Inherited disease Flashcards

1
Q

Autosomal dominance

Myotonic dystrophy
Huntington disease

A

If parent A has genes 1+2 (1 faulty) and parent B has genes 3+4 (neither faulty) then possible outcomes are 1,3 1,4 2,3 2,4 - the possibilities with a 1 in are affected, thus 50% - in autosomal dominant you only need one faulty gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Autosomal recessive

Sickle cell anaemia
Cystic fibrosis

A

If parent A has genes 1+2 (1 faulty) and parent B has genes 3+4 (4 faulty) then possible outcomes are 1,3 1,4 2,3 2,4 - 2 possibilities will only have 1 faulty gene (carriers), another will have none, but one will have 2 faulty genes and you need 2 in autosomal recessive, thus 25% of passing it on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

X-linked Dominant

Fragile X

A

As in autosomal dominant inheritance, only one copy of a disease allele on the X chromosome is required

Both males and females can be affected, although males may be more severely affected because they only carry one copy of genes found on the X chromosome

When a female is affected there is 1 faulty X chromosome but she must pass on one of her X chromosomes so there is always a 50% chance of passing on to offspring, regardless of sex

When a father is affected there is 1 faulty X chromosome. If they have a girl then he MUST pass on his X chromosome and thus 100% of girls will have dominant disease. but if they have a boy then he MUST have passed on his healthy Y chromosome thus no disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

X-linked recessive

Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Hemophilia A

A

Any male with one faulty X chromosome will be affected as they only carry one X! (acts like dominant)

Carrier mother: 50% chance son will be affected (if he gets the one faulty X from mother)
50% chance daughter will be a carrier too

Affected mother:
100% of sons will be affected.
100% of daughters will be carriers

Affected father:
0% of boys are affected
100% of girls are carriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Penetrance

Expression

A

What proportion of individuals with a gene mutation will manifest disease?

How does the disease express itself?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Karyotype analysis
  2. FISH
  3. Array comparative genomic
    hybridization (arrayCGH)
  4. Multiplex ligation-dependent probe
    amplification (MLPA)
A
  1. Chromosome changes - used for prenatal screening
  2. Specific probes looking for subtle translocations on chromosomes - used in Williams syndrome - replaced by real time PCR whole exome sequencing techniques
  3. Looks for loss and gain of genetic material - detects gene amplification in tumours and leukemia
  4. Variation of PCR - good for prenatal diagnosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Incomplete penetrance

A

When an individual does not express the phenotype even though they carry the allele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Anticipation

A

Increased severity of phenotype when passed onto the next generation (Myotonic Dystrophy / Huntington’s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Heterogeneity

A

One phenotype caused by a variety

of gene mutations (Limb Girdle Muscular Dystrophy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Tall, slim, dilatation of aortic root, ascending aorta aneurysm, lens dislocation = which disease and inheritance

A

Marfan
AD

Most important annual monitoring Ix = ECHO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

AD disease which caused by defect in FGFR3 and is sporadic 80% - Lannister from GoT

A

Achondroplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Edwards 18 (more letters = higher number)

Patau 13

A

Overriding fingers + clenched fist + low set ears + ‘rocker-bottom’ feet

Cleft lip + multiple fingers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Trisomy 21

A

Downs syndrome

Hypotonia, prominent epicathic folds, protruding tongue, Brushfields spots/whitish spots in iris, single transverse palmer crease
ASD, VSD, Fallot tetralogy, duodenal atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

47XXY Klinefelters syndrome
Mechanism
Clinical
Dx

Kallmann: Low GnRH + anosmia

A

Additional X chromosome

Infertility and obesity
Hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism due to loss of testosterone + gynaecomastia

Low testosterone High GnRH
Karyoype test to diagnose

“A young man with learning disabilities is tall with additional secondary sexual characteristics, enlarged breasts and small testicles and penis.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

45X Turner syndrome
Mechanism
Clinical
Dx

A

Missing an X chromosome

Only females
Short statue, broad neck, widely spaced hypoplastic nipples, low posterior hairline, coarctation of the aorta and VSD,

HORSESHOE KIDNEY or unilateral
renal agenesis

OVARIAN AGENESIS/hypoplastic ‘streak’ ovaries
(primary amenorrhoea and infertility)

Karyoype test to diagnose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If its X linked dominant or recessive every ? will be affected as they only have one X

A

Boy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Duchenne Muscular Dytrophy

A

X-linked recessive

Frame-shift mutation > Nonsense mediated decay > ABSENCE of dystrophin = DMD

Gower sign (strange way of standing up), hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, behavioural issues, type 1 resp failure, live til 20s

Electromyography shows weakness is caused by destruction of muscle tissue rather than damage to nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Becker Muscular Dystrophy

A

X-linked recessive

Frame-shift mutation > Shortened dystrophin = BMD

Calf hypertrophy, cardiomyopathy, limb girdle wekness, raised CK, live til 60s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Dystrophinopathy pathophysiology

A

Dystrophin is responsible for connecting the
cytoskeleton of each muscle fiber to the
underlying basal lamina, through the
dystrophin glycoprotein complex.

