate nucleus

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21
Q

Abnormality shown in the T1 weighted axial (horizontal image) MRI (figure 11) will likely produce (Mokha)

A. Left homonymous superior quadrantanopsia

B. Left homonymous inferior quadrantanopsia

C. Bitemporal hemianopsia

D. Right homonymous hemianopsia

E. Right homonymous superior quadrantanopsia

F. Left homonymous hemianopsia

G. Left homonymous hemianopsia with macular sparing

A

F. Left homonymous hemianopsia

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22
Q

Abnormality shown in the T1 weighted sagittal MRI (Fig 12) will likely produce

A. Decreased pain from the ipsilateral lower extremity

B. Decreased pain from contralateral lower extremity

C. Decreased touch from the ipsilateral upper extremity

D. Bilateral segmental decrease (loss) of pain in the upper extremity

E. Bilateral segmental decrease (loss) of pain in the lower extremity

A

D. Bilateral segmental decrease (loss) of pain in the upper extremity

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23
Q

Visual field loss depicted in figure 13 is likely to be produced by a lesion of the

A. Optic radiations in the right parietal lobe

B. Optic radiations in the right temporal lobe

C. Tip of the left occipital lobe

D. Tip of the right occipital lobe

E. Optic chiasm

F. Right optic tract

A

F. Right Optic Tract

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24
Q

All of the following are involved in generating the slow component of the nystagmus EXCEPT

A. Descending medial longitudinal fasciculus

B. Medial vestibular nucleus

C. Abducens nucleus

D. Occulomotor nucleus

E. Oculomotor nerve

A

A. Descending medial longitudinal fasciculus

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25
Q

Neurological examination revealed that the right eye did not adduct (move toward the nose) during an ipslaterally (to the left) directed nystagmus eliciated by flooding the left external auditory meatus with warm water. It can be explained by damage to the

A. Right abducens nucleus

B. Left medial longitudinal fasciculus

C. Right medial longitudinal fasciculus

D. Left oculomotor nucleus

E. Left inferior colliculus

A

C. Right medial longitudinal fasciculus

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26
Q

A 62-year-old hypertensive woman abruptly develops numbness and a pins-and-needles sensation over her right face, arm, leg and trunk. Examination a few hours after the onset of symptoms reveals marked impairment on her right limbs of all sensory modalities-touch, pain, temperature, proprioception and vibration. Strenth is difficult to test becuase of proprioceptive loss; she is unable to conrol her right limbs in any coordinated activity. Tone and tendon reflexes are nromal. Over the next few days there is some return of sensation, but she experiences profressively severe spontaneously burning pain in her right face, limbs and trunk. On examination, touching the affected side produces a highly unpleasant, diffuse, lingering, burning sensation. Pain threshold is elevated, but once it is reached, the pinprick feels sharper than normal. Pain and dyesthesia re refractory to treatment with nonopoid analgesis medications. Stroke in which one of the following regions or nuclei is most likely to produce the syptoms described above?

A. Left dorsolateral sector ofthe medulla

B. Left post-central gyrus medially

C. Left VPL and VPM

D. Right dorsolateral sector of the medulla

E. Right dorsal columns in the cervical spinal cord

F. Right ventromedial sector of the pons

A

C. Left VPL and VPM

27
Q

A 60-year-old owman saw an ophthamologist because of worsening vision over the last several months. Past history showed that she suffered from menstrual irregularity and infertility. Eye examination revealed that the patient had decreased vision in the temporal field of both eyes. A tumor in which one of the following structures/locations is most likely to cause the symptoms described above

A. Tip of the occipital lobe

B. Optic tract

C. Vicinity of the pitutiary gland and optic chiasm

D. Vecinity of hte optic radiations in the parietal lobe

E. Vicinity of the superior bank of the calcarine cortex

A

C. Vicinity of the pituitary gland and the optic chiasm

28
Q

A 62-year-old hypertensive woman abruptly develops numbness and a pins-and-needles sensation over her right face, arm, leg and trunk. Examination a few hours after the onset of symptoms reveals marked impairment on her right limbs of all sensory modalities-touch, pain, temperature, proprioception and vibration. Strenth is difficult to test becuase of proprioceptive loss; she is unable to conrol her right limbs in any coordinated activity. Tone and tendon reflexes are nromal. Over the next few days there is some return of sensation, but she experiences profressively severe spontaneously burning pain in her right face, limbs and trunk. On examination, touching the affected side produces a highly unpleasant, diffuse, lingering, burning sensation. Pain threshold is elevated, but once it is reached, the pinprick feels sharper than normal. Pain and dyesthesia re refractory to treatment with nonopoid analgesis medications. Stroke in which one of the following regions or nuclei is most likely to produce the syptoms described above?

