INS Exam 2 2014 Flashcards

1
Q

The cavernous sinus usually drains into the:

Sigmoid sinus

Superior petrosal sinus

Inferior petrosal sinus

Sphenoparietal sinus

Superior and inferior petrosal sinuses

A

Superior and inferior petrosal sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Identify the structure among the following that is a proprioceptor:

Paccinian corpuscle

Meissners corpuscle

Neuromuscular spindle

Ruffini corpuscle

Krause end bulb

A

Neuromuscular spindle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is a correct distinction between the sympathetic (SNS) and parasympathetic (PNS) branches of the ANS?

Postganglionic fibers of the PNS use norepinephrine, whereas those of the SNS use acetylcholine.

The SNS postganglionic cell bodies are largely present in a chain alongside the spinal cord, whereas the PNS ganglia are more peripherally distributed and close to target tissues.

The PNS has long postganglionic fibers, whereas the SNS has quite short postganglionic fibers.

The PNS is activated during exercise, whereas the SNS is active during feeding.

All of the above

A

The SNS postganglionic cell bodies are largely present in a chain alongside the spinal cord, whereas the PNS ganglia are more peripherally distributed and close to target tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

hronic subdural hematomas are most commonly associated with

A clear history of trauma; arterial bleeding; temporal location; no pre-existing brain disease; associated brain edema and contusions common

No or vague history of trauma; arterial bleeding; fronto-parietal location; no pre-existing brain disease; associated brain edema and contusions uncommon

A clear history of trauma; venous bleeding; temporal location; pre-existing brain atrophy; associated brain edema and contusions common

No or vague history of trauma; venous bleeding; fronto-parietal location; pre-existing brain atrophy; associated brain edema and contusions uncommon

A

No or vague history of trauma; venous bleeding; fronto-parietal location; pre-existing brain atrophy; associated brain edema and contusions uncommon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following is MOST likely to be associated with thrombosis located in the mid-section of the right internal carotid artery

Cerebral infarction manifested with coagulative necrosis

Atherosclerosis involving the internal carotid arteries

Longstanding history of atrial fibrillation

A liquefactive cerebral infarction with numerous viable and nonviable appearing red blood cells

Right-sided heart failure with mural thrombosis

A

Atherosclerosis involving the internal carotid arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A 13-year-old developed an intraspinal neoplasm. Microscopic examination revealed a cellular neoplasm which conspicuously exhibited acellular fibrillary regions around blood vessels. Of the following, the tumor is most likely

Astrocytoma

Choroid plexus papilloma

Ependymoma

Ganglioglioma

Lymphoma

Medulloblastoma

A

Ependymoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following drugs blocks both sympathetic and parasympathetic transmission?

Atropine

Curare

Scopolamine

Trimethaphan

Neostigmine

A

Trimethaphan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

An ophthalmologist used a receptor antagonist to examine the eye. The drug not only dilates the pupil but also impaired the patient’s ability to focus his eyes up close. The drug is most likely

Acetylcholine

Epinephrine

Pilocarpine

Homatropine

Cocaine

A

Homatropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Treatment of myasthenia gravis has as its goal:

Depletion of T lymphocytes by thymectomy

Increase in transmitter at the neuromuscular junction

Immunomodulation

Removal of disease causing immunoglobulins by dialysis

A, B & C

All of the above

A

A, B & C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The myasthenic syndrome called Eaton-Lambert is associated with:

Malignancy

Incremental conduction with repetitive stimulation

Post ganglionic changes

Response to pyridostigmine

A & B

A, B & C

All of the above

A

A & B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

There are four motor subsystems. Which one of the following is not considered a subsystem of the neural circuits for movement control?

Basal ganglia

Descending upper motor neuron pathway

Cerebellum

Thalamus

Local circuits in the brainstem

A

Thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The ratio between the alpha motor neuron and the number of muscle fibers it innervates is associated with the degree of skillfulness needed in the movement. Lower ratio (an average 1:3) controls

Head movements

Postural muscle

The large, fast contracting muscles used in sprinting

Eye muscles

All of the above

A

Eye muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Size principle in recruitment of motor neurons means that

Low threshold slow (3) motor units are recruited first

For the highest levels of activity, only fast fatigable motor units are recruited

Fast fatigable resistant motor units provide the tension required for standing

Jumping requires recruitment of only slow motor units

A

Low threshold slow (3) motor units are recruited first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Upper motor neurons involved with the control of distal muscles would most likely project to the spinal cord in which of the following patterns?

