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Immunology Block > innate > Flashcards

innate Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 main categories of microbial virulence factors?

A
  1. Structures involved in attachment, adherence, and invasion
  2. Toxins involved in cell or tissue damage
  3. Processes involved in immune avoidance
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2
Q

What is difference between chemokines and cytokines?

A

Cytokines are intracellular mediators, chemokines are chemo-attractant molecules

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3
Q

Associated with hypersensitivity and release histamine

A

Basophil

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4
Q

What organs are part secondary immune tissue?

A

Spleen, Lymph nodes, and MALT

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5
Q

The spleen is located:

A

upper left quadrant of abdoment, under diaphragm

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6
Q

What is the difference between endotoxins and exotoxins of bacteria?

A

Exotoxins- LPS or LOS in gram negative

Endotoxins- secreted toxins by gram positive or negative (not encoded in chromosome)

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7
Q

What are the 5 major lymphnode groups and the area of the body that they drain?

A
  1. Cervical- Scalp, face, nasal cavity, pharynx
  2. Axillary- Arm, chest wall, breast
  3. Inguinal- Genitalia, buttock, anus, abdominal wall, leg
  4. Mediastinal- Mid-chest, upper abdomen, lungs
  5. Mesenteric- Small and Large intestine, upper rectum
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8
Q

What is the significance of pnumonia in acute inflammation?

A

Pneumonia is inflammation where acute reaction is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality

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9
Q

What do you call lymphadenopathy with an active infection causing pain?

A

Lymphadenitis

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10
Q

What is an important bacteria for the nose?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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11
Q

IL-12 functions

A

Ifng production, increased cytotoxicity (NK and T cells)

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12
Q

What are the structures of immune avoidance by microbial pathogens?

A
  • Polysaccharide capsules
  • Antigens that induce blocking antibodies
  • Molecules inactivate antibodies
  • Molecules mimic host structures
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13
Q

IL-6 functions

A

Synthesis of APRs (liver) and proliferation of antibody producing cells (B-cells)

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14
Q

What are the 3 main functions of the complement system?

A
  • Oposonization (helps with phagocytosis)
  • Inflammation _(_acute and dilate blood vessels)
  • Lysis (generate proteins for lysis)
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15
Q

What are the processes of immune avoidance by microbial pathogens?

A
  • Antigen variation
  • Avoiding immune surveillance
  • Supressing immune responses
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16
Q

What are the 5 stages in biofilm formation?

A

1) Reversible attachment 2) Irreversible attachment 3) Polysaccharide production 4) Growth and formation of 3D structure 5) Dispersal

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17
Q

What organs are part primary immune tissue?

A

Bone Marrow and Thymus

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18
Q

Endocrine

A

Acts a distance to stimulate cells

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19
Q

What is DAF and what disorder is associated with its deficiency?

A

Decay-accelerating Factor helps down regulate C3 convertase (prevents attack of the self). Deficiency causes paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)- RBC lysis due to uncontrolled complement activation

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20
Q

What parts of the body drain into the left subclavien vein?

A

The entire lower body and left upper body

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21
Q

Which innate immune cell has oxidative burst?

A

Neutrophil (PMN)

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22
Q

Are catalase positive or catalase negative bacteria more dangerous to person with GCD?

A

Catalase Positive (can break down H2O2)

Catalase Negative cells still produce H2O2, but this activates the phagocytic cell to produce toxic substances that can kill the bacteria

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23
Q

What is the side of hematopoiesis and B-cell maturation?

A

Bone Marrow

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24
Q

How many lymph nodes are in the body?

A

500-600

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25
Q

What are the main components of the final phase of the complement system- formation of MAC?

A

C5b-C9 form the polymeric complex that creates perforations in cellular membranes of pathogens.

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26
Q

What are 3 useful diagnostic measures of the complement systems activity?

A

AH50- Alternative Pathway

MBL- Lectin Pathway

CH50 - Classic Pathway

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27
Q

Autocrine

A

Acts on the same cell that secretes it

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28
Q

What is the difference between red and white pulp of the spleen?

A

White- contain lymphocytes Red- RBC breakdown

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29
Q

What are the antimicrobial drugs that interfere with DNA?

A
  • Quinolones/Fluoroquinolones
  • Rifamycins
  • Nitroimidazoles
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30
Q

IL-1 functions

A

Activation of inflammation and coagulation (endothelial), fever (hypothalamus), induce chemokine secretion to recruit WBCs

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31
Q

Which antibiotic drug should be reserved until the only option, due to disabling side effects in patients?

