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INRAT Flashcards

1
Q

One year requirements for Instrument Rating

A

6 - Hours flying/sim
6 - Approacches to minimum
Every 6 months

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2
Q

Class A airspace in:
Southern Control Area
Northern Control Area
Arctic Control Area

A

SCA - 18,000 to FL600
NCA - FL 230 to FL600
ACA - FL 270 to FL600

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3
Q

RVR reported only when visibilty is ___ SM less than
Based on ___ min average

A

1 SM
10 min avg

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4
Q

RVR measured along the first ____of the runway or ___ ft.
R19/6000/U =
D =
N =

A

1/3 or 3,000ft
Upward
Downward
No change

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5
Q

Ground visibilty = RVR:
1 SM =
3/4 SM =
1/2 SM =
1/4 SM =
1/8 SM =

A

1 SM = 5,00ft
3/4 SM = 4,000ft
1/2 SM = 2,600ft
1/4 SM = 1,200ft
1/8 SM = 600ft

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6
Q

Compass swing every ___
Pitot Static check every ____
For IFR the altimeter must be accurate +/- ___ft

A

Compass - 1 year
Pitot Static - 2 years
Altimeter - 50 ft

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7
Q

Convert T to M

Variation 10 W =
Variation 20 E =

A

W = Add
E = Subtract

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8
Q

U A
N N
O D
S S

A

Turning to N - must undershoot
Turning to S - must overshoot

Flying E or W:
Accelerate - Compass points North
Decelerate - Compass points South

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9
Q

Angle of bank

A

(TAS/10) + 7(kts) (+5 mph)

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10
Q

Alt Minima:
2 or more usable PA
1 usable PA
NPA only
No IFR App

A

2+ = 400 - 1 or 200 - 1/2
1 = 600 - 2 or 300 - 1
NPA = 800 -2 or 300 -1
No App = 500 ft above the lowest IFR minima

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11
Q

Alt Minima:
Max calculated visibilty is___SM
LNAV - TSO_____
LNAV/VNAV - TSO____
LPV - TSO

A

3SM
LNAV = TSO 129
LNAV/VNAV = 145/146
LPV = 145/146

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12
Q

Sliding Scale:
600 - 2 =
800 -2 =
Only to be used if Aerodrome has ___

A

600 - 2: 700 -1 1/2 or 800 - 1
800 -2: 900 - 1 1/2 or 1,000 - 1
TAF

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13
Q

If no TAF, aerodrome can be used as ALT if:
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. 3 SM
  2. No CB’s
  3. Ceiling min 1,000 ft above HAT
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14
Q

GPS Alternates:
Aerodromes must be seperated by
- ____ NM if both in ___
- North of ___ degrees in ___and ___
- Minimum ___ NM anywhere else

A

75 NM in NU
56 degrees in QC and LAbrador
100 NM everywhere else

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15
Q

Aircraft Categories:
A V____? (TAS/IAS/CAS?)
B
C
D
E

A

A - 90 Vref and IAS
B - 91 to 120
C - 121 to 140
D - 140 to 165
E - 165 +

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16
Q

APP Ban:
RVR A only =
RVR A and B =
RVR B only =

A

A only = 1,200
A/B = 1,200 & 600
B only = 1,200

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17
Q

You can ignore App Ban minima if:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

A
  1. Past the FAF
  2. Training flight
  3. RVR fluctuating +/-
  4. RVR below, but ground vis is 1/4 SM
  5. No RVR
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18
Q

LVOP/RVOP:
RVOP RVR?
LVOP RVR?

A

RVOP - 2600 - 1200
LVOP - 1200 - 600

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19
Q

Obstacle Clearence Req:
Take - Off:
___ ft Vertically
___ ft Horizontally (Inside AD)
___ ft Horizontally (Outside AD)

A

35 ft
200 ft
300 ft

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20
Q

Obstacle Clearence Req (MOCA):
EnRoute
___ ft above highest obstacle within ___NM
1,500ft for DMR ____
2,000 ft for DMR ____

A

1,000ft - 5 NM
1,500ft - DMR 2,3,4
2000ft - DMR 1,5

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21
Q

CYA XXX(XX)
P
F
M
A
T
H
S

A

Paragliding
Flight test area
Military
Acrobatic
Training
Hangliding
Soaring

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22
Q

CYA Provinces:
100 700
200 800
300 900
400
500
600

A

100 - BC 700 - NB, NS, PEI, NL
200 - AB 800 - YT
300 - SK 900 - NWT
400 - MB
500 - ON
600 - QA

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23
Q

Low - Level Controlled Airspace:
____ft AGL to 18,000ft
Terminal Control Area Base:
45 NM____AGL
35 NM____AGL
12 NM ___AGL

