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Tenta > InfoSec > Flashcards

InfoSec Flashcards

1
Q

What is a security plan?

A

A plan that identifies and organizes the security activities for a system/organization

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2
Q

What does a security plan do?

A

Describes the current situation and highlights the improvement

It is an official record of current security practices and a blueprint for orderly change to improve those practices

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3
Q

What three essential questions should a security policy answer?

A

Who should be allowed access?

To what system and organizational resources should access be allowed?

What types of access should each user be allowed for each resource?

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4
Q

What should a security policy specify?

A
  • The organization’s security goals
  • Where the responsibility for security lies
  • The organization’s commitment to security
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5
Q

How should a security policy be written?

A

Not too long, complex, detailed, and fast and easy to read

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6
Q

What does “current security status” mean?

A
  • An understanding of the current vulnerabilities.
  • Defines the limits of responsibility for the security
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7
Q

What is risk analysis?

A

A systematic investigation of the system, its environment, and what might go wrong

And then forms the basis for describing the current security state

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8
Q

What’s the meaning of security requirements?

A

Security requirements are functional or performance demands placed on a system to ensure a desired level of security

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9
Q

What is the characteristics of good security requirements?

A
  • Correctness: Are the requirements understandable? Are they stated without error?
  • Consistency: Are there any conflicting or ambiguous requirements?
  • Completeness: Are all possible situations addressed by the requirements?
  • Realism: Is it possible to implement what the requirements mandate?
  • Need: Are the requirements unnecessarily restrictive?
  • Verifiability: Can tests be written to demonstrate conclusively and objectively that the requirements have been met?
  • Traceability: Can each requirement be traced to the functions and data related to it so that changes in a requirement can lead to easy reevaluation?
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10
Q

What’s the meaning behind accountability/responsibility for implementation

A

A section of the security plan that will identify which people (roles) are responsible for implementing security requirements

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11
Q

What is the common roles in a security plan?

A
  • Users –Regardless of if they are responsible for the security of their own machines, they have some responsibility
  • Owners –Product/process/system/…
  • Managers - May be responsible for seeing that the people they supervise implement security measures, and can also be legally responsible
  • Administrators –Network/system/security/database/…
  • Information officers - May be responsible for overseeing the creation and use of data; these officers may also be responsible for the retention and proper disposal of data
  • Personnel staff members - May be responsible for security involving employees, e.g., screening employees, handling terminations, arranging security training programs
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12
Q

What is a timetable?

A

A timetable means of how and when the elements in it will be performed must be included

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13
Q

What is a plan maintenance?

A

A plan that specify the order which controls are to be implemented.

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14
Q

What must be included in a plan maintenance?

A
  • New equipment will be acquired
  • New connectivity requested
  • New threats identified…
  • The plan must include procedures for change and growth
  • The plan must include a schedule for periodic review
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15
Q

Why does security planning need team members and commitment?

A

Security planning touches every aspect of an organization and therefore requires participation well beyond the security group

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16
Q

What three groups must contribute to making a security plan if you want it to succeed?

A
  • Management
  • The planning team
  • Those affected by the security
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17
Q

What is a business continuity plan?

A

A (business) continuity plan documents how a business will continue to function during or after a computer security incident

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18
Q

What does a business continuity plan address?

A
  • Catastrophic situations, in which all or a major part of a computing capability is suddenly unavailable
  • Long duration, in which the outage is expected to last for so long that business will suffer
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19
Q

What does a business continuity plan assess?

A
  • What are the essential assets?
  • What could disrupt the use of these assets?
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20
Q

What us the goal of a incident response?

A

Be able to handle the current security incident without direct regard for the business issues

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21
Q

What is a security incident response plan?

A

It tells the staff how to deal with a security incident

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22
Q

A incident response plan should include?

A
  • Define what constitutes an incident
  • Identify who is responsible for taking charge of the situation
  • Describe the plan of action
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23
Q

What is ISO/IEC 27005 about?

A

Information security risk management (ISRM)

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24
Q

What is ISO 31000 about?

A

(general) Risk Management (RM) (principles and guidelines)

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25
Q

What ISO has several terms according to it?