Lateral gray matter of anterior spinal horn

Lateral gray matter of posterior spinal horn

Medial gray matter of anterior spinal horn

Medial gray matter of posterior spinal horn

In equal proportions to both lateral and medial gray matter

A

Lateral gray matter of anterior spinal horn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The sensory receptors in the stretch reflex are located in the

Meissners corpuscles

Golgi tendon organs

Intrafusal muscle fibers in muscle spindles

Pacinian corpuscles

Extrafusal muscle fibers

A

Intrafusal muscle fibers in muscle spindles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A 74-year old woman developed right face, arm and leg weakness. The patient was residing in a rehabilitation facility while recovering from an infection. She was doing well until one morning when she suddenly developed slurred speech and right sided weakness. Medical history was notable for hypertension, coronary artery disease and recent onset of atrial fibrillation. Motor examination also revealed right hyper-reflexia and Babinski sign including dysarthria, decreased right plate movement and rightward tongue deviation with no sensory deficits. The most likely cause of the symptoms was interruption of

Basal ganglia circuitry

The corticospinal and corticobulbar pathway on the right

The corticospinal and corticobulbar pathway on the left

Anterior limb of internal capsule on the right

Anterior limb of internal capsule on the left

A

The corticospinal and corticobulbar pathway on the left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a neurodegenerative disease that is mainly an impairment of

Serotonergic neurons

Cholinergic neurons

Alpha motor neurons

Gamma motor neurons

A

Alpha motor neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When you pull on a handle, the biceps muscle is contracted. To ensure postural stability, contraction of the gastrocnemius muscle precedes that of the biceps. Two desending upper motor tracts are activated during these movements. What are these two tracts?

Corticospinal, rubrospinal

Corticospinal, vestibulospinal

Corticospinal, reticulospinal

Vestibulospinal, reticulospinal

Rubrospinal, reticulospinal

A

Corticospinal, reticulospinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following structures is involved in micturition?

Orbital-medial prefrontal cortex

A pontine autonomic center

Somatic motor neurons

Sympathetic and parasympathetic postganglionic neurons

All of the above

A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The drug sildenafil, which increases nitric oxide by inhibiting a phosphodiesterase, directly aids

Cognitive aspects of reproduction

The functioning of sympathetic preganglionic neurons

The functioning of sympathetic preganglionic neurons

The relaxation of venous (cavernous) sinusoids

The stimulation of prostatic and vaginal secretions

A

The relaxation of venous (cavernous) sinusoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

After surgery to treat an occluded left common carotid artery, a 71-year-old man exhibits, on the left side, flushing of the face, a slight ptosis, and a constricted pupil that does not dilate in dim light. These observations suggest that an unintentional consequence of the surgery was injury to which of the following?

Cervical sympathetic trunk

Vagus nerve

Glossopharyngeal nerve

Ventral roots of spinal nerves C6 to C8

Facial nerve

A

Cervical sympathetic trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Lesion of the pathway indicated by the arrow labeled B in figure will reduce the perception of

Touch in the ipsilateral lower extremity

Touch in the contralateral lower extremity

Pain from the ipsilateral upper extremity

Pain from the contralateral upper extremity

Touch in the ipsilateral upper extremity

A

Touch in the ipsilateral upper extremity

23
Q
A
24
Q

Identify the structure at the tip of the arrow labeled A in Figure 1-

Substantia gelatinosa

Marginal zone

Nucleus proprius

Nucleus dorsalis of Clarke

Lissauer’s tract

A

Substantia gelatinosa

25
Q

Fiber pathway indicated by arrow labeled C in figure 3 terminates in the

Dorsal root ganglia

Nucleus gracilis

Nucleus cuneatus

Posterior parietal cortex

Ventral posterolateral nucleus (VPL)

A

Ventral posterolateral nucleus (VPL)

26
Q

Axons of neurons in the nucleus indicated by arrow labeled D in figure 4 give rise to the

Lateral lemniscus

Medial lemniscus

Anterolateral system

Brachium of the superior colliculus

Brachium of the inferior colliculus

A

Medial lemniscus

27
Q

Fiber pathway indicated by arrow labeled F in Figure 6 terminate in the

Inferior colliculus

Medial geniculate nucleus

Dorsal column nuclei

Ventral posterior lateral (VPL) nucleus

Posterior parietal cortex

A

Ventral posterior lateral (VPL) nucleus

28
Q

Lesions of the nucleus indicated by arrow labeled E in figure 5 will likely produce impaired perception of

Pain from the ipsilateral upper extremity

Pain from the ipsilateral side of the face

Pain from the contralateral side of the face

Touch from the ipsilateral side of the face

Pain from the contralateral upper extremity

A

it didn’t give an answer, but i love you

29
Q

Which…. G

Lateral geniculate nucleus

Retina

Medial geniculate nucleus

Inferior colliculus

Dorsal cochlear nucleus

Occipital cortex (VI)

A

Retina

30
Q

Axons of neurons present in the nucleus indicated by arrow labeled H in figure 8 terminate in the

Frontal cortex

Parietal cortex

Temporal cortex

Occipital cortex

A

Occipital cortex

31
Q

Nucleus indicated by arrow labeled 1 in figure 9 receives pain, temperature and touch information from the

Ipsilateral face

Ipsilateral upper extremity

Contralateral upper extremity

Contralateral face

Contralateral lower extremity

A

Contralateral face

32
Q

Axons of neurons in the nucleus indicated by arrow labeled J in figure 10 terminate in the

Dorsal columns nuclei

Lateral geniculate nucleus

Medial geniculate nucleus

Ventral posterior lateral nucleus

Temporal lobe

Occipital lobe

A

Medial geniculate nucleus

33
Q

Abnormality shown in the T1 weighted axial (horizontal) MRI (fig 11) will likely produce

