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CVS Final > Info 2 > Flashcards

Info 2 Flashcards

1
Q

General characteristics and effects of canine distemper virus-

A

airborne transmission, resp. and some GI signs, CS usually begin as just ADR and then progress to coughing, anorexia, circling convulsions etc.

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2
Q

what do we give to medically tx adrenal gland disease in ferrets?

A

Lupron depo monthly
for sx you would do a uni/’bilateral adrenalectomy

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3
Q

insulinoma in ferrets notes

A

Beta cell tumors, more common in males, tx with diet and pred, partial pancreatectomy can be helpful, Mean survival time is 16 months

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4
Q

what is the most common cancer in ferrets??

A

lymphoma

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5
Q

6 week old puppy gets what vax

A

fecal, HW prevent, deworm, flea and tick prevent and D2AP (3 week)

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6
Q

Why do we add epi to bupivacaine?

A

Because it counteracts vasodilation and aids in hemostasis, Contraindicated if hyperparathyroidism, cardiac dysrhythmia, asthma, anesthesia

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7
Q

Lidocaine lasts how long? What about bup?

A

2-4 mins, bupivicaine lasts 4-7 hours

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8
Q

Crowding with some teeth rotated is class ___ malocclusion

A

class 1

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9
Q

underbite is class ____ malocclusion

A

3

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10
Q

An overbite is class ___ malocclusion

A

2

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11
Q

Overbite dr term is….

A

mandibular brachygnathism

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12
Q

what is the whipworm prepatent period?

A

3 months (do treatment for 3 months), live in the cecum, treatment fenbendazole

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13
Q

When does larval stage 3 maturation discontinues at what temperature?

A

stops at 57 degrees

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14
Q

microfilaria can live __-__ years and adults can live __-__ years

A

1-2 years; 5-7 years

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15
Q

describe the pathway of the heartworms in the heart:

A

Worms always start at the lobar arteries and main pulmonary artery and then the worms back up into the right ventricle and right atrium and eventually in the vena cava which is called CAVAL SYNDROME

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16
Q

What is the DH for heartworms? What is the IH?

A

DH is canids and IH is mosquitos (Microfilariae and L1, L2, L3 stages)

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17
Q

T/F the HWT is antigen based and is nearly 100% specific

A

T

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18
Q

Acanthocheiolonema reconditumae has what kind of tail? Is it pathogenic?

A

Curved tail and no, not pathogenic

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19
Q

proheart is what drug?

A

moxidectin slow released over 6-12 months

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20
Q

3-2-1 rule ISS

A

present after 3 months
more than 2 cm size
still growing after1 month

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21
Q

feline vaccine placement

A

FeLV L rear, FVRCP right front, RV right rear

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22
Q

when will canine teeth all be present in kittens (at what age)?

A

12 weeks and older

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23
Q

HeartGard is what drugs? What does it tx?

A

Ivermectin and Pyrantel and treats HW, hooks and rounds

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24
Q

revolution is what type of drug? What does it tx?

A

Selamectin
Hw, hooks, rounds, fleas, ear mites, and sacroptic mange. Not good against ticks
BUT revolution PLUS has sarolaner which DOES DO TICKS

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25
Q

advantage multi is what drugs? What does it Tx?

A

Imicloclaprid and moxidectin
treats HW, hooks, rounds, whips, fleas, sarcoptic mange

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26
Q

what are some hallmark signs of canine atopic dermatitis??

A

Pruritus on feet, ventrum, face and extremities
Tx includes Apoquel, Cytopoint, Immunotherapies, and topicals

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27
Q

Ehrlichia ewingii

A

attacks the granulocytes, Lone star tick
Symptoms include anorexia, joint pain, CNS, chronic kidney disease and thrombocytopenia, rarely is fatal though

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28
Q

E. canis

A

Brown dog tick, attacks monocytes, lymph nodes increased, lameness, thrombocytopenia, epistaxis, petechia, uveitis, organomegaly, anemia, proteinuria, hyperglobulinemia

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29
Q

Parvo is ____ ____ virus that is fecal oral transmission and targets intestinal crypts and other rapidly dividing cells, lymphoid tissues, leukopenia, and neutropenia

A

non-enveloped

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30
Q

Parvo test is _____ test

A

antigen test

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31
Q

sites for bone marrow collection in the dog–

A

Dorsal iliac crest, femoral shaft, humeral shaft, costochondral junction, sternum

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32
Q

what is in the canine D2AP vaccine?

A

Distemper, adenovirus with 2 strains, parainfluenza, and parvovirus
can be done as early as 6 weeks and booster every 3-4 weeks til 16 weeks and 20 weeks in black and tan dogs

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33
Q

lepto can be given as early as ___ weeks

A

12 weeks, no sooner

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34
Q

what does low eye pressures indicate? What does high eye pressures indicate?

A

Low= uveitis, rupture
High= degenerative changes, glaucoma, chronic uveitis

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35
Q

What does the PLR response test?