Affects skeletal and cardiac muscle!

Absence of dystrophin → excess calcium
penetrates the sarcolemma →water enters
the mitochondria causing them to burst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Myotonic dystrophy

Features ANTICIPATION

A

Autosomal dominant

CTG repeat expansion in the DMPK gene
3-37 repeats = normal
50 = cataracts
200 = cataracts, muscle weakness, myotonia
>1000 repeats = congenital form

Clue: Failure of spontaneous release of the hands following strong handshakes due to myotonia (delayed relaxation of muscles after contraction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Angelman syndrome

A

Lack of expression of UBE3A gene on the maternally inherited chromosome 15, while the paternal copy is imprinted and thus silenced

DNA-based methylation testing diagnostic

Neurodevelopmental disorder
Jerky movements (hand flapping)
Frequent laughter and smiling
Affinity for water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Prader-Willi syndrome

P for lack of gene from paternal - then maternal is imprinted

A

Lack of expression of genes on the paternally inherited chromosome 15, while the maternal copy is imprinted

DNA-based methylation testing diagnostic

Slow development
Obesity - very hungry
T2DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

An activated oncogene causes ?

A defective tumour supressor causes ?

A defective DNA repair causes ?

A

Uncontrolled proliferation (MEN2 due to RET gene)

No apoptosis (Retinoblastoma)

No repair work done (NER defect = Xeroderma Pigmentosa) (OR HNPCC or BRCA1/2 breast-ovarian)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