A. Left dorsolateral sector ofthe medulla

B. Left post-central gyrus medially

C. Left VPL and VPM

D. Right dorsolateral sector of the medulla

E. Right dorsal columns in the cervical spinal cord

F. Right ventromedial sector of the pons

G. Right ventromedial sector of the pons

A

C. Left VPL and VPM

29
Q

An agonist that activates 5-H1TD receptors and is used to treat acute migraine headache is

A. Ergotamine

B. Sumatriptan

C. Ibuprofen

D. Aspirin

E. Meperidine

A

B. Sumatriptan

30
Q

Epinephrine is sometimes added to commercial local anesthetic solutions for which purpose?

A. To decrease the rate of absorption of the local anesthetic

B. To decrease the duration of action of the local anesthetic

C. To block the metabolism of ester-type local anesthetics

D. To enhance the distribution of the local anesthetic

E. To act syndergistically with the local anesthetic at hte nerve ion channel

A

A. To decrease the rate of absorption of the local anesthetic

31
Q

A 33-year-old man with very intense headaches of sudden onset during strenuous workout in the gym has a normal exam after two hours except for mild neck stiffness. Head CT is reported as normal. Which one of the follwoing statements is wrong?

A. Could consider a formal 4 vessel (carotids and vertebral arteies) angiogram to rule out aneurysm (risk of stroke is ~1% with angiograms)

B. Head CT angiogram can be considered to evalute for cerebral aneuryms

C. Magnetic resonance angiography could be considered to evaluate for presence of aneurysms

D. None of the above is correct. Lumbar punctyre should be avoided for risk of brain herniation (cerebellar Tonsilar herniation). Patient should be reassured and discharged from the Emergency Room.

A

D. None of the above is correct. Lumbar punctyre should be avoided for risk of brain herniation (cerebellar Tonsilar herniation). Patient should be reassured and discharged from the Emergency Room.

32
Q

Select the INCORRECT clinical finding that is not common in lat4eral medullary ischemia (Wallenburg stroke): (Callahan)

A. Contralateral Horner’s syndrome

B. Ipsilateral appendicular ataxia

C. Reduction of pin prick over the ipsilateral face

D. Lack of motor eakness to the arms/legs

E. Falsetto voice

A

A. Contralateral Horner’s syndrome

33
Q

In midbran stroke reduction in consciousness is thought to require

A. Involvement of the basis pontis

B. Bilateral periadueductal gray matter

C. Involvement of the superior cerebellar peduncle

D. Involvement of the superior cerebellar peduncle

A

B. Bilateral periadueductal gray matter

34
Q

Visual field loss in the temporal visual field of each eye most likely reflects pathology where

A. The optic chiasm

B. The temporal lobes

C. The occipital lobe

D Both eyes

A

A. The optic chiasm

35
Q

Which of the following pathological signs is not observed in Bell’s palsy caused by facial nerve (CNVII) damage that is distinct from the upper motor neuron injury?

A. An LMN lesion of the facial nerve

B. Eyebrow droop

C. Atrophy of the facial muscles

D. Uncontrolled tearing

E. Intact fold on forehead

A

E. Intact folds on the forehead

36
Q

The tongue is innervated by several cranial nerves for the sensory pathways, Which of the following about taste and general somatic sensation of the tongue is false?

A. Taste of the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is provided by the facial nerve (CNVII)
B. General somatic sensation of the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is provided by the trigeminal nerve (CNV)

C. Both taste and general sensation of the posterior one-third of the tongue are provided by the glossopharyngeal nerve (CNIX)

D. Taste for the epiglottis and posterior pharynx is provided by the hypoglossal nerve (CNXII)

A

D. Taste for the epiglottis and posterior pharynx is provided by the hypoglossal nerve (CNXII)

37
Q

All of the following cranial nerves possess speical sensory functions such as sense of taste, vision, hearing, equilibrium and smell except for

A. Optic nerve

B. Olfactory nerve

C. Vestibulocochlear nerve

D. Trigeminal nerve

E. Facial nerve

A

D. Trigeminal nerve

38
Q

The involuntary blinking of the eyelids is associated with

A. Gag reflex

B. Corneal reflex

C. Vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR)

D. Pupillary light reflex

E. Stretch reflex

A

B. Corneal reflex

39
Q

All of the following statements are correct about the vestibule-ocular reflex(VOR) except for