Left homonymous superior quadrantanopsia

Left homonymous inferior quadrantanopsia

Bitemporal hemianopsia

Right homonymous hemianopsia

Right homonymous superior quadrantanopsia

Left homonymous hemianopsia

Left homonymous hemianopsia with macular sparing

A

Left homonymous hemianopsia

34
Q

Abnormality shown in the T1 weighted sagittal MRI (Fig 12) will likely produce

Decreased pain from the ipsilateral lower extremity

Decreased pain from the contralateral lower extremity

Decreased touch from the ipsilateral upper extremity

Bilateral segmental decrease (loss) of pain in the upper extremity

Bilateral segmental decrease (loss) of pain in the lower extremity

A

Bilateral segmental decrease (loss) of pain in the upper extremity

35
Q

Visual field loss depicted in figure 13 is likely to be produced by a lesion of the

Optic radiations in the right parietal lobe

Optic radiations in the right temporal lobe

Tip of the left occipital lobe

Tip of the right occipital lobe

Optic chiasm

Right optic tract

A

Right optic tract

36
Q

Based on microneurography, electrical stimulation of which one of the following will produce the sensation of “vibration”

C-polymodal nociceptors

Pacinian corpuscle

Merkel receptor

Meissner corpuscle

Ruffini corpuscle

A

Pacinian corpuscle

37
Q

Decreased response of a sense organ to a maintained stimulus is described as

Depression

Inhibition

Adaption

Desensitization

A

Adaption

38
Q

Damage to the left posterior limb of the internal capsule will initially produce impaired perception of touch, proprioception and pain from the

Upper extremity on the right side only

Upper extremity on the left side only

Entire body on the right side

Lower extremity on the left side only

Lower extremity on the right side only

Right side of the face only

A

Entire body on the right side

39
Q

Lesion of which one of the following will initially produce loss of pain and temperature information on the contralateral side of the face

Ventral posterior lateral nucleus of the thalamus

Lateral geniculate nucleus

Intralaminar nuclei

Ventral posterior medial nucleus of the thalamus

Spinal trigeminal nucleus

Main sensory nucleus

A

Ventral posterior medial nucleus of the thalamus

40
Q

Lesion of which one of the following best explains the loss of only discriminative touch sensation in all dermatomes below the lesion

Anterolateral system (ALS)

Main sensory nucleus of the trigeminal nerve

Dorsal columns

Dorsal spinocerebellar tract

Spinal trigeminal nucleus

Ventral posterior lateral (VPL) nucleus

A

Dorsal columns

41
Q

Placebo-induced analgesia is produced by the release of which one of the following neurochemicals

Norepinephrine

Serotonin

Opioid peptides

Substance P

Glutamine

A

Opioid peptides

42
Q

Peripheral analgesics (aspirin and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs) are effective in reducing pain because they

Increase the synthesis of bradykinin

Increase the synthesis of serotonin

Inhibit the synthesis of prostaglandins

Inhibit the release of potassium from damaged cells

Increase the synthesis of opioid peptides

Increase the synthesis of GABA

A

Inhibit the synthesis of prostaglandins

43
Q

Which one of the following sensations is transduced by the IP3-mediated opening of the TRPM5 channel?

Pain

Bitter taste

Audition

Vision

Olfaction

A

Bitter taste

44
Q

The flavor center of the brain is located in the

Insular cortex

Pyriform cortex

Hippocampus

Orbitofrontal cortex

Entorhinal cortex

A

Orbitofrontal cortex

45
Q

Which one of the following cranial nerves carries pain and taste information from the posterior third of the tongue?

VII

X

IX

V

VI

A

IX

46
Q

Lesions in which one of the following will likely produce a hearing deficit in only the left ear

A

nothing

47
Q

n/a

A

n/a

48
Q

Sound localization depends in part on

Neurons in the auditory that can respond to interaural intensity and phase differences

The tonotopic organization

The somatotropic map in the post central gyrus

The existence of a map of the auditory space in the auditory cortex

Summation columns in the auditory cortex

A

Neurons in the auditory that can respond to interaural intensity and phase differences

49
Q

Which one of the following structures is involved in impedance matching in the auditory system

Pinna

External auditory canal

Cochlea

Basilar membrane

Middle ear

A

Middle ear

50
Q

An off-center ganglion cell responds best to (i.e. fires the greatest burst of action potentials):

Central illumination of its receptive field

Annular illumination of the surround area of its receptive field

Diffuse illumination

By a moving bar of light in the surround area of its receptive field

A

Annular illumination of the surround area of its receptive field

51
Q

Lesions in which one of the following cortical visual areas will most likely impair the perception of motion

V3

V4

V5

Middle temporal lobe

A

Middle temporal lobe

52
Q

Lesion of which one of the following will most likely produce right homonymous inferior quandrantanopsia

Right optic tract

Optic chiasm

Optic radiations in the left temporal lobe

Optic radiations in the right temporal lobe

Optic radiations in the left parietal lobe

Optic radiations in the right parietal lobe

Left optic tract

A

Optic radiations in the left parietal lobe

53
Q
A