A

ISO 27000

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26
Q

What does risk mean?

A

Effect of uncertainty on objectives

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27
Q

What is risk management?

A

Coordinated activities to direct and control an organization with regard to risk

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28
Q

What is risk management process?

A

Systematic application of management policies, procedures and practices to the activities of communicating, consulting, establishing the context and identifying, analyzing, evaluating, treating, monitoring and reviewing risk

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29
Q

What is risk assessment?

A

Overall process of risk identification, risk analysis and risk evaluation

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30
Q

What is risk identification?

A

process of finding, recognizing and describing risks

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31
Q

What is risk evaluation?

A

process of comparing the results of risk analysis with risk criteria to determine whether the risk and/or its magnitude is acceptable or tolerable

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32
Q

What does “Level of risk” mean?

A

magnitude of a risk expressed in terms of the combination of consequences and their likelihood

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33
Q

What does “residual risk” mean?

A

risk remaining after risk treatment

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34
Q

What does risk treatment mean

A

Process to modify risk

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35
Q

What does vulnerability mean?

A

Weakness of an asses or control that can be exploited by one or more threats

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36
Q

What does threat mean?

A

potential cause of an unwanted incident, which may result in harm to a system or organization

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37
Q

What is ISO?

A

the process to comprehend the nature of risk and to determine the level of risk

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38
Q

What is the characteristics of a risk?

A
  • Associated loss (also known as a risk impact)
  • Likelihood of occurring
  • The degree to which we can change the outcome (risk control)
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39
Q

Strategies for dealing with risk?

A
  • Avoid the risk by changing requirements for security or other system characteristics
  • Transfer the risk by allocating the risk to other systems, people, organizations, or assets or by buying insurance to cover any financial loss should the risk become a reality
  • Assume the risk by accepting it, controlling it with available resources, and preparing to deal with the loss if it occurs
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40
Q

What’s the steps of a risk analysis?

A
  1. Identify assets
  2. Determine vulnerabilities
  3. Estimate the likelihood of exploitation
  4. Compute expected annual loss
  5. Survey applicable controls and their costs
  6. Project annual savings of control
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41
Q

What is the pros with risk analysis?

A
  • Improve awareness
  • Relate security mission to
    management objectives
  • Identify assets, vulnerabilities, and
    controls
  • Improve basis for decisions
  • Justify expenditures for security
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42
Q

What is the cons of risk analysis?

A
  • False sense of precision and confidence
  • Hard to perform
  • Have a tendency to be filed and promptly forgotten
  • Lack of accuracy
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43
Q

What is management systems?

A

A management system is a “set of interrelated or interacting elements of an organization to establish policies and objectives and processes to achieve those objectives” (ISO/IEC 27000:2014)

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44
Q

What is the PDCA/continual improvement?

A

Also known as the demming cycle
* Used when:
* Starting from scratch, or when
* Improving or when, or when
* Performing a task

  • Also, on different levels
  • Strategic –Organization as a whole, policy,
    long-term…
  • Tactical –Implements the decisions…
  • Operational –Day-to-day operations…
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45
Q

What is cyber terrorism?

A

The use of computers to launch a terrorist attack

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46
Q

What can cyber terrorism cause?

A
  • Significant economic damage
  • Disruptions to communications
  • Disruptions in supply lines
  • Disruptions in national infrastructure
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47
Q

What is an Economic attack?

A

An attack that causes economic damage.

  • Lost files and records
  • Destroyed data
  • Stolen credit cards
  • Money stolen
  • Time spent cleaning up
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48
Q

What is cryptanalysis?

A

the study of methods for breaking ciphertext

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49
Q

What is cryptography?

A

the use and practice of cryptographic techniques

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50
Q

What is cryptology?

A

the study of both cryptography and cryptanalysis

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51
Q

What is plaintext/cleartext, P?

A

The original form a message

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52
Q

What is ciphertext/cyphertext, C?

A

encrypted version of a message

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53
Q

What is a Cipher?

A

a pair of cryptographic algorithms, e.g., a mathematical function used for encryption and one for decryption

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54
Q

The character for a plaintext message?

