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INRAT > INRAT > Flashcards

INRAT Flashcards

1
Q

One year requirements for Instrument Rating

A

6 - Hours flying/sim
6 - Approacches to minimum
Every 6 months

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2
Q

Class A airspace in:
Southern Control Area
Northern Control Area
Arctic Control Area

A

SCA - 18,000 to FL600
NCA - FL 230 to FL600
ACA - FL 270 to FL600

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3
Q

RVR reported only when visibilty is ___ SM less than
Based on ___ min average

A

1 SM
10 min avg

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4
Q

RVR measured along the first ____of the runway or ___ ft.
R19/6000/U =
D =
N =

A

1/3 or 3,000ft
Upward
Downward
No change

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5
Q

Ground visibilty = RVR:
1 SM =
3/4 SM =
1/2 SM =
1/4 SM =
1/8 SM =

A

1 SM = 5,00ft
3/4 SM = 4,000ft
1/2 SM = 2,600ft
1/4 SM = 1,200ft
1/8 SM = 600ft

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6
Q

Compass swing every ___
Pitot Static check every ____
For IFR the altimeter must be accurate +/- ___ft

A

Compass - 1 year
Pitot Static - 2 years
Altimeter - 50 ft

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7
Q

Convert T to M

Variation 10 W =
Variation 20 E =

A

W = Add
E = Subtract

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8
Q

U A
N N
O D
S S

A

Turning to N - must undershoot
Turning to S - must overshoot

Flying E or W:
Accelerate - Compass points North
Decelerate - Compass points South

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9
Q

Angle of bank

A

(TAS/10) + 7(kts) (+5 mph)

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10
Q

Alt Minima:
2 or more usable PA
1 usable PA
NPA only
No IFR App

A

2+ = 400 - 1 or 200 - 1/2
1 = 600 - 2 or 300 - 1
NPA = 800 -2 or 300 -1
No App = 500 ft above the lowest IFR minima

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11
Q

Alt Minima:
Max calculated visibilty is___SM
LNAV - TSO_____
LNAV/VNAV - TSO____
LPV - TSO

A

3SM
LNAV = TSO 129
LNAV/VNAV = 145/146
LPV = 145/146

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12
Q

Sliding Scale:
600 - 2 =
800 -2 =
Only to be used if Aerodrome has ___

A

600 - 2: 700 -1 1/2 or 800 - 1
800 -2: 900 - 1 1/2 or 1,000 - 1
TAF

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13
Q

If no TAF, aerodrome can be used as ALT if:
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. 3 SM
  2. No CB’s
  3. Ceiling min 1,000 ft above HAT
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14
Q

GPS Alternates:
Aerodromes must be seperated by
- ____ NM if both in ___
- North of ___ degrees in ___and ___
- Minimum ___ NM anywhere else

A

75 NM in NU
56 degrees in QC and LAbrador
100 NM everywhere else

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15
Q

Aircraft Categories:
A V____? (TAS/IAS/CAS?)
B
C
D
E

A

A - 90 Vref and IAS
B - 91 to 120
C - 121 to 140
D - 140 to 165
E - 165 +

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16
Q

APP Ban:
RVR A only =
RVR A and B =
RVR B only =

A

A only = 1,200
A/B = 1,200 & 600
B only = 1,200

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17
Q

You can ignore App Ban minima if:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

A
  1. Past the FAF
  2. Training flight
  3. RVR fluctuating +/-
  4. RVR below, but ground vis is 1/4 SM
  5. No RVR
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18
Q

LVOP/RVOP:
RVOP RVR?
LVOP RVR?