A

2,200ft AGL
45 NM - 9,500ft AGL
35 NM - 2,200ft AGL
12 NM - 1,200ft AGL

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24
Q

Dimensions:
VOR - VOR =
VOR - NDB =
RNAV Routes =

A

VOR - VOR = 4.5 degrees, 4 NM, 50.8 NM
NDB - NDB = 5 degrees, 4.34 NM, 49.66 NM
RNAV = 10 NM per side
* MOCA only protects 6NM on each side

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25
Transponder Code: ___ Below __ ft ASL ___ Above ___ ft SL
1000 below 18,000ft ASL 2000 above 18,000ft ASL
26
Aerdrome with ATC tower (vis): Arr + Dep 1. 2. 3. 4.
1. RVR intended runway 2. Ground Visibilty 3. Tower Visibility 4. Pilot Vis
27
No control tower Arr Dep 1. 1. 2. 2. 3. 3.
Arr: Dep: 1. RVR- intended 1. Ground Vis 2. Ground Vis 2. RVR of any runway 3. Pilot Vis 3. Pilot Vis
28
Define local Phenomena If ____ is less than ___ Aerodrome with active ATC tower: 1. 2. 3.
If RVR is less than ground visibility 1. RVR of intended runway 2. Ground Vis 3. Pilot Vis
29
Min DH + Visibility HIAL OP HIAL INOP
OP - 200ft + 1/2 SM/RVR 2,600 INOP - 250ft + 1 SM/ RVR 5,000
30
EWH - PAPI P1. P2. P3.
P1. 0 - 10 P2. 10 - 25 P3. 25 +
31
IFR Cruising Altitudes: 0 - 179 Degrees 180- 359 Degrees
West - Even East - Odds
32
Must notify ATC when, in controlled airspace: ___ % or more change in TAS __ mach more than mach cruise
5% in TAS 0.01 mach
33
Fuel Requirement: Prop? Jet?
Prop - 45 min Jet - 30 min
34
Wake Turbulence Category: L M H
Light - 7,000kg or less Medium - 7,000 to 136,000kg Heavy - 136,000kg +
35
AMA - Area Min Alttitude Northern Airspace ____Lat x ____Long Southern Airspace Provides ___ft clearance
N - 2x8 S - 2x4 1,000ft
36
Minimum Visibilty for take-off on "Not assessed" runway?
1/2 SM
37
Non - Radar Departure ___ min if taking off into wake of heavy - t/o from same threshold ___ min taking off after heavy but start rolling further down the runway than heavy
2 min 3 min No spacing for light behind a medium only advisory
38
Comply with ATC unless: 1. 2. 3.
1. TCAS 2. Obstacle Avoidance 3. WS Alert
39
How long is an altimeter setting valid for?
90 min
40
Standard Pressure Region: If holding, when should you set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting?
Just before descent below the lowest FL at which the hold is at
41
Vertical Separation: If local altimeter is... FL180 - FL 190 FL 200
FL 180 - 29.92+ FL190 - 29.91 to 28.92 FL200- 28.91 to 27.92
42
Required to notify ATC if ETA to next point is in error of ___ Min
3 min
43
If clearance not recieved prior to arriving out the clearance limit: - Hold at clearacne limit on the ___ track - Maintain ___ - Request __
Inbound Maintain current altitude Request furhter clearance
44
Off Airways: DMR 2, 3, 4 =1,500ft above highet abstacle within ___ NM DMR 1, 5 = 2,00ft within __ NM
5 NM
45
All MSA's are given ____ ft obstacle clearance All AMA in DMRs are given ___ ft clearance
MSA - 1,000ft AMA - 2,000ft
46
ATC will use altitude readout Mode C if verified within __ ft Mode C transponders are tested every_____
200 ft 2 years
47
1,000ft on top: Required if: - Flown __ ft above cloud/haze/smoke - Flight visibility of __ SM or more - Top of formation = well defined - Authorized by ATC - Class C, D, E, Seperation is ___ responsibilty
1,000ft 3 SM + PIC
48
Contact App: - Instrument Approach must be operational - ____flight vis - ___ ft above highest obstacle within ___ until req. visual ref obtained - Clear of cloud - Noise abatement - ATC Clearance
1 NM Flight Vis 1,000ft 5 NM
49
Circling approach published when final approach track intersects extended runway centerline by more than ___ degrees
30 Degrees
50
___ ft obstacle clearance for circling minima. Radius of protected area? A B C D
300 ft clearance A - 1.3 NM B - 1.5 C - 1.7 D - 2.3
51
Obstacle Clearance During App: - Inital approach segment - Intermediate - Final Approach - Circling - Transition
Initial - 1,000ft Intermediate - 500ft Final - variable Circling - 300
52
1,500ft clearance applies to - _____ - _____ 2,000ft clearance applies to - _____ - _____ -_____
1,500ft DMR 2, 3, 4 - Airways/ Air routes - Safe altitude 100 NM 2,000ft DMR 1, 5 - Airways / air routes - Safe altitude 100 NM - AMA