A

Ciproflaxcin (flouroquinolone)

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32
Q

What is the JAK-STAT Pathway?

A

A major immune regulation pathway

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33
Q

Major pro-inflammatory cytokines

A

TNF-alpha, IL1, IL6

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34
Q

What are the 3 main host barriers?

A

Anatomic, physiologic, and microbiological

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35
Q

Lymphadenopathy

A

enlargement of one or more lymph nodes

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36
Q

Which characteristics help with biofilm?

A

LPS, polysaccharide capsule, Exopolysaccharides

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37
Q

What is the difference between granulation tissue and granulomatous inflammation?

A
  • Granulation Tissue (acute) and involved in tissue repair with increased vasculature
  • Granulomatous inflammation (chronic) and cannot defeat the infection, the monocytes wall of inflmmation which forms granulomas.
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38
Q

What are the 4 TLRs located in the endosome?

A
  • TLR3: viral dsRNA
  • TLR7: viral ssRNA
  • TLR8: viral ssRNA
  • TLR9: unmethylated CpG DNA
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39
Q

What is lymphangitis?

A

inflammation or infection of lymph vessels

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40
Q

What is the main opsonization protein of the complement system?

A

C3b

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41
Q

What is Hot T-bone stEAK?

A
  • IL1- fever (hot)
  • IL2- stimulates T cells
  • IL3- stimulates bone marrow
  • IL4- stimulates IgE production
  • IL5- stimulates IgA production
  • IL6- Stimulates aKute phase protein production
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42
Q

What is the toxic moeity that all LPS endotoxins have?

A

Lipid A, a potent stimulator of innate immune responses (septic shock)

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43
Q

The _____ produces more antibodies than all other tissues together

A

MALT

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44
Q

What is an Nitro Tetrazolium Blue (NBT) test?

A

Measures oxidative burst activity of neutrophils to see if they are capable of phagocytosis.

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45
Q

This organ is the site of T-cell maturation and selection

A

Thymus

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46
Q

What is Nitroimidazoles MoA?

A

Activated drug forms toxic free radicals that damage DNA (very useful against anaerobic microbes)

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47
Q

What is the differenc between fibrinous exudate and fibrosis?

A
  • Fibrinous Exudate (acute) characterized by fibrin
  • Fibrosis (chronic) characterized by collagen
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48
Q

What disorder is associated with C1, C2, C4 deficiency?

A

Increased risk of immune complex disease, like SLE (lupus) because these are teh starting points of classical pathway

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49
Q

The 3 major antigent presenting cells

A

Macrophage, Dendritic Cells, & Follicular dendritic cells

50
Q

Paracrine

A

Acting on an adjacent or nearby cell

51
Q

What causes Cholera?

A
  • Vibrio cholerae (A+B mediated toxin) Gram Negative Rod
  • One A subunit and 5 B subunits
  • A subunit activates adenylate cyclase; increases cAMP; promotes secretion of electrolytes and fluid by intraepithelial cells
  • Profuse watery diarrhea
52
Q

What are the secreted proteins of the innate immune system?

A

Lysozymes, complement, C-reactive proteins (CRP), and defensins

53
Q

Biofilm bacteria cause ___% of infections

A

80%

54
Q

What are the two antimicrobial drugs that interefere with folate synthesis?

A

Sulfanomides and trimethoprim

55
Q

What are the main causes of chronic inflammation?

A
  • Persistent tissue injury and acute inflammation
  • Microorganisms resistant to phagocytosis or intracellular killing (Mycobacteria, virus, fungi, parasites)
  • Foreign bodies
  • Autoimmune disorders
  • Primary granulomatous diseases
56
Q

Defense against viruses is mediated by

A

NK cells

57
Q

What are sessile bacteria?

A

Bacteria growing in a biofilm

58
Q

In the thymus, cells enter via ____ and leave via ____

A

blood & lymph

59
Q

What are the main causes of Chronic Granulomatous Disease (GCD)?

A

Inherited disorder of phagocytic cells, inability to produce bactericidal superoxide anions. Defect in NADPH oxidase enzyme.

(typically X-linked recessive)

60
Q

Granules contain vasoactive amines like histamine, proteases kill bacteria

A

Mast Cell

61
Q

What is the convergence point of all 3 pathways of the complement system?

A

C3 Convertase (C3 cleavage into C3a and C3b)

C3b goes onto activate C5 convertase

62
Q

What are the 3 pathways of the complement system and their starting factors?