A

RVOP - 2600 - 1200
LVOP - 1200 - 600

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19
Q

Obstacle Clearence Req:
Take - Off:
___ ft Vertically
___ ft Horizontally (Inside AD)
___ ft Horizontally (Outside AD)

A

35 ft
200 ft
300 ft

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20
Q

Obstacle Clearence Req (MOCA):
EnRoute
___ ft above highest obstacle within ___NM
1,500ft for DMR ____
2,000 ft for DMR ____

A

1,000ft - 5 NM
1,500ft - DMR 2,3,4
2000ft - DMR 1,5

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21
Q

CYA XXX(XX)
P
F
M
A
T
H
S

A

Paragliding
Flight test area
Military
Acrobatic
Training
Hangliding
Soaring

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22
Q

CYA Provinces:
100 700
200 800
300 900
400
500
600

A

100 - BC 700 - NB, NS, PEI, NL
200 - AB 800 - YT
300 - SK 900 - NWT
400 - MB
500 - ON
600 - QA

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23
Q

Low - Level Controlled Airspace:
____ft AGL to 18,000ft
Terminal Control Area Base:
45 NM____AGL
35 NM____AGL
12 NM ___AGL

A

2,200ft AGL
45 NM - 9,500ft AGL
35 NM - 2,200ft AGL
12 NM - 1,200ft AGL

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24
Q

Dimensions:
VOR - VOR =
VOR - NDB =
RNAV Routes =

A

VOR - VOR = 4.5 degrees, 4 NM, 50.8 NM
NDB - NDB = 5 degrees, 4.34 NM, 49.66 NM
RNAV = 10 NM per side
* MOCA only protects 6NM on each side

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25
Q

Transponder Code:
___ Below __ ft ASL
___ Above ___ ft SL

A

1000 below 18,000ft ASL
2000 above 18,000ft ASL

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26
Q

Aerdrome with ATC tower (vis):
Arr + Dep
1.
2.
3.
4.

A
  1. RVR intended runway
  2. Ground Visibilty
  3. Tower Visibility
  4. Pilot Vis
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27
Q

No control tower
Arr Dep
1. 1.
2. 2.
3. 3.

A

Arr: Dep:
1. RVR- intended 1. Ground Vis
2. Ground Vis 2. RVR of any runway
3. Pilot Vis 3. Pilot Vis

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28
Q

Define local Phenomena
If ____ is less than ___
Aerodrome with active ATC tower:
1.
2.
3.

A

If RVR is less than ground visibility

  1. RVR of intended runway
  2. Ground Vis
  3. Pilot Vis
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29
Q

Min DH + Visibility
HIAL OP
HIAL INOP

A

OP - 200ft + 1/2 SM/RVR 2,600
INOP - 250ft + 1 SM/ RVR 5,000

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30
Q

EWH - PAPI
P1.
P2.
P3.

A

P1. 0 - 10
P2. 10 - 25
P3. 25 +

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31
Q

IFR Cruising Altitudes:
0 - 179 Degrees
180- 359 Degrees

A

West - Even
East - Odds

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32
Q

Must notify ATC when, in controlled airspace:
___ % or more change in TAS

__ mach more than mach cruise

A

5% in TAS
0.01 mach

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33
Q

Fuel Requirement:
Prop?
Jet?

A

Prop - 45 min
Jet - 30 min

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34
Q

Wake Turbulence Category:
L
M
H

A

Light - 7,000kg or less
Medium - 7,000 to 136,000kg
Heavy - 136,000kg +

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35
Q

AMA - Area Min Alttitude
Northern Airspace ____Lat x ____Long
Southern Airspace
Provides ___ft clearance

A

N - 2x8
S - 2x4
1,000ft

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36
Q

Minimum Visibilty for take-off on “Not assessed” runway?

A

1/2 SM

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37
Q

Non - Radar Departure
___ min if taking off into wake of heavy
- t/o from same threshold
___ min taking off after heavy but start rolling further down the runway than heavy

A

2 min
3 min
No spacing for light behind a medium only advisory

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38
Q

Comply with ATC unless:
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. TCAS
  2. Obstacle Avoidance
  3. WS Alert
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39
Q

How long is an altimeter setting valid for?

A

90 min

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40
Q

Standard Pressure Region:
If holding, when should you set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting?