A

P

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55
Q

The character for a ciphertext?

A

C

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56
Q

What is the cryptosystem in formal notation?

A

P = D(E(P))

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57
Q

What is an encryption algorithm?

A

A set of rules of how to encrypt plaintext and how to decrypt the ciphertext

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58
Q

The ciphertext for cipher system with a key?

A

C = E(K, P)

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59
Q

What is a symmetric cryptosystem?

A
  • Encryption and decryption keys are the same
  • Provide a two-way channel to their users
  • If the key is kept secret for a pair - the system also provides authentication proof
  • If the secret key is compromised, the adversary can decrypt all traffic and produce fake messages
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60
Q

What is an Asymmetric cryptosytem?

A

*One key for encryption and another key for decryption
* Keys come in pairs
* A decryption key, KD, inverts the encryption of key KE so that:
* P = D(KD, E(KE,P))
* Also called public key

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61
Q

What is a Stream cipher?

A
  • Each bit/byte of the data stream is encrypted separately (low diffusion)
  • Fast and encryption can take place as soon as data is read
  • If errors occur, only bit/byte is affected
  • Susceptible to malicious insertions and modifications
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62
Q

What is a block cipher?

A
  • Encrypts a group of plaintext symbols as a single block (typically 64, 128, 256 bits or
    more) (high diffusion)
  • Slower process, the last block needs to be padded, and an error affects more bytes
  • Impossible to insert a single symbol into one block
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63
Q

What is The Data Encryption Standard (DES)?

A
  • Symmetric block cipher
  • Encryption and decryption algorithms are public but the design principles are classified
  • Used fixed 56 bits (short) key
  • Is considered insecure and was deprecated in 2017
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64
Q

What is The Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)?

A
  • A replacement for DES
  • Symmetric, block cipher (128) bits
  • Three different key lengths: 128, 192, and 256 bits
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65
Q

What is the de-facto encryption standard today?

A

AES

  • Used in e.g., WPA2, IPsec, WhatsApp, Telegram… and in hardware such as Intel & AMD processors
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66
Q

What is Rivest-Shamir-Adelman (RSA)?

A
  • Asymmetric block cipher
  • Public key system (i.e., one private and one public key)
  • Long keys (1024-4096 bits)
  • Slow algorithm
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67
Q

What is the Diffie-Hellman key exchange protocol?

A

A way in which a public channel can be used to create a confidential shared key

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68
Q

How does the Diffie-Hellman key exchange work?

A
  1. First agree on an arbitrary staring key
  2. Then pick a private key
  3. Mix the (public) starting key with the secret key
  4. Exchange the keys with each other
  5. Mix the other shared key with their own secret key
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69
Q

What is error detecting codes?

A

A fast and reliable way of finding out if an error in a transmission have happened

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70
Q

Name some simple error detecting codes?

A
  • Parity checks
  • Cyclic redundancy checks
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71
Q

Name some cryptographic error detecting codes?

A
  • One-way hash functions
  • Cryptographic checksums
  • Digital signatures
72
Q

What’s in Shannon’s characteristics of good ciphers?

A
  • The amount of secrecy needed should determine the amount of labor appropriate for the encryption and decryption
  • The set of keys and the enciphering algorithm should be free from complexity
  • The implementation of the process should be as simple as possible
  • Errors in ciphering should not propagate and cause corruption of further information in the message
  • The size of the enciphered text should be no larger than the text of the original message
73
Q

What is Interception?

A

Unauthorized viewing
CIA: Confidentiality
Network security examples: Eavesdropping or wiretapping

74
Q

What is Modification?

A

Unauthorized change
CIA: Integrity
Network security examples: Integrity failures - insertion

75
Q

What is Fabrication?

A

Unauthorized creation
CIA: Integrity
Network security examples: Integrity failures - replay

76
Q

What is Interruption?

A

Preventing authorized access
CIA: Availability
Network security examples: DoS/DDoS

77
Q

What vulnerabilities is there in Wi-Fi?