A. A reflex eye movement that stabilizes images on the retina during head movement

B. The afferent limb is conveyed by the vestibular nerve (CNVIII) and the efferent limb is carried by the abducens nerve (CNVI) and oculomotor nerve (CNIII)

C. The signals send their impulses to vestibular nuclei in the brainstem

D. The afferent limb is conveyed by the spinal cord and the efferent limb is carried by the vagus nerve (CNX)

E. This reflex mechanism is insensitive to slow eye movement or persistent rotation of the head, and thus, the optokinetic reflex is activated to slow eye movements (below 1 Hz)

A

D. The afferent limb is conveyed by the spinal cord and the efferent limb is carried by the vagus nerve (CNX)

40
Q

Which of the following supranuclear control of eye movements is incorrect?

A. The Abducens nuclei send their axons into the medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF)

B. The abducens nuclei ascend in the MLF to end on oculomotor neurons controlling the medial rectus (horizontal gaze)

C. Interconnections between the trochlear nucleus and oculomotor nuclear complex coordinate their activity to allow the upward and downward (vertical gaze) movement of the eyes

D. Horizontal saccades center in the paramedian pontine reticular formation (PPRF) synpase with abducens nuclei and interneuron

E. Multiple brain regions including frontal eye field, substantia nigra pars compacta and pontine-cerebellar structures are involved

A

E. Multiple bran regions including frontal eye field, substantia nigra pars compacta and pontine-cerebellar structures are involved

41
Q

Multiple supranuclear (upper motor neurons) systems control eye movements. Which of the following is not involved in this eye movement control (Lee)

A. Cerebellum

B. Pineal gland

C. Frontal cortex

D. Parietal cortex

A

C. Pineal gland

42
Q

Which of the following statements about the gag reflex is false?

A reflex contraction of the back of the thorat, evoked by touching the posterior pharyngeal wall

B. The afferent limb of the reflex is supplied by the glossopharyngeal nerve (CNIX) which inputs to the nucleus solitaries and the spinal trigeminal nucleus

C. The efferent limb is carried by the hypoglossal nerve (CNXII)

D. This is the body’s defense mechanism to prevent us from choking

A

C. The efferent limb is carried by the hypoglossal nerve (CNXII)

43
Q

All of the following about the major outpout from the cerebellum are correct EXCEPT

A. The three major functional divisions of the cerebellar hemispheres project to corresponding deep cerebellar nuclei and vestibular nuclei

B. The axons of the deep cerebellar nuclei via the superior cerebellar peduncle decussate in the midbrain before reaching the thalamus and cortex

C. Cerebrocerebellum projects to the dentate nucleus

D. Spinocerebellum projects to the interposed(fastigial nuclei

E. The outputs from the cerebellum to the brainstem motor systems project to the vestibular nuclei and the reticular formation via superior cereberal peduncle

A

E. The outputs from the cerebellum to the brainstem motor systems project to the vestibular nuclei and the reticular formation via superior cereberal peduncle

44
Q

The cerebellum pontine angle (CPA) is anatomic space between the cerebellum and pons. This is a common site for the growth of acoustic neuromas or schwanomas. Lesions in the area of cerebellopontine angle cause signs and symptoms secondary to compression of several cranial nerves which pass through nearby except for

A. Trigeminal nerves (CNV)

B. Facial nerves (CNVII)

C. Vestibular nerves(VIII)

D. Vagus nerves(CNX)

A

Vagus nerves(CNX)

45
Q

Identify the structure labeled #1 which is located in posterior upper midbrain critically involved in involuntary saccades movement in the Figure 1?(Lee)

A

Superior Colliculus

46
Q

Identify the structures labeled #2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 in Figure 1?(Lee)

A

Oculomotor complex, Corticospinal tract, Corticobulbar tract, Substantia nigra pars compacta, Substantia nigra pars reticulata

47
Q

Identify the cranial nerves labeled #1 whose tract is curbed in the pontine tegmentum, and cranial nerves #2 which are associated with vestibular-ocular reflex in figure 2?(Lee)

A

Genu of facial nerves(1)

Abducens nerves(2)

48
Q

Identify the structure #4 which is crossed in pontine area prior to entering cerebellum in Figure 2?(Lee)

A

MIddle Cerebellar peduncle

49
Q

Identify the structure labeled #5 which is associated with the horizontal gaze center and control the abducens nerves in Figure 2?(Lee)

A

Paramedian pontine reticular formation

50
Q

Jennifer (25 years old) developed pain behind her left ear one evening. When she looked in the mirror the next morning, she noticed that her left face was drooping. In addition, her left ear was sensitive to loud sounds. She visited her physician, who gave her some medication for the pain, but over the next 2 days her left eye developed a “Scratchy” painful sensation, so she came to theemergency room. Exam was notable for marked left facial weakness, including the forehead. The remainder of the exam was normal. Based on the symptoms and signs, where is the possible lesion(Lee)?