A

Just before descent below the lowest FL at which the hold is at

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41
Q

Vertical Separation:
If local altimeter is…
FL180 -
FL 190
FL 200

A

FL 180 - 29.92+
FL190 - 29.91 to 28.92
FL200- 28.91 to 27.92

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42
Q

Required to notify ATC if ETA to next point is in error of ___ Min

A

3 min

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43
Q

If clearance not recieved prior to arriving out the clearance limit:
- Hold at clearacne limit on the ___ track
- Maintain ___
- Request __

A

Inbound
Maintain current altitude
Request furhter clearance

44
Q

Off Airways:
DMR 2, 3, 4 =1,500ft above highet abstacle within ___ NM
DMR 1, 5 = 2,00ft within __ NM

A

5 NM

45
Q

All MSA’s are given ____ ft obstacle clearance

All AMA in DMRs are given ___ ft clearance

A

MSA - 1,000ft
AMA - 2,000ft

46
Q

ATC will use altitude readout Mode C if verified within __ ft
Mode C transponders are tested every_____

A

200 ft
2 years

47
Q

1,000ft on top:
Required if:
- Flown __ ft above cloud/haze/smoke
- Flight visibility of __ SM or more
- Top of formation = well defined
- Authorized by ATC
- Class C, D, E, Seperation is ___ responsibilty

A

1,000ft
3 SM +
PIC

48
Q

Contact App:
- Instrument Approach must be operational
- ____flight vis
- ___ ft above highest obstacle within ___ until req. visual ref obtained
- Clear of cloud
- Noise abatement
- ATC Clearance

A

1 NM Flight Vis
1,000ft
5 NM

49
Q

Circling approach published when final approach track intersects extended runway centerline by more than ___ degrees

A

30 Degrees

50
Q

___ ft obstacle clearance for circling minima.
Radius of protected area?
A
B
C
D

A

300 ft clearance
A - 1.3 NM
B - 1.5
C - 1.7
D - 2.3

51
Q

Obstacle Clearance During App:
- Inital approach segment
- Intermediate
- Final Approach
- Circling
- Transition

A

Initial - 1,000ft
Intermediate - 500ft
Final - variable
Circling - 300

52
Q

1,500ft clearance applies to
- _____
- _____
2,000ft clearance applies to
- _____
- _____
-_____

A

1,500ft DMR 2, 3, 4 - Airways/ Air routes
- Safe altitude 100 NM

2,000ft DMR 1, 5 - Airways / air routes
- Safe altitude 100 NM
- AMA

53
Q

When is a lead radial published on an approach chart?

A

When a turn more than 90 degrees is required

54
Q

Shuttle climb at ____ max.
Hold and Descents speeds:
0-6,000ft - _____
6,000 - 14,000ft ______
14,000ft +__________

A

310 kts

200 KIAS
230 KIAS
265 KIAS

55
Q

Optimum distance for FAF:
- Canada ____
- ICAO_____
Min - Max
___ ____

A

Canada - 4 NM
ICAO - 5 NM
Min 3 NM
Max 10 NM

56
Q

RAIM:
Enroute -
Terminal -
Approach (After FAF) -

A

Enroute - 2 NM
Terminal - 1 NM
Approach - 0.3 NM

57
Q

CDI Sensitivity:
Enroute -
Terminal -
Approach (After the FAF) -

A

Enroute - 5 NM
Terminal - 1 NM
Approach - 0.3 NM

58
Q

2 or more satellites predicted INOP
- Prediction indicates RAIM is unavailable
for ___ mins or less during the ETA +/- ___ min, RAIM availablilty is satisfied

A
  • 15 min
  • 60 min
59
Q

ATC can protect the MEA until:
- Arrival report filed
- Up to ___ to allow descent to MOCA
- Aircraft ETA + ___ if no further communications recieved

A

30 mins
30 mins

60
Q

LPV Approach:
Width at threshold____
Width at FAF_____
(Same for LNAV/VNAV)

A

Threshold - 700ft
FAF - 0.6 NM

61
Q

Cold Temp Calculations:
- Start at and below ___ degrees C
- when MDA/DA is ___ ft or higher, cold temp starts at ____ degrees C

A

0 degrees C
1,000ft or higher
10 degrees C

62
Q

Round up to the nearest ___ ft for MDA/DA
Round up to nearest ___ ft for all other procedure alttitudes

A

10 ft
100 ft

63
Q

Abnormally High Altimeter Setting:
When below ____ ft ASL, Set 31.00Hg
- Increase ceiling minimum by ___ ft for every ___ of Hg
- Increase visibility minima by ___ SM for every __ of Hg

A

Below 18,000ft
100ft for every 10th of Hg
1/4 SM for every 10th of Hg

64
Q

If a NAVAID frequency is underlined…

A

No ATS communication or frequency

65
Q

Will voice be transmitted over a TACAN and/or DME channels?