BRCA1 cancers

BRCA2 cancers

PTEN / Cowdens

P53 Li Fraumeni

A

Breast, ovary, fallopian tube

Breast, ovary, male breast, prostate, pancreas etc

Breast, thyroid

Breast sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Explain PARP inhibitors and how they work for triple negative breast cancer with BRCA gene mutations
One characteristic of BRCA-mutated cancers is defective function of one of the major DNA damage repair pathways, the homologous recombination (HR) pathway. The original concept of the activity of PARP inhibitors was that they acted through synthetic lethality by targeting the base excision repair pathway (BER); in tumor cells with defects in a different DNA repair mechanism, disruption of both pathways led to cell death
26
Breast cancer surveillance guidelines
National screening is with mammography 3 yearly 47-73y TP53 mutation = annual MRI from 20-49 (may have until 69) BRCA mutation = annual MRI +/- mammogram 30-49y then mammogram 50-69y Mammography should not be used if <30y OR if dense breasts so mri if high risk or maybe ultrasound if low risk
27
Familial Adenomatous Polyposis Autosomal dominant
Present as teenager Loss of APC gene (tumour suppressor) > uncontrolled proliferation 1000s of polyps > colon ca by 40y Skin, teeth and bone abnormalities - sebaceous cysts, jaw cysts, osteoma
28
Hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer Lynch syndrome Autosomal dominant
Present as adult DNA mismatch repair defect / "mutator pathway" Lifetime colon risk 80% Risk of ENDOMETRIAL TOO! Polyps may be absent Microsatellite instability (Impaired ability to copy repetitive DNA sequences)
29
Modified Amsterdam Criteria for Hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer / Lynch syndrome
Modified amsterdam criteria identifies those who should have confirmatory molecular testing as about 35% of patients meeting the criteria will not have a DNA mismatch repair mutation 3 relatives affected by a related cancer colorectal, endometrial, ovarian, small intestine, stomach transitional cell, At least 2 successive generations affected One colorectal case before age 50 FAP is excluded
30
HNPCC / Lynch syndrome surveillance and risk management
Screening: Regular bowel screening with colonoscopy at least 2 yearly from age 25 Females should be referred for gynaecological assessment Risk management: Colectomy if very high risk or >1 colon cancer Hysterectomy, oophrectomy Long-term low dose aspirin (75mg od) Significant reduction in polyp burden
31
Best way to image areas not seen by colonoscopy?
Barium
32
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
AD GI outgrowths / Hamartomatous polyps and hyperpigmented lesions on lips/oral mucosa Increased risk of colon cancers
33
1. RET 2. APC 3. MSH, MLH 4. RB1 5. BRAF
1. MEN2 2. FAP 3. HNPCC 4. Retinoblastoma 5. Melanoma
34
Mr Banks is a 40 year old male with a known BRCA1 mutation. He is very concerned about the risk of breast cancer as his mother and sister have both died from the condition. What breast cancer screening is advisable at present?
No screening Even though he has an increased risk of breast Ca it is still lower than female population level risk
35
Joseph is a 40 year old man with colorectal cancer. He has just been diagnosed with Lynch syndrome. Which of the following is correct? Suspected cases should be scored using the Paris criteria Patients with Lynch syndrome should be offered colonoscopy screening from age 30y. Joseph’s biological family members have the same risk of colorectal cancer as the general population Lynch syndrome is characterised by hundreds to thousands of intestinal polyps Microsatellite instability is a defining feature of Lynch syndrome
A amsterdam not paris B should be from 25y C have an increased risk D no may have polyps but is less than 100 E will get microsatellite instability due to MMR defect
36
In breast cancer refer to secondary care if
Relative is male, young, or bilateral OR if three first degree relatives have breast cancer diagnosis
37
In X linked along with fact that boys with affected X gene are always affected. Men are never ? they are always ? Women are usually ?
Carriers, affected Carriers
38
Genetic heterogeneity is how same phenotypes can occur despite different genetic mechanisms Allelic heterogeneity? Loci heterogeneity?
Different mutations at the same loci causes similar phenotype Mutations at different loci can cause similar phenotype Allele – A different version of the same gene (e.g. blue vs brown eyes) Locus – Specific point on a chromosome (Can be the site of a particular gene) For example Long QT syndrome whereby various genes can cause the same condition
39
Explain penetrance and give an example
The proportion of people who carry the allele that express traits of the mutation Complete = 100% of people express the phenotype Huntingtons Incomplete = <100% of people express the phenotype Retinoblastoma
40
Variable expression explanation and example
Expressivity measures the EXTENT to which a genotype exhibits its phenotypic expression Thus people with the same mutation can have different symptoms and severity Neurofibromatosis Marfan (can be de novo)
41
Anticipation explanation and example
Observation of increasingly severe, earlier onset of a genetic trait in succeeding generations Huntingtons
42
What is epigenetics and examples
Studies genetic effects not encoded in the DNA sequence Includes Methylation – Essentially deactivates genes by adding a methyl group Histone modification Splicing
43
Women who carry pathological BRCA1/2 variant- consider
Prophylactic double mastectomy + oophorectomy when family complete
44
RET gene is activated in adults causing ? and inactivated in embryogenesis causing ?
MEN2 Hirschsprung disease
45
Colorectal cancer microsatellite and BRAF testing Then use WHAT to determine MMR gene? If MSI/IHC/BRAF V600E comes back abnormal
1. MSI high = maybe Lynch then check BRAF V600E as this is rare in Lynch 2. MSI low = sporadic colorectal ca Immunohistochemistry Abnormal = 2 yearly from 25
46
If Janet grandad has Huntingtons then what are the chances of her having huntingtons, if we dont know if her father has it Why is huntington testing to important