A
  1. Alternative (spontaneous and microbial surfaces)
  2. Lectin (Microbial surfaces, mannose)
  3. Classic (Antigen-antibody complexes)
63
Q

What are the main chemoattractant proteins of the complement system?

A

C3a and C5a (attract neutrophils and monocytes)

64
Q

Which immune organ is the major site of immune response to pathogens?

A

Spleen

65
Q

What is measured to identify acute phase response?

A

APR- acute phase reactants (plasma proteins)

66
Q

What is the arrangment of LPS/LPO on bacteria’s cell membrane?

A
67
Q

True or False: in Latent disease there is no replication

A

False, if viral there is no replication but in bacteria. there needs to be some small amount of replication

68
Q

What causes Anthrax?

A
  • Bacillus Anthracis (A+B mediated toxin) Gram Positive
  • 2 A subunits- Edema Factor (EF) and Lethal Factor (LF)
  • ED activates adenylate cyclase
  • LF cleaves cellular kinases and leads to altered cell signaling and cell death
69
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary lymphedema?

A
  • Filariasis- due to infection by nematode Wuchereia bancrofti, transmitted by mosquitoes.
  • Adult worms reside in lymphatic vessels and nodes, especially in legs; scrotum top site in post-pubertal males.
  • Main goal of treatment is to kill the adult worm
70
Q

What are the products of oxidative burst and their enzymes?

A

Hydrogen Peroxide (Super Oxide Dismutase, SOD)

Hypochlorous Acid “bleach” (myeloperoxidase)

71
Q

What are the two major phyla in human flora?

A

Baceroidetes & Firmicutes

72
Q

What disorder is associated with decreased C3 protein?

A

Increased risk of encaspulated bacteria infection (no opsonization)

73
Q

How do naked viruses and enveloped viruses attach to cell?

A

Naked- attach via capsid proteins, enter via endocytosis

Enveloped- attach via glycoprotein spikes, enter via fusion/endocytosis

74
Q

What is the MoA for Trimethoprim (tmp)?

A

Inhibits DHFR (reducing enzyme that generates THF)

75
Q

What do PRRs do?

A

Pattern Recognition Receptors promote rapid expression of pro-inflammatory cytokines/chemokines (to clear pathogens)

76
Q

What are the main functions of NK cells?

A
  • Use perforin and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected cells and tumor cells
  • Induced to kill when exposed to activation signal or absence of MHC 1 on target cell surface
  • Can also kill via antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (CD16 binds Fc region of Ig)
77
Q

What is the difference between pili and flagella?

A
  • Pili are shorter, thinner, and more numerous (attachment)
  • Flagella are longer, thicker, and fewer in number (locomotion)
78
Q

What are the two mechanisms of vancomycin resistance?

A

Consitutive resistance (VanA locus) and Inducible resistance (VanB locus). Both result from expression of D-Ala, D-Lac in peptide sidechain of PG

79
Q

What is the first lymphoid structure to encounter foreign agents?

A

Lymph Nodes

80
Q

What parts of the body drain into right lymphatic duct and right subclavian vein?

A

Right side of body above the diaphragm

81
Q

Chylothorax

A

accumulation of lymph in the thorax

82
Q

What is C1-INH and what disorder is associated with its deficiency?

A

C1- inhibitor down regulates C1r and C1s (classical pathway). Deficiency causes excessive vasoactive peptides (bradykinins) and hereditary angioedema.

83
Q

Phagocytic cells recognize____ & _____

A

PAMPs and DAMPs

84
Q

What is an important bacteria for the vagina?

A

Lactobacillus species

85
Q

Type of cancer associated with cells of immune system

A

Lymphoma

86
Q

What does MALT stand for?

A

Mucosal-associated Lymphoid Tissue

87
Q

The 3 main phagocytic cells are:

A

Macrophage, Dendritic Cells, and PMNs

88
Q

What is lymphedema?

A

Interstitial collection of lymph due to disruption of flow

89
Q

DAMPs are associated with

A

necrotic cell death

90
Q

What are bacterial pili and their signifcance?

A

Filamentous structures extending from bacterial surface, help with initla adherence to host cells or EC matrix.

Can be multifunctional

91
Q

What causes Pertussis (whooping cough)?

A
  • Bordetella pertussis (A+B mediated toxin) & Gram Negative
  • A subunit activates adenylate cyclase; increases cAMP in neutrophils and macrophages; decreases phagocytosis
92
Q

What is Rifamycins MoA?