A

No voice just DME???

66
Q

Difference between:
L601 and T781?

A

Low Level:
L601 - Uncontrolled RNAV
T781 - Controlled RNAV

67
Q

On a LO chart, the white crossed lines mean____
the shaded green area means ____

A

White lines mean transition area
Green shaded areas is uncontrolled
or
Controlled airspace above 12,500 ASL in Canada

68
Q

Difference between approach plate title/header
- RNAV (GNSS) RWY01
- RWY (GNSS) VOR/DME

A
  • RNAV (GNSS) RWY01 - normal GNSS approach
  • RWY (GNSS) VOR/DME - GNSS Overlay
69
Q

How many satellites required for?
- 3D position
- RAIM
- RAIM + FDE ( Fault Detection Error)

A

3D - 4
RAIM - 5
RAIM + FDE - 6

70
Q

If your aircraft is equipped with TSO C145a/C146a avionics, what approaches can you fly?

A

LPV
LNAV/VNAV
LNAV

71
Q

To fly down to LNAV/VNAV minimas, you need?

A

WAAS or GPS + baro- nav
TSO C145a/C146a or C115a

72
Q

NDB Flight Checked for Accuracy:
+/- ___ degrees enroute
+/- ___ degrees approach

A

+/- 10 degrees enroute
+/- 5 degrees approach

73
Q

Procedure Turn Protection:
Primary Area ____ ft clearance
Secondary Area ____ ft clearance

A

Primary 1,000ft
Secondary 500ft

74
Q

Localizer Frequency Range
Glideslope Frequency Range

A

LOC - 108.1 to 111.95
GS - 329.3 to 335

75
Q

When tuned unto the LOC, how many degrees does each dot represent?

A

0.5 degrees

76
Q

LOC Angular Width
GS Beam Angle

A

LOC 3- 6 (typically 5) degrees
Glideslope 3 degrees

77
Q

Frequency Modulaiton
LOC - Lateral
GS - Vertical

A

LOC - 90 Hz & 150 Hz
GS - 90 Hz & 150 Hz

78
Q

Localizer:
Within ___NM, ___ degress on each side
Within ___ NM, ___ degrees on each side
LOC is offset ___ ft behind departure end

A

10 NM - 35 degrees
18 NM - 10 degrees
1,000 ft

79
Q

Glide Slope:
Placed ___ ft after the threshold, ____ft from centerline.
Threshold crossing height is ___ ft

A

1,000 ft after threshold
400 ft from centerline
50 ft

80
Q

VOR Accuracy Check:
Ground: 2 VOR’s tuned in max ___ degrees difference
Ground: VOR - VOR checkpoint max___ degrees diff
max ___ DME
Air: VOR - known landmark max +/- ____ degrees

A

Ground: 4 degrees
0.5 DME
Air: 6 degrees

81
Q

CDI
Each dot is ___ degrees
Total of ___ degrees per side

A

2 degrees per side
10 degrees total

82
Q

VOR Frequencies
_____ - _____ MHz
108.0-112.0 - Shared with ILS
108.odd = _____
108.even = ____

A

112.0 - 117.95 MHz
108.0-112.0 - Shared with ILS
108.odd = ILS
108.even = VOR

83
Q

Difference between prevailing winds and gusts:
METAR____ kts
TAF ___ kts
GFA___kts
GFA Gusts ___kts

A

5kts METAR
10kts TAF
20kts GFA
+30kts GFA gusts

84
Q

Max Visibility:
METAR -
TAF -
AWOS -
GFA -

A

METAR - 15 SM
TAF - P6 SM
AWOS - 9 SM
GFA - P6 SM

85
Q

Which GPS TSO uses RAIM?