A
  • It’s prone to eavesdropping
  • Shared media = easy insertion and easy disruption (DoS)
  • Protocols such as WEP and WPA
78
Q

What is the standard Wireless protocol?

A

WPA2/802.11i

79
Q

What is a policy?

A
  • A security policy is a document that defines how an organization deals with some
    aspect of security.
  • There can be policies regarding end user behavior, IT response to incidents, or
    policies for specific issues and incidents.
80
Q

What does CYOD mean?

A

The company lists acceptable devices (that is, those that meet company security requirements) and allows each employee to choose his or her own device.

81
Q

What is COPE?

A

The company owns and provides the equipment. This clearly offers the most security, but also comes at the highest cost.

82
Q

What does “personal” mean in WPA and WPA2?

A

Home and small office use

  • Using a pre-shared key
  • No authentication server
  • A shared key is a security issue (e.g., guessing attacks)
83
Q

What does “Enterprise” mean in WPA and WPA2?

A

Bigger organizations

  • Uses authentication server
  • No pre-shared key
  • Use IEEE 802.1X (so the access point become the authenticator), mutual authentication (i.e., no man-in-the-middle)
84
Q

What is segmentation?

A

Dividing a network into smaller segments.

85
Q

What is important for network security countermeasures?

A
  • System architecture
  • Segmentation
  • DMZ
  • Redundancy
  • Encryption
86
Q

What is a Virtual Private Network (VPN)?

A

I provides a way to the Internet. It creates a virtual connection between a remote user and the central location.

87
Q

What two approaches are it to VPN?

A
  • Remote access - one fixed side (What you get if you buy a VPN Service)
  • Site-to-site - two fixed sites
88
Q

Why use a VPN?

A

Is cheap, secure, scalable, and flexible

89
Q

What is a firewall?

A

A device that filters all traffic between a protected or “inside” network and less trustworthy or “outside” network

Firewalls implement security policies or rule-sets that determine what traffic can or cannot pass through

90
Q

What is a firewall an example of?

A

A reference monitor
* Always invoked (cannot be circumvented)
* Tamperproof
* Small and simple enough for rigorous analysis

91
Q

What is a demilitarized zone?

A
  • A perimeter network or screened subnet
  • Physical or logical subnetwork
  • DMZ is a form of network architecture
  • Services dedicated to outside use separated
  • The idea is that intrusion of DMZ hosts lead
    to only limited damage to the internal hosts
92
Q

What is a Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

A

It monitors activity malicious or suspicious events

93
Q

What may a IDS do?

A
  • Monitor user and system activity
  • Audit system configurations for vulnerabilities and
    misconfigurations
  • Assess the integrity of critical system and data files
  • Recognize known attack patterns in system activity
  • Identify abnormal activity through statistical analysis
  • Manage audit trails and highlight policy violations
  • Install and operate traps to record information about
    intruders
94
Q

What is the goal of an IDS?

A
  • Ideally, an IDS should be fast, simple, and accurate while at the same time being complete
  • It should detect all attacks with little performance penalty
95
Q

What is an IDS detection methods?

A

Signature-based
* Monitor and compare against patterns (signatures)
* Signatures can be e.g., series of TCP SYN packets sent to many different ports in succession and at times close to one another
* Cannot detect new attacks (zero-day)
* Modification of existing attacks to evade detection
* Rely on statistical analysis

Heuristic
* Anomaly-based, based on a model of acceptable behavior and flag exceptions to that model
* Looks for behavior that is out of the ordinary
* Could be based on current traffic behavior or user behavior

96
Q

What is the Scope of an IDS?

A

Network-based IDS (NIDS)
* Stand-alone device
* Placed at a strategic point in the network, monitoring traffic to and from all devices on the network

Host-based IDS (HIDS)
* Installed on individual hosts or devices on the network

97
Q

What is the location of an IDS?

A

Front end
* Looks at traffic as it enters the network
* Can spend a long time analyzing
* Can filter before entering network (like a firewall)
* Easier to spot from the outside (and possibly to circumvent or attack)
* Not checking the internal network

Internal
* Monitors traffic within the network
* Less exposed
* Handle both internal and external traffic

98
Q

What is the Capability of IDS?