53
When is a lead radial published on an approach chart?
When a turn more than 90 degrees is required
54
Shuttle climb at ____ max. Hold and Descents speeds: 0-6,000ft - _____ 6,000 - 14,000ft ______ 14,000ft +__________
310 kts 200 KIAS 230 KIAS 265 KIAS
55
Optimum distance for FAF: - Canada ____ - ICAO_____ Min - Max ___ ____
Canada - 4 NM ICAO - 5 NM Min 3 NM Max 10 NM
56
RAIM: Enroute - Terminal - Approach (After FAF) -
Enroute - 2 NM Terminal - 1 NM Approach - 0.3 NM
57
CDI Sensitivity: Enroute - Terminal - Approach (After the FAF) -
Enroute - 5 NM Terminal - 1 NM Approach - 0.3 NM
58
2 or more satellites predicted INOP - Prediction indicates RAIM is unavailable for ___ mins or less during the ETA +/- ___ min, RAIM availablilty is satisfied
- 15 min - 60 min
59
ATC can protect the MEA until: - Arrival report filed - Up to ___ to allow descent to MOCA - Aircraft ETA + ___ if no further communications recieved
30 mins 30 mins
60
LPV Approach: Width at threshold____ Width at FAF_____ (Same for LNAV/VNAV)
Threshold - 700ft FAF - 0.6 NM
61
Cold Temp Calculations: - Start at and below ___ degrees C - when MDA/DA is ___ ft or higher, cold temp starts at ____ degrees C
0 degrees C 1,000ft or higher 10 degrees C
62
Round up to the nearest ___ ft for MDA/DA Round up to nearest ___ ft for all other procedure alttitudes
10 ft 100 ft
63
Abnormally High Altimeter Setting: When below ____ ft ASL, Set 31.00Hg - Increase ceiling minimum by ___ ft for every ___ of Hg - Increase visibility minima by ___ SM for every __ of Hg
Below 18,000ft 100ft for every 10th of Hg 1/4 SM for every 10th of Hg
64
If a NAVAID frequency is underlined...
No ATS communication or frequency
65
Will voice be transmitted over a TACAN and/or DME channels?
No voice just DME???
66
Difference between: L601 and T781?
Low Level: L601 - Uncontrolled RNAV T781 - Controlled RNAV
67
On a LO chart, the white crossed lines mean____ the shaded green area means ____
White lines mean transition area Green shaded areas is uncontrolled or Controlled airspace above 12,500 ASL in Canada
68
Difference between approach plate title/header - RNAV (GNSS) RWY01 - RWY (GNSS) VOR/DME
- RNAV (GNSS) RWY01 - normal GNSS approach - RWY (GNSS) VOR/DME - GNSS Overlay
69
How many satellites required for? - 3D position - RAIM - RAIM + FDE ( Fault Detection Error)
3D - 4 RAIM - 5 RAIM + FDE - 6
70
If your aircraft is equipped with TSO C145a/C146a avionics, what approaches can you fly?
LPV LNAV/VNAV LNAV
71
To fly down to LNAV/VNAV minimas, you need?
WAAS or GPS + baro- nav TSO C145a/C146a or C115a
72
NDB Flight Checked for Accuracy: +/- ___ degrees enroute +/- ___ degrees approach
+/- 10 degrees enroute +/- 5 degrees approach
73
Procedure Turn Protection: Primary Area ____ ft clearance Secondary Area ____ ft clearance
Primary 1,000ft Secondary 500ft
74
Localizer Frequency Range Glideslope Frequency Range
LOC - 108.1 to 111.95 GS - 329.3 to 335
75
When tuned unto the LOC, how many degrees does each dot represent?
0.5 degrees
76
LOC Angular Width GS Beam Angle
LOC 3- 6 (typically 5) degrees Glideslope 3 degrees
77
Frequency Modulaiton LOC - Lateral GS - Vertical
LOC - 90 Hz & 150 Hz GS - 90 Hz & 150 Hz
78
Localizer: Within ___NM, ___ degress on each side Within ___ NM, ___ degrees on each side LOC is offset ___ ft behind departure end
10 NM - 35 degrees 18 NM - 10 degrees 1,000 ft
79
Glide Slope: Placed ___ ft after the threshold, ____ft from centerline. Threshold crossing height is ___ ft
1,000 ft after threshold 400 ft from centerline 50 ft
80
VOR Accuracy Check: Ground: 2 VOR's tuned in max ___ degrees difference Ground: VOR - VOR checkpoint max___ degrees diff max ___ DME Air: VOR - known landmark max +/- ____ degrees
Ground: 4 degrees 0.5 DME Air: 6 degrees
81
CDI Each dot is ___ degrees Total of ___ degrees per side
2 degrees per side 10 degrees total
82
VOR Frequencies _____ - _____ MHz 108.0-112.0 - Shared with ILS 108.odd = _____ 108.even = ____
112.0 - 117.95 MHz 108.0-112.0 - Shared with ILS 108.odd = ILS 108.even = VOR
83