A

TSCO C129/129a

86
Q

Where a satelitte-based approach is planned at both the destination and the alternate, aerodromes must be serparated by:
_____ 56 degrees north lattitude in Quebec and Labrador & ____ anywhere else in Canada

A

75 NM in Quebec etc and 100 NM everywhere else

87
Q

RNP Approach requirments

A
  1. no credit can be taken for LPV or LP lines of minima
  2. Credit may be takn for LNAV/VNAV only if certified for barometric LNAV/VNAV
  3. Credit may be taken for LNAV lines of minima
88
Q

Weather Requirements using GFA:

A
  1. No cloud lower than 1000ft above lowest HAT/HAA
  2. No CB’s
  3. Vis 3 SM or more
89
Q

What is the serparation from surface to FL290 & FL290 to FL410?

A

Surface to FL290:
- 1000ft vertical separation

FL290 to FL410:
- 2000ft vertical separation

90
Q

Altimeter Setting & Lowest FL
29.92 or higher
29.91 to 28.82
28.91-27.92

A

FL180
FL 190
FL 200

91
Q

Minimum IFR Altitudes - 1000ft is applicable to:

A
  1. Airways and air routes
  2. Safe Altitudes 100 NM
  3. All MSA (regardless of mountainous region)
  4. Instrument Approach Transitions ( regardless of mountainous region)
92
Q

Minimum IFR Altitudes - 15000ft

A
  1. 5 NM for mountainous regions 2,3, &4
  2. Airways and air routes in those regions
  3. Safe altitude 100 NM in those regions
93
Q

Minimum IFR Altitude- 2000ft

A
  1. 5 NM for mountainous regions 1 and 5
  2. Airways and airroutes on those regions
  3. 100 NM safe altitudes in those regions
  4. AMA within those regions
94
Q

What is the difference between DA and MDA?

A

DA is a specific altitude used for precision approaches or an approach with vertical guidance upon which a missed approach would be conducted

MDA is an altitude used for non-precison approaches of which descent should not be made until visual reference to the ground is made

95
Q

Cold Weather calculations MDA/DA below and above 1,000 ft

A

Below: round up to 100 ft
Above: round up to 10 ft

96
Q

Which altitudes do not require cold weather calculations:

A
  1. IFR assigned altitudes by ATC
  2. Vectoring altitudes by ATC
97
Q

Altitudes that require cold weather corrections:

A
  1. MSA
  2. Intial segment
  3. Intermediate Segment
  4. Final segment
  5. MDA/DA
  6. Missed approach segment
98
Q

What is Class A airspace?

A

Controlled IFR airspace that requires Mode C transponder and is from the base of all high level controlled airspace up to and including FL600

99
Q

What is Class B airspace?

A

Controlled IFR or VFR (requires clearance) airspace which requires a Mode C transponder. Is all low-level controlled airspace above 12,500 ASL or at & above the MEA (whichever is higher) up to but not including 18,000 ft ASL

100
Q

What is Class C airspace?

A

Controlled IFR or VFR (Requires clearance) Mode C transponder airspace. Terminal Control areas and control zones.

101
Q

What is Class D airspace?

A

Controlled IFR or VFR ( requires two-way communication) airspace. May require Mode C transponder if specified and is any and all Terminal Control areas and control zones

102
Q

What is Class E airspace?

A

Controlled IFR and VFR airspace. May require Mode C transponder if specified. Low level airways, control area extensions, transition areas or control zones without an operating tower

103
Q

What is Class F airspace?

A

Can be controlled or uncontrolled. IFR or VFR. May require Mode C transponder if specified. Areas across Canada within which activities must be confined and have their own limitations

104
Q

What is Class G airspace?

A

Uncontrolled IFR or VFR airspace. No Mode C required. All airspace that has NOT been designated as Class A, B, C, D, E or F. Includes all airspace above FL 600.

105
Q

What is a DME arc and what does it do?

A
  1. Provide 1000ft obstacle clearance
  2. Can be joined anywhere on the arc
  3. Provieds a transition to the indermediate fix
106
Q

What can an RMI show?

A

It can show both VOR and NDB (LF and VHF)

107
Q
A

INRAT (3 decks)

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