A
  • Passive –sound the alarm
  • Active, that’s when it become IPS
99
Q

How does a IPS respond to an alarm?

A
  • Monitor and collect data
  • Increase data collection during event e.g., record all traffic from a given source for future analysis
  • Watch the intruder - see accessed resources
  • Protect
  • Act to reduce exposure, e.g., by increasing access controls
  • Making assets unavailable
  • Visible
  • Signal an alert to other protection components
  • Call a human
100
Q

What is capacity planning?

A
  • Know what cause spikes in traffic
  • Plan for them
101
Q

What is load balancing?

A
  • Use more machines
  • Buy more cloud capacity
102
Q

What is network tuning?

A
  • Adjusting the number of segments, machines, uplinks…
  • Rate limiting - countermeasure that reduces the impact of an attack by limiting capacity to a host/network
103
Q

What is shunning?

A

Reducing service given to traffic from certain address ranges

104
Q

What is blacklisting?

A

Blocking all traffic to/from a specific host

105
Q

What is sinkholing?

A

Incoming traffic is analyzed, and bad traffic rejected

106
Q

What is a honeypot?

A

A virtual machine meant to lure an attacker into an environment that can be both controlled and monitored

107
Q

What is simplicity of design in a OS?

A

OSs are inherently complex, and any unnecessary complexity only makes them harder to understand and secure

108
Q

What is layered design?

A
  • At least four levels: hardware, kernel, OS, and user
  • Enables layered trust
109
Q

What is layered trust?

A
  • Layering is both a way to keep a design logical and understandable and a way to limit risk
  • Very tight access controls on critical OS functions, fewer access controls on important noncritical functions, and few if any access controls on functions that aren’t important to the OS
110
Q

What is a kernel?

A
  • A kernel is the part of the OS that performs the lowest-level functions
  • Synchronization, inter-process communication, interrupt handling…
111
Q

What is a security kernel?

A
  • A security kernel is responsible for enforcing the security mechanisms of the entire OS
  • Typically contained within the kernel
112
Q

What is kernel-mode?

A

Kernel-mode - executing code has complete and unrestricted access to the underlying hardware and memory

113
Q

What is User-mode?

A

User-mode - executing code has no direct access to hardware or reference memory

114
Q

What does execution mean?

A
  • The OS should be responsible for executing processes
  • When a user-mode application is executed, the OS creates a process for the application
115
Q

What is a reference monitor?

A
  • A reference monitor mediates access by subjects to objects (e.g., to let a user read a file)
  • An easy way of implementing access control
116
Q

A reference monitor must be?

A
  • Tamperproof
  • Unbypassable
  • Analyzable
117
Q

What is access control?

A
  • Authentication is verifying the identity of a user or a host
  • Authorization is permitting or restricting access to the information based on the type of users and their roles
  • Accountability identifies what a user did (auditing)
  • Access control is often performed by the OS
118
Q

What is the requirements of access control?

A
  • Need a mechanism to authenticate
  • Least privilege - minimum authorization to do its work
  • Separation of duty - should divide steps in a system function among different individuals
  • Administrative policies - who can add, delete, modify rules
  • Closed vs. open policies
  • Closed = disallowed unless explicitly allowed
  • Open = allowed unless explicitly disallowed
119
Q

What is the access control elements?

A
  • Subject
  • An entity that can access objects (often the human user)
  • Objects
  • Are things on which an action can be performed
  • Access modes
  • Any controllable actions of subjects on objects
120
Q

What is Discretionary access control (DAC)?

A

Access control model based on the identity of the user
* The owner decides who is allowed to access the object
and what privileges they have
* Rights can be delegated at users’ discretion
* Most common model

  • Often provided using an access control matrix
  • Access control lists (decomposed by column)
  • Capability tickets (decomposed by row)
121
Q

What is Role-based access control (RBAC)?

A
  • Controls based on a subject’s (user’s or program’s) role, not their identity
  • Subject’s rights can change depending on their current role
  • access is controlled at the system level, outside of the user’s control
  • Used in, e.g., Microsoft Azure
122
Q

What does reconnaissance mean?