1/2 x 1/2 = 1/4 Fully penetrant condition
47
Which two conditions feature 'triple repeat disorder'
Huntingtons CAG - more repeats = earlier onset Myotonic dystrophy CTG Both demonstrate anticipation due to triple repeat expands each generation
48
HD testing
If symptoms - PCR for gene mutation and FISH
49
A pedigree showing an individual diagnosed with a presumed genetic condition where no one else in the family appears to be affected. How?
1. This could be a new (de novo) mutation 2. This could be a dominant condition with incomplete penetrance 3. The condition could be dominantly inherited but variably expressed (i.e. very mild phenotype in one parent) 4. This could be a recessive condition 5. If affected individual is male, consider an X linked pattern of inheritance 6. Other possibilities exist e.g. an imprinted disorder, parent has mosaicism which includes germline cells 7. The condition may be non-genetic
50
Cleft lip and 6 fingers = Limited hip abduction, overlapping fingers, tiny mouth =
Patau 13 Edwards 18
51
Diagnosis on characteristic facial features- thin monobrow, thin vermillion border, pinched up nose, long filtrum, long eyelashes 35% due to de novo mutation in NIPBL
Cornelia de Lange
52
Short stature, normal intelligence 90%, hearing loss 50%, squints, renal anomalies-horse shoes kidney, webbed neck Whats diagnosis and how may it occur?
Turners 45 X May be due to mosaicism, deletion, ring X
53
Array CGH
1st line if NOT recognisable diagnosis ie trisomy Examines whole genome for loss/gain of genetic mutation Can't detect trisomy! Not good for mosaicism or balanced chromosome rearrangements ie reciprocal translocations
54
G-banded chromosome testing / karyotype
Used in diagnosis of monosomies, trisomies, translocations and large deletions and insertions
55
FISH 22q11
Follow up karyotype with FISH IE know there is del/insert- but don’t know where it is > FISH detects location MICROdeletions + insertions and reciprocal translocations
56
Prader-Willi Angelman Which parent has the deletion
Paternal deletion (P for P) - hungry MATernal deletion (female = angel) - laughter The paternal gene is always silenced in Angelman and vice versa for Prader-Willi
57
Downs screening
Maternal age + Nuchal thickness (USS-12w) + maternal serum (AFP, hCG, Abs)
58
First line Ix in dysmorphic delayed children
aCGH Then FISH
59
Invasive test to FISH 22q11: CVS (12w, 1% miscarriage) Amniocentesis (16w, 0.75% misc) May give you prob NOT absolute result, why?
Due to mosaicism
60
High risk interventions for: 1. Breast Ca 2. Ovarian Ca 3. FAP 4. MEN2
1. DNA testing ie BRCA or mastectomy 2. Surveillance with USS + CA125 OR bilateral salpingo-ooporectomy 3. Colectomy in late teens 4. Remove thyroid as young as 1y
61
Parents want baby, father has sister that died of CF - wants to know chances of having baby with CF?
If sister tt then both parents carried recessive, thus Fathers genotype TT (1/3) or Tt (2/3) and general population risk is (1/20) So risk of both being carriers is 2/3 * 1/20 THEN risk of affected child with two carriers is 1/4 SO 1/4 * 2/3 * 1/20 = 1/120
62
X linked rules
``` Carrier females have: a 1 in 4 chance of an affected male a 1 in 4 chance of a normal male a 1 in 4 chance of a carrier daughter a 1 in 4 chance of a normal daughter ``` Affected males cannot pass the disorder to their sons. All of an affected male’s daughters will inherit the mutation
63
Big calves and Gowers sign (crawl hands up legs to stand up) = Diagnostic
Duchenne uscular dystrophy Raised CK and abnormal LFTs, muscle wasting and weakness + intellect and behavioural issues Muscle biopsy (with immunostaining for dystrophin) 1st line Multiplex ligation probe amplification MLPA and PCR Often no FH as high rate of de novo mutation Becker is the milder version
64
A lady who had breast cancer aged 45 and a family history of breast cancer undergoes BRCA testing. The lab find a variant of uncertain significance in BRCA 1. How should you proceed?
Consider segregation studies in the family but do not base management decisions on this result as things stand
65
BRCA inheritance
Dominant
66
BRCA1 (worse for breast ca than brca2)breast cancer screening MRI from
30y
67
array CGH is to detect copy number changes. | karyotype is ?
visualisation
68
A 52-year-old lady with a definite clinical diagnosis of Marfan syndrome attended the Genetics Clinic.  Molecular genetic testing of her Fibrillin 1 gene did not reveal any known pathogenic mutations.  Her two children, aged 23 and 25 years old, also attended the appointment. HOW WOULD YOU BEST ADVISE HER CHILDREN?
Dominant They should be examined for signs of Marfan syndrome and have an echocardiogram.
69
Individual 2 is shown to be a carrier of cystic fibrosis. Individual 3 does not have cystic fibrosis. What is the risk that the baby born as a result of pregnancy 5 will have cystic fibrosis?
Individual 3 has an affected sibling so we assume that their parents were both carriers, and since we know 3 doesnt have CF then the only option are 1/3 unaffected, 2/3 carrier, so their risk of being a carrier is 2/3 Individual 2 is a known carrier and so we assume that only one of her parents was a carrier and so each child would have 1/2 chance of being a carrier, so their siblings risk is 1/2 And if both are carriers then there is a 1/4 chance of being affected so 2/3*1/2*1/4 = 1/12
70
FISH is not for intragenic changes it is for CML genetic testing
Chromosomal microdeletions or rearrangements Karyotype > FISH > PCR
71
1. Gonadal/Germline mosaicism 2. Incomplete penetrance 3. New germ-line mutation 4. New somatic mutation 5. Uniparental disomy 6. Somatic mosaic
1. Some sperm/oocytes carry a mutation but the rest are normal thus two 'unaffected' parents can have 2 affected children 2. All cells carry the mutation but it may not manifest in all patients 3. Parents would be affected as well as children 4. Random 5. Chromosomes from only one parent, a bit like genomic imprinting 6. All cells in the patient have the same genes but some are expressed and some are not. Heterochromia (one blue eye and 1 brown eye) is an example.