A. Upper motor neurons in right side of cortex

B. Left side of facial nerves

C. Right side of facial nerves

D. Left side of trigeminal nerves

E. Upper motor neurons in the left side of cortex

A

B. Left side of facial nerves

51
Q

A 54-year-old man with a history of diabetes awoke one morning with horizontal diplopia that increased on gaze to the left and decreased on gaze to the right. He initially had some pain in the left periorbital area, which resolves after a few days. Exam was normal except for incomplete abduction of the left eye. He was able to move the left eye slightly past hte idline toward the left; however, he was unable to fully “bury the sclera”, as he could with the right eye when looking to the right. He had horizontal diplopia with no vertical component, which was worse on left gaze. Based on the symptoms and signs, where is the possible lesions?(Lee)

A. Trochlear nerves

B. Oculomotor nerves

C. Left abducens nerves

D. Right abducens nerves

E. Vertical gaze center

F. Superior colliculus

A

C. Left abducens nerves

52
Q

The pontine paramedian reticular formation (PPRF) is involved in which if the following?

A. Vestibular nystagmus

B. Optokinetic nystagmus

C. Saccades

D. Smooth pursuit

E. Accomodation

A

C. Saccades

53
Q

A patient is capable of pupillary constriction during accomodation but not in response to a light directed to either eye. The lesion is most likely present in the:

A. Optic nerve

B. Abducens nucleus

C. Edinger-Westphal nucleus

D. Pretectal areas

E. Supraoculomotor nucleus

A

D. Pretectal areas

54
Q

Which of the following is correct sequence of the indirect pathway of Basal ganglia?

A. Cortex-striatum-globus pallidus external segment-subthalmic nuclei-globus pallidus internal segment-thalamus-cortex

B. Cortex-striatum-globus pallidus internal segment-globus pallidus external segment-thalamus-cortex

C. Cortex-straitum-substantia nigra pars reticulata-thalamus-cortex

D. Cortex-cerebellum-red nucleus-superior colliculus-thalamus-cortex

A

A. Cortex-striatum-globus pallidus external segment-subthalmic nuclei-globus pallidus internal segment-thalamus-cortex

55
Q

Which of the following about Purkinje fibers is incorrect?

A. Tonically inhibit the activity of the neruons of the cerebellar nuclei

B. All excitatory inputs will be converted to the inhibition due to its inhibitory action

C. Remove the excitatory influences the cerebellar inputs (disinhibition)

D. The output of hte purkinje cell onto the deep cerebellar nuclear cell is inhibitory

E. Release glutamate as a neurotransmitter

A

E. Release glutamate as a neurotransmitter

56
Q

A 76-year-old man with a hitstory of cigarette smoking developed progressive difficulty walking over hte course of ` 1 month. He noticed that when he stood up he felt “woozy”, and he described his gait as feeling like he was drunk, saying “my legs go one way, and I go the other.” His family said he freqeutnly lost his balance, with staggering and unsteadiness. He also had frequent mild headaches that occurred at any time of the day and night and seem to be getting worse. Exam was unremarkable except for a wide based, unsteady gait, tending to fall to the left, especaillyw ith tandem walking. Of note, there was no ataxia on finger-to-heel-to-shin testing, and rapid alternating movements were normal. There was no history of alcohol intake. Based on the symptoms and signs, where is the lesion?

A. Frontal cortex

B. Vestibular nuclei

C. Cerebellar vermis

D. Superior cerebellar peduncle

E. Spinal trigeminal nucleus

A

C. Cerebellar vermis

57
Q

Which of the following about the glossopharngeal nerve (CNIX) is incorrect?