A

The hacker research their target

123
Q

What does reconnaissance (passive) mean?

A
  • Before an attack is executed the hacker attempt to find out information about the target system
124
Q

What does Reconnaissance (Active) mean?

A

Port scanning (Nmap) Scans to see which ports are open

  • Ping scan
  • Connect scan
  • SYN scan
  • FIN scan
125
Q

What is a Ping scan?

A

A ping sweep (also known as an ICMP sweep) is a basic network scanning technique used to determine which of a range of IP addresses map to live hosts (computers).

126
Q

What is a connect scan?

A
  • Complete connection is executed
    with the destination device.
  • Most likely to be detected.
127
Q

What is a SYN scan?

A
  • Stealthy scan
  • Also called half-open scan

You send a SYN packet but you
never respond to the SYN/ACK

128
Q

What is an SQL attack?

A

You enter SQL commands into login forms to trick the server into executing those commands.

  • The most common attack.
  • The most common purpose is to force the server to log the attacker on.
129
Q

What is Bluesnarfing?

A

Unauthorized access of information from a Bluetooth device

130
Q

What is Blue jacking?

A

Using another blue tooth device within range and sending messages to the target

131
Q

What is Bluebugging?

A

Accesses and uses all phone features

132
Q

What is Pod slurping?

A

Using a device such as an iPod to steal confidential data by directly plugging it into a computer where the data are held

133
Q

Why does a buffer overflow occur?

A

Data is written beyond the space allocated
* Inputs expected to go into regions of memory allocated for data end up in memory holding executable code

134
Q

What is Malware?

A

Software planted by an agent with malicious intent to cause unanticipated or undesired effects

135
Q

What is a Virus?

A

A program that can replicate itself and pass on malicious code to other non-malicious programs by modifying them

136
Q

What is a Worm?

A

A program that spreads copies of itself through a network

137
Q

What is a Trojan Horse?

A

A application/software that looks legit but contains code that, in addition to its stated effect, has a second, nonobvious, malicious effect

138
Q

What is a Rabbit?

A

Code that replicates itself without limit to exhaust resources

139
Q

What is a Logic Bomb?

A

Code that triggers when a predetermined condition occurs

140
Q

What is a Time Bomb?

A

Code that triggers action when a predetermined time occurs

141
Q

What is a Dropper?

A

Transfer agent code only to drop other malicious code, such as virus or Trojan horse

142
Q

What is Hostile mobile code agent?

A

Code communicated semi-autonomously by programs transmitted through the web

143
Q

What is a cross-site script attack?

A
  • Tricking a client or server into executing scripted code by including the code in data inputs
  • An attacker can gain elevated access privileges to sensitive content, cookies, and other information maintained by the browser
144
Q

What is a RAT (remote access Trojan)?

A

Trojan horse that, once planted, gives access from remote location

145
Q

What is Spyware?

A

Program that intercepts and covertly communicates data on the user or user’s activity

146
Q

What is a bot?

A

Semi-autonomous agent, under control of a (usually remote) controller or “herder”; not necessarily malicious

147
Q

What is a Zombie?

A

Code or entire computer under control of a (usually remote) program

148
Q

What is a Browser hijacker?

A

Code that changes browser settings, disallows access to certain sites, or redirects browser to other

149
Q

What is a Rootkit?

A

A collection of tools that a hacker uses to mask their intrusion and obtain admin-level access to a computer or network.

150
Q

What is trapdoor or backdoor?

A

Code feature that allows unauthorized access to a machine or program; bypasses normal access control and authentication

151
Q

What is a tool or toolkit?

A

Program containing a set of tests for vulnerabilities; not dangerous itself, but each successful test identifies a vulnerable host that can be attacked

152
Q

What is Scareware?

A

Not code; false warning of malicious code attack

153
Q

What kind of harm can malicious code do?

A

Harm to users and systems:
* Sending emails to user contacts
* Deleting or encrypting files
* Modifying system information, such as the Windows registry
* Stealing sensitive information
* Attaching to critical system files
* Hide copies of malware in multiple complementary locations

154
Q

What are some countermeasures for users to protect them from Malware?