A

Binds to bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and prevens mRNA synthesis

93
Q

What are the 5 general steps of the complement system?

A
  1. Initiation of complement activation
  2. C3a: inflammation
  3. C3b: opsonization
  4. C5a: inflammation
  5. Lysis of microbe (MAC)
94
Q

What are the main functions of the lymphatic system?

A

Collect/Drain excess fluid, absorb fat, conduit for immune cells

95
Q

What is the difference between normal antigen presentation and superantigens?

A

Normal Antigens- highly specific and stimulates relatively small number of Tcells

Superantigens- Nonspecific and massive polyclonal expansion of many Tcells (cytokine storm)

96
Q

Dendritic cells are

A

The major antigen-presenting cells

97
Q

Compare Pathogenicity, Virulence, and Infectivity

A
  • Pathogenicity is the organism’s ability to cause disease
  • Virulence is the degree of damage or disease resulting from infection
  • Infectivity is the likelihood of infection/disease with exposure to a particular dose
98
Q

What is the MoA for sulfanomide?

A

Inibits folate precursor synthesis

99
Q

What is biofilm?

A

The adherence of bacteria to eachother and a surface

100
Q

What causes tetanus?

A
  • Clostridium tetani (A+ B mediated toxin) Gram Positive
  • A subunit inhibits gylcine NT release from inhibitory neurons in CNS (paralysis)
101
Q

What are the main causes of acute inflammation?

A
  • Microbial infections
  • Tissue necrosis
  • Physical Agents
  • Chemical irritants
  • Immune-mediated hypersensitivity
102
Q

What are the main vasoactive mediator proteins (anaphylatoxins) of the complement system?

A

C3a, C4a, C5a

103
Q

Which commensal bacteria will take over and become pathogenic when gut bacteria is wiped out?

A

C. difficile

104
Q

What is the chief stimulator of APRs?

A

IL-6

105
Q

Associated with allergic response and parasitic infection

A

Eosinophil

106
Q

What are the important bacteria for the skin?

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

Staphylococcus aureus

Streptococcus pyogenes

107
Q

What disorder is associated with C1-INH deficiency?

A

Increased vasoactive peptides (bradykinins) causes hereditary angiodema

108
Q

What are the 4 TLRs located on the plasma membrane?

A
  • TLR2: Bacterial and parasitic glycolipids and peptidoglycans
  • TLR4: Bacterial LPS
  • TLR5: Bacterial flagellar protein (flagellin)
  • TLR6: Bacterial lipopeptides
109
Q

What is Quinolones MoA?

A

Inhibit DNA gyrase and topoisomerase

110
Q

What are the hallmark components of chronic inflammation?

A
  • Persistent
  • Slow response
  • Cell-mediated immunity
  • Mononuclear cells (lymphocytes, plasma, macrophages)
  • Weeks to years
111
Q

What is an important bacteria for the GI tract?

A

E. coli & clostridium spp.

112
Q

What are the hallmark components of acute inflammation?

A
  • Immediate repsonse
  • Rapid onset
  • Innate immunity
  • Neutrophils
  • Short Duration (hours to weeks)
  • Prominent vascular response
113
Q

What are polysaccharide capsules?

A

Extracellular, attached to G+/- bacteria surface. Avoids phagocytosis and immune recognition. Common in pathogens that can enter CNS

114
Q

What are the 3 main mechanisms of antibiotic resistance?

A
  1. Enzmatically Modify or Inactivate Drug (ex. B-lactamase)
  2. Alter Drug Target (de novo mutation, spread via horizontal exchange)
  3. Alter Drug Exposure (decreased uptake G-, increased efflux)
115
Q

What disorder is associated with deficiency of C5b-C9 proteins?

A

Increased suscepitbility to Neisseria spp. infections (cannot assemble MAC)

116
Q

Tumor Necrosis Factor functions

A

Activate neutrophils, inflammation and cogulation (endothelial), fever (hypothalamus), catabolism (muscle, fat), and apoptosis

117
Q

Which immune cells is derived from monocytes?

A

Macrophage

118
Q

What causes Diptheria?

A
  • Cornybacterium diphtheriae (A+B toxin mediated disease), Gram Positive
  • A subunit inhibits protein synthesis
119
Q

What are planktonic bacteria?

A

Free-floating bacteria

120
Q

Signs of acute inflammation

A
  • Rubor (redness)
  • Tumor (swelling)
  • Calor (heat)
  • Dolor (pain)
  • Functio Laesa (loss of function)

Immunology Block (6 decks)

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