A. The CNIX exits the skull via the jugular foramen

B. Motor fibers arising from the nucleus amguous provide innervation of hte trapezius muscle, important for phraynx elevation during speech and swallowing

C. Sensory fibers form chemoreceptors and barroreceptors in the carotid body reach the caudal nucleus solatirus (cardiorespiratory nucleus)

D. Taste sensory fibers from the posteiror one-third of the tongue travel to the rostral nucleus solitaries (gustatory nucleus)

E. Somatic sensation form the posterior tongue, pharynx, middle ear and external ear travels via CNIX to the trgeminal nucleus

F. Parasympathetic arising from the inferior salivatory nuceus activate the parotid salivary gland via the otic ganglion

A

B. Motor fibers arising from the nucleus amguous provide innervation of hte trapezius muscle, important for phraynx elevation during speech and swallowing

58
Q

Which of the following is incorrect about basal ganglia disorders?

A. Hemibalismus is casued by damage in the subthalmic nucleus

B. Tourette’s syndroms is an inherited neuropsychiatric diroder which onset in childhood, characterized by multiple physical (motor) tics and at least one vocal (phonic) tic

C. Dystonia is often produced by long-term use of dopamine antagonists (atipsychotic drugs)
D. Huntington’s disease (HD) is caused by a lesion in substantia nigra pars reticulate

E. Wilson’s disease is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder in which copper accuulates in tissues

A

E. Wilson’s disease is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder in which copper accuulates in tissues

59
Q

There are five types of eye movements. Which of teh following is incorrect

A. There are two functiona lclasses of eye movements, one is gaze stabilization that stabilizes the eye when the head moves or appears to move, and the other one is gaze shifting that keep the image of a visual target focused onthe fovea when the visual target moves

B. Two gaze stabilization systems operte during head movement: One is vestibule-ocular and the other is the optokinetic systems. These are conuugate movements in which both eyes movei n the same direction

C. Three gaze shifting systems function during foveation: smooth pursuit saccade, and vergence

D. Smooth pursuit directs the eye to follow a moving visual target

E. Vergence movements are disconjugate movements

F. Frontal cortex is a key structure in facilitating saccades by receving so much input information and being capable of integrating those input information

A

F. Frontal cortex is a key structure in facilitating saccades by receving so much input information and being capable of integrating those input information

60
Q

Which of the following about the pupillary light reflex is incorrect?

A. The optic nerves (CNII) transfer signals from the photosensitive retinal ganglion cells to pretectal area

B. From the pretectal nucleus, axons project to neurons in the Edinger-Westphal nucleus bilaterally followed by stimulation of both left ane right sides of oculomotor nerves

C. Oculomotor nerve axons synapse on ciliary ganglion neurons which innervate the constrictor muscles of the iris (CNIII)
D. Frontal eye field controls the pupillary light reflex

A

​D. Frontal eye field controls the pupillary light reflex

61
Q

A 76-year-old man presents with a resting remor, bradykinesia, and stooped posture. These observations suggest the loss of prominent population of cells in the brain. Which of the folowing structures is most likely affected in this patient?

A. Lateral cerbellar nucleus

B. Ventrolateral preopric area

C. Locus coeruleus

D. Red nucleus

E. Subthalmic nucleus

F. Medial raphe nucleus

G. Ventral tegmental area

H. Substantia nigra

A

H. Substantia nigra

62
Q

A 28-year-old woman presents to her primary care physicain complains of neurological symptoms that come and go. Based on the constellation of symptoms, the physicain suspects that the patient has multiple sclerosis and orders an MRI. T-2 weighted MRI shows small, demyelinated areas at several locations in her brain, one of these is the mamillothalmic tract. Which of the following structures is most intimately associated with this tract?

A. Centromedian thalmic nucleus

B. Lateral genicular nucleus

C. Anterior thalamic nucleus

D. Dorsomedial thal ic nucleus

E. Vental latreal thalmic nucleus

F. Subthalmic nucleus

A

C. Anterior thalmic nucleus

63
Q

A 57-year-old veteran, who has been living under the Shelby street Bridge, is brought to the emergency departmet by local law enforcement personnel. The man is thin, undernourished, somnolent, and clearly intoxictaed. Other indicators, such as a lack of personal hygeine, suggest that the man’s condition has been long term. When the physician asks the man his name and where he lives, the man gives a nonsensical response. This man is most likely suffering from which of the following?

A. Delerium tremors

B. Broca aphasia

C. Kluver-Bucy syndrome

D. Pick disease

E. Alzheimer disease

F. Korsakoff syndrome

G. Ketoacidosis

A

F. Korsakoff syndrome

Neuroscience (5 decks)

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