A
  • Use software acquired from reliable sources
  • Test software in an isolated environment
  • Only open attachments when you know them to be safe
  • Treat every website as potentially harmful
  • Create and maintain backups
155
Q

What are some countermeasures that doesn’t work against Malware?

A

Penetrate-and-patch
* Search after flaws and then fix them
* Fails because it is normally hurried, misses the context of the fault, and focuses on one failure, not the complete system

Security by obscurity (or Security through obscurity)
* Things meant to stay hidden seldom do
* Security should not depend on the secrecy of the implementation or its components

A perfect good-bad code separator
* Impossible to separate good programs from bad

156
Q

How does virus scanners work?

A

Virus scanners look for signs of malicious code infection using signatures in program files and memory

Detection mechanisms:
* Known string patterns in files or memory
* Execution patterns
* Storage patterns

157
Q

What is a Denial-of-Service Attacks?

A

A way to prevent legitimate access to a system, by flooding the system with so many false connection requests that the system cannot respond to legitimate requests

158
Q

What is DHCP Starvation?

A

If enough requests flooded a network, the attacker could completely exhaust the address space allocated by the DHCP servers for an indefinite period of time

159
Q

What are some DoS weaknesses?

A
  • The flood must be sustained.
  • When machines are disinfected, the attack stops.
  • Hacker’s own machine are at risk of discovery
160
Q

How does a SYN Attack/Flood work?

A
  • The client sends a SYN.
  • Server responds with SYN+ACK

The client should now respond with an ACK, but through non –responsiveness and continues sending of a SYN from other clients the server ends up in a busy state.

161
Q

How does a UDP Flood work?

A
  • Connectionless protocol.
  • UDP packet delivery to random port.
  • ICMP response “destination unreachable”.
  • Enough packets overloads system.
162
Q

What is Low Orbit Ion Cannon? (LOIC)

A
  • A common tool for DoS attacks
  • Requires the user to put in the target URL or IP address and then begin the attack
163
Q

What is XOIC?

A
  • XOIC is another DoS attacking tool.
  • Performs a DoS attack on any server with an IP address, a user-selected port, and a user-selected protocol.
164
Q

How do you protect yourself against Smurf attacks?

A
  • Guard against Trojans.
  • Have adequate Anti Virus software.
  • Utilize proxy servers..
165
Q

What is Ping of Death?

A
  • A ping of death is a type of attack on a computer system that involves sending a malformed or otherwise malicious ping to a computer.
  • A ping packet that is oversized.
  • Some computer systems were never designed to properly handle a ping packet larger than the
    maximum packet.
166
Q

What is a Man-in-the-Browser?

A
  • Malicious code in browser/add-ons
  • The key point is that it enters before
    encryption, and if something is
    inserted, it is also encrypted
167
Q

What is a Keystroke logger?

A
  • Hardware or software that records all keystrokes
  • It may be a small dongle plugged into a USB port or can masquerade as a keyboard
  • It may also be installed as malware
168
Q

What is Page-in-the-Middle

A
  • The user is directed to a different page than believed or intended
  • Similar to man-in-the-browser
  • Here a new page is displayed. The man-in-the-browser is only in the background
169
Q

What is a download substitution?

A
  • The attacker creates a page with seemingly harmless and desirable programs for download
  • Instead of, or in addition to, the intended functionality, the user installs malware
  • This is a very common technique for spyware
  • The user does not know what is installed after they click YES.
170
Q

What is clickjacking?

A
  • A way of tricking user into providing desired input, like personal information
171
Q

What is Drive-by download?

A

Code is downloaded, installed, and executed on a computer without the user’s knowledge.

172
Q

What is SQL injection?

A

Injecting SQL code into an exchange between an application and its database server

173
Q

What is Phishing?

A

A message that tries to trick a victim into providing private information or taking some other unsafe action

174
Q

What is Spear phishing?

A

A more personalized attack to a particular recipient or set of recipients

175
Q

What is Whaling?

A

Attacks directed at high-profile targets such as CEO:s…

Tenta (9 decks)

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