Difference between prevailing winds and gusts: METAR____ kts TAF ___ kts GFA___kts GFA Gusts ___kts
5kts METAR 10kts TAF 20kts GFA +30kts GFA gusts
84
Max Visibility: METAR - TAF - AWOS - GFA -
METAR - 15 SM TAF - P6 SM AWOS - 9 SM GFA - P6 SM
85
Which GPS TSO uses RAIM?
TSCO C129/129a
86
Where a satelitte-based approach is planned at both the destination and the alternate, aerodromes must be serparated by: _____ 56 degrees north lattitude in Quebec and Labrador & ____ anywhere else in Canada
75 NM in Quebec etc and 100 NM everywhere else
87
RNP Approach requirments
1. no credit can be taken for LPV or LP lines of minima 2. Credit may be takn for LNAV/VNAV only if certified for barometric LNAV/VNAV 3. Credit may be taken for LNAV lines of minima
88
Weather Requirements using GFA:
1. No cloud lower than 1000ft above lowest HAT/HAA 2. No CB's 3. Vis 3 SM or more
89
What is the serparation from surface to FL290 & FL290 to FL410?
Surface to FL290: - 1000ft vertical separation FL290 to FL410: - 2000ft vertical separation
90
Altimeter Setting & Lowest FL 29.92 or higher 29.91 to 28.82 28.91-27.92
FL180 FL 190 FL 200
91
Minimum IFR Altitudes - 1000ft is applicable to:
1. Airways and air routes 2. Safe Altitudes 100 NM 3. All MSA (regardless of mountainous region) 4. Instrument Approach Transitions ( regardless of mountainous region)
92
Minimum IFR Altitudes - 15000ft
1. 5 NM for mountainous regions 2,3, &4 2. Airways and air routes in those regions 3. Safe altitude 100 NM in those regions
93
Minimum IFR Altitude- 2000ft
1. 5 NM for mountainous regions 1 and 5 2. Airways and airroutes on those regions 3. 100 NM safe altitudes in those regions 4. AMA within those regions
94
What is the difference between DA and MDA?
DA is a specific altitude used for precision approaches or an approach with vertical guidance upon which a missed approach would be conducted MDA is an altitude used for non-precison approaches of which descent should not be made until visual reference to the ground is made
95
Cold Weather calculations MDA/DA below and above 1,000 ft
Below: round up to 100 ft Above: round up to 10 ft
96
Which altitudes do not require cold weather calculations:
1. IFR assigned altitudes by ATC 2. Vectoring altitudes by ATC
97
Altitudes that require cold weather corrections:
1. MSA 2. Intial segment 3. Intermediate Segment 4. Final segment 5. MDA/DA 6. Missed approach segment
98
What is Class A airspace?
Controlled IFR airspace that requires Mode C transponder and is from the base of all high level controlled airspace up to and including FL600
99
What is Class B airspace?
Controlled IFR or VFR (requires clearance) airspace which requires a Mode C transponder. Is all low-level controlled airspace above 12,500 ASL or at & above the MEA (whichever is higher) up to but not including 18,000 ft ASL
100
What is Class C airspace?
Controlled IFR or VFR (Requires clearance) Mode C transponder airspace. Terminal Control areas and control zones.
101
What is Class D airspace?
Controlled IFR or VFR ( requires two-way communication) airspace. May require Mode C transponder if specified and is any and all Terminal Control areas and control zones
102
What is Class E airspace?
Controlled IFR and VFR airspace. May require Mode C transponder if specified. Low level airways, control area extensions, transition areas or control zones without an operating tower
103
What is Class F airspace?
Can be controlled or uncontrolled. IFR or VFR. May require Mode C transponder if specified. Areas across Canada within which activities must be confined and have their own limitations
104
What is Class G airspace?
Uncontrolled IFR or VFR airspace. No Mode C required. All airspace that has NOT been designated as Class A, B, C, D, E or F. Includes all airspace above FL 600.
105
What is a DME arc and what does it do?
1. Provide 1000ft obstacle clearance 2. Can be joined anywhere on the arc 3. Provieds a transition to the indermediate fix
106
What can an RMI show?
It can show both VOR and NDB (LF and VHF)
107

INRAT (3 decks)

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