A

Evaluates the cranial nerve 2 (optic) and the cranial nerve 3 (oculomotor)

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36
Q

What does the PLR response test?

A

Evaluates the cranial nerve 2 (optic) and the cranial nerve 3 (oculomotor)

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37
Q

menance response tests what nerves?

A

it is a learned response after about 14 wks of age and tests the visual stimulus CN 2 (optic) and CN 7 (facial)

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38
Q

Periodontal disease stages 2-4

A

Stage 2- 25% attachment loss and minor pocketing
Stage 3- 25-50% attachment loss and teeth being slightly mobile
Stage 4- more than 50% loss with gingival recession and severe pocketing and advanced tooth mobility

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39
Q

FIV is an __ test whereas FeLV is an ____ test

A

Antibody; antigen

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40
Q

what are the viruses included in the FVRCP vaccine in cats?

A

Herpesvirus, calcivirus, parvovirus (panleukopenia)

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41
Q

IN bord can be given to dogs more than ____ age

A

3 weeks of age

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42
Q

what are the MLV vaccines?

A

D2AP, Bordetella, FVRCP

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43
Q

what are the killed vaccines?

A

RV, lepto, lyme, CIV, FeLV, FIV

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44
Q

What strains of flu does CIV have in it?

A

H3N8 and H3N2

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45
Q

retest FeLV after ___ days

A

60 days

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46
Q

lyme disease is spread by what tick

A

Ixodes ticks

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47
Q

Hepatozoonosis is caused by which type of tick?

A

gulf coast tick/amblyomma tick

48
Q

Rocky mountain spotted fever is caused by which tick?

A

Dermacentor tick

49
Q

Ehrlichia is caused by what type of tick?

A

Lone star tick aka Amblyomma americanum

50
Q

What is the normal flora, long or short demodex?

A

Longer demodex is part of normal flora

51
Q

what will we see on CBC with infection of Ehrlichia

A

thrombocytopenia, nonregenerative anemia, leukopenia, lymphocytosis, morulae on the platelets

52
Q

chemistry of a dog with an active Ehrlichia infection:

A

Hyperglobulinemia, hypoalbuminemia, hyperproteinemia, elevated hepatic/renal enzymes

53
Q

when would USG be decreased?

A

renal failure, ketoacidosis (DKA), Addison’s disease

54
Q

Ketones in urine can be caused by…

A

DM, starvation, increased proteins, decreased carbs, and some prescription drugs

55
Q

Bilirubinuria increases with…

A

extrahepatic biliary obstruction

56
Q

more than ___ WBC/HPF in urine is abnormal

A

5

57
Q

what is the gold standard in evaluating animals’ responses to anemia?

A

reticulocyte count

58
Q

what do we see with stress leukograms?

A

Segments and monocytes are increased and lymphocytes and eosinophils are decreased
SMILED

59
Q

what is the ammonia level that is acceptable?

A

< 2ppm

60
Q

What is the standard of care in regards of time spent with animals?

A

15 min/day for care
6 min/day for feeding
9min day for animal cleaning
per animal

61
Q

what space is needed for group housing cats? Dogs?

A

Cats need at least 18 sqft with no more than 10-12 cats and dogs need that much space with no more than 4-6 dogs

62
Q

when transporting shelter animals…

A

they need to be let out every 4-6 hours and fed once daily for adults and more frequently if less than 6 months old

63
Q

___% of shelter space is to be used for isolation

A

10%

64
Q

___-____ air exchanges needed per hour

A

10-20

65
Q

Cats should have at least ___ cubic feet per cat and more than ____ feet areas from their resting area to the litter box, food, and water bowls

A

30 cubic feet; 2 feet

66
Q

what is the required humidity for animal shelters? What about temperatures?

A

humidity should be about 30-70% and temp should be about 70-80 degrees F

67
Q

More than ___ bilirubin means p is icteric

A

2

68
Q

treatment of UTI with rods with _____

A

amoxi

69
Q

will clav tx pseudomonas?

A

nope

70
Q

Intraosseous administration in birds goes where?

A

Ulna or tibiotarsus

71
Q

what are the anatomical gutters/retractors when there is a dropped pedicle?

A

Right gutter= duodenum and pancreas as retractors
left gutter= colon is the retractor
Uterine body’s retractor is the bladder

72
Q

what teeth in cats are the most likely to be resorptive?

A

premolars

73
Q

stress leukogram might mean the animal has this disease…

A

cushings

74
Q

SDMA measures ___% loss of kidney function and USG measures __% and azotemia measures __% loss therefore ______ is better at detecting early on kidney disease

A

SDMA measures 25% loss kidney function; USG measures 66% loss and azotemia measures 75% loss

75
Q

urine protein creatitine ratio:

A

measures protein in urine against creatinine because creatinine is lost at a constant rate through the kidneys

76
Q

normal urine protein creatinine ratio in dogs is less than ____ and is less than ___ in cats

A

less than 0.5 in dogs and less than 0.4 in cats

77
Q

dog USG should be ____; cat USG should be ____

A

dog USG is more 1.030 and cats is more than 1.035

78
Q

hyperisosthenuria is more than _____ and hypo is less than ____

A

more than 1.045 and hypo is less than 1.007

79
Q

5 isoenzymes of ALP

A

Bone, intestines, kidney, liver, placenta, endogenous, and exogenous enzymes

80
Q

____is more specific for liver (trauma enzyme) and is a leakage enzyme

A

ALT

81
Q

What do we see on labwork with liver failure?

A

decreased glucose, BUN and albumin and cholesterol
normal to increased globulins and Total bilirubin and normal to decreased total proteins

82
Q

what are 2 liver function tests?

A

Ammonia tolerance tests and bile acids assay

83
Q

what interferes with bile acid tests?

A

bilirubin

84
Q

what is treatment for too much ammonia?

A

Lactulose enema or flumazenil

85
Q

What abx crosses the BBB (there are 3 of them)

A

Fluoroquinolones, sulfas, and chloramphenicol

86
Q

talk me through HW treatment in dogs-

A

1 month doxy and macrocyclic lactones and 3 doses of melarsomine injection
1 dose of pred and 2nd dose of injection 30 days later with preventative and pred then 3rd injection 24 hours later

87
Q

HW testing protocols

A

If less than 6 months just start prevent and if more than 6 months old do HW antigen test and microfilaria screening and then if neg start the prevent and retest in 6 months
Antigen test yearly thereafter

88
Q

T/F Melarsomine dichloride is a safe drug

A

false

89
Q

T/F macrocyclic lactones target microfilaria and are safe

A

true

89
Q

D2AP can be given as early as ___ weeks

A

6 weeks

90
Q

Lepto can be given as early as ___ weeks

A

8 weeks

91
Q

lyme vaccine can be given as early as ____ weeks

A

8 weeks

92
Q

Influenza vaccine can be given as early as ___ weeks

A

6 weeks

93
Q

bordetella can be given as early as ____ weeks

A

3 weeks if using intranasal

94
Q

what usually causes symmetrical vs non symmetrical alopecia?

A

Symmetrical alopecia is systemic endocrine disorders (cushings), autoimmune (pemphigus), allergies

Asymmetrical alopecia is usually external disease, parasites, infection, contact allergens, neoplasia, etc.

95
Q

what is the half life of ALT and AST in dogs? cats?

A

dogs it is 60-72 hours
in cats it is 6 hours

96
Q

Atopic dermatitis
- type of hypersensitivity?

A

Type 1
- IgE mediated
- allergic rxn

97
Q

When should intradermal testing and allergy therapy be recommended for atopic dermatitis?

A

Clinical signs > 3-4 mo
Seasons becoming longer
Worsening signs

98
Q

Apoquel
- indications for use?
- MOA?
- dosing?

A

Control of pruritus from allergic dermatitis or atopic dermatitis
Selective Janus Kinase inhibitor
0.4-0.6 mg/kg Q12 for 14 days, then Q24
Dogs only, > 12 mo old

99
Q

most common maximum age of onset for atopic dermatitis

A

3 years

100
Q

minimum age for use of apoquel

A

1 year old

101
Q

in cases of food allergy, cross-reactivity occurs when homology reaches ___

A

70%

102
Q

guinea pigs require dietary supplementation with ___

A

vitamin C

103
Q

most common urolith in guinea pigs

A

calcium carbonate

104
Q

what do tyrosine crystals in urine suggest?

A

liver disease in dogs

105
Q

what do ammonium biurate crystals in urine suggest?

A

PSS

106
Q

what do cystine crystals in urine suggest?

A

altered protein metabolism

107
Q

what do oxalate crystals in urine suggest?

A

calcium oxalate monohydrate–> ethylene glycol toxicity

108
Q

high or lower pH with high protein diets

A

lower pH (more acidic)

109
Q

dalmatians and bullies are predisposed to _____ crystals

A

urate

110
Q

bad chronic cutaneous infection skin disease in dogs… what drug regime to know…

A

use steroids for like one week tapered EOD at lowest possible dose AND abx that goes past the time of d/c the steroid so the body will not rebound as bad

111
Q

what drug is Depo-Medrol infection???

A

methylprednisone acetate
beware of making p cushinoid with chronic use

112
Q

Atopica

A

use for itchy dogs and cats
Calcineurin inhibitor, inhibits IL-2 formation and inhibits T cell immunity (like apoquel), immunosuppressant
Inhibits mast cell degranulation, histamine release and prostaglandin release and eosinophil production
can combine with ketoconazole to decrease dose
(we do not use cyclosporin before MCT removal tho because expensive, delayed onset, and not as good as antihistamine at inhibiting MCT degranulation)

113
Q

do not use Apoquel at BID dose for more than __ weeks

A

2 weeks

114
Q

T/F Avoid vaccinating p on Apoquel because they will not mount the immune response

A

False

CVS Final (3 decks)

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