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CVS Final > Info 1 > Flashcards

Info 1 Flashcards

1
Q

D2AP is a ______ vaccine whereas RV is ____

A

recombant/MLV; Killed

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2
Q

feline core vaccines-

A

FVRCP- (Herpes rhinotracheaitis, calicivirus, panleuk), RV and FeLv first year of life

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3
Q

Canine vax sites

A

RF is D2AP
RR RV
LF lyme
LR Lepto

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4
Q

What are the landmarks used for retraction of the uterine body?

A

Bladder

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5
Q

What are the anatomical landmarks for a dropped pedicle?

A

Dorsal to the kidneys

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6
Q

Species of roundworms-

A

Toxocara canis/Toxocara cati

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7
Q

Species of hookworms-

A

Ancylostoma

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8
Q

Species of tapeworms-

A

Dipylidium caninum
Taenia pisiformis
Echinococcus

All present in dogs and cats

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9
Q

What are the species of whipworms

A

Trichuris vulpis found in dogs

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10
Q

Pyrantel pamoate aka strongid aka Nemex tx what kinds of worms?

A

Rounds and hookworms

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11
Q

Praziquantel aka _____ treats…

A

Aka Drontal treats tapeworms

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12
Q

Fenbendazole treats what worms? What is the other name for it in small animals?

A

Treats roundworms, hooks, whips and tapes (only Taenia though), Giardia, and lungworms and lung flukes (only in cats)called Panacur

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13
Q

Interceptor aka ______ tx…

A

Interceptor aka Mibemycin treats heart worms, rounds, hooks, and whips and external parasites like ear mites, scabies, and demodex

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14
Q

Moxidectin aka _____ treats…

A

Moxidectin is Advantage Multi- treats heartworms, hooks, whips, external parasites like ear mites, scabies, and demodex

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15
Q

advantage multi is what two drugs

A

Imidacloprid and moxidectin

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16
Q

Proheart is ____ and only treats this GI parasite

A

Moxidectin and only tx hooks

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17
Q

Ivermectin treats…..

A

heartworms, hooks, external parasites
aka HeartGard

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18
Q

What is the tx for hookworms?

A

Pyrantel, fenbendazole, milbemycin, moxidetin

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19
Q

what is the route of infection of hookworms-

A

percutaneous, paratenic hosts, transmammary transmission –> dogs

Percutaneous, paratenic hosts–> cats

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20
Q

What parasites can be transmitted transmammary?

A

Hooks in dogs only, but rounds in both dogs and cats

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21
Q

whipworm tx-

A

fenbend, milbemycin, moxidectin

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22
Q

what is a parasite that can be transmitted transplacentally?

A

Roundworms in dogs

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23
Q

What common internal parasite has a longer pre-patent period and mostly affects older pups?

A

whipworms (Tricuris vulpis)

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24
Q

What is the tx for coccidia?

A

Sulfa dimethoxine (Albon), Panazuril

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25
Q

Isospora/cystoisospora vs. cryptosporidium–>

A

Isospora/cystoisospora are unsporulated and large oocysts
Cryptosporidium is sporulated small oocytes

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26
Q

what is required for reptile to absorb calcium?

A

UVB 290-320

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27
Q

Deficiency of calcium in reptiles=

A

nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism

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28
Q

Normal USG in cats-

A

> 1.035

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29
Q

N USG in dogs-

A

> 1.030

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30
Q

Isostenuria is USG in what range?

A

1.008-1.012

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31
Q

Pre-renal azotemia USG

A

high (so like 1.055 and above)

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32
Q

Renal USG

A

Isosthenuria USG 1.008-1.012

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33
Q

ferret urinary stones are caused by what?

A

Caused usually by plant based diets and causes alkaline urine which causes struvite stones

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34
Q

At what age do female guinea pigs require a C-section in gestation?

A

6 months old

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35
Q

E. ewingii-

A

Granulocytic
caused by Ambylomma americanum tick aka lone star tick and is the most common type of Ehrichila
1-2 weeks post infection will have fever, polyarthritis, lethargy, walking on eggshells, lameness, lymphadenopathy, thrombocytopenia

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36
Q

E. canis

A

Acute phase is 1-3 weeks post infection with non specific CS that may be self limiting, thrombocytopenia
Can be subclinical for months to years with it appearing to be in a recovering acute phase
chronic phase– signs from immune response consistent with nose bleeds, fever, lethargy, weight loss, retinal hemorrhages, uveitis, ataxia

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37
Q

Ehrlichia test

A

ELISA detects antibodies and only indicates exposure not necessarily infection
PCR indicates active infection where the DNA Is detected from the blood sample

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38
Q

What is the incubation period for parvo?

A

4-14 days

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39
Q

pyoderma is most often seen as what under the microscope? What does each thing mean?

A

Yeast- malassezia
Rods- pseudomonas, E. coli
Cocci- staph

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40
Q

what do we tx pyoderma with?

A

TX with first line abx (Cephalexin, Clind, Clavamox)
2nd line Cefpodoxime, Cefovecin

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41
Q

Female dog UTI with rods present, what do we think? What do we tx with?

A

Likely E. coli, Proteus, or Klebisella
Tx with 1st line abx Amoxi
2nd line abx Cephalexin

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42
Q

Male dog UTI–

A

Prostatitis or urinary calculi causing it, tx with Fluoroquinolone, sulfas, or chloramphenicol

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43
Q

Atopic dermatitis is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type 1; IgE- allergies

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44
Q

Food hypersens. are usually what types of hypersens. rxns?

A

Usually types 1, 3, and 4

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45
Q

Food trial needs to be how long? What is considered a positive response to a food allergy?

A

10-12 weeks at least, a positive allergy response is when the allergies completely resolve by 6 weeks

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46
Q

What is apoquel?

A

Seletive Janus kinase inhibitor- dogs only > 12 months and older, avoid with other immunosuppressives

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47
Q

What are the parts of the periodontium?

A

Gingiva, cementum, periodontal ligament, alveolar bone

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48
Q

What are the stages of dental disease?

A

Gingivitis (only reversible stage), early periodontal disease- moderate- to severe

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49
Q

Can only collect ___% of blood from a bird and where can you draw from?

A

1%; can draw from the jugular, superficial ulnar bone and MT/caudal tibial bone

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50
Q

What are the IVC sites in birds??

A

Rightlar, basila vein, MT/caudal tibia

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51
Q

In what order should you do optho diagnostic testing?

A

Shimer tear test (normal is >15 mm/min), Fl. stain, pressures (normal is 10-25mmHg)

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52
Q

What tapeworm requires a higher dose of praziquantel?

A

Spirometra

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53
Q

What internal parasite egg has only an operculum on one side?

A

Paragonimus kellicotti (lungworm), will have resp. signs and forms cysts in the lungs
IH is crawfish

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54
Q

What is gold standard for diagnosing anemia?

A

Reticulocyte count (high means regeneration)

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55
Q

PCV is counted and more accurate than ___

A

Hct

56
Q

Abx for use in guinea pigs (hindgut fermenters)–

A

Chloramphenicol, TMS, Enrofloxacin, avoid alllll beta lactams because they are hindgut fermenters

57
Q

what are the 4 components of the periodontum?

A

Gingiva, cementum, periodontal ligament, and alveolar bone

58
Q

What are the 3 most common causes of infectious folliculitis in dogs??

A

Dermatophytosis, demodex, bacterial causes

59
Q

___ in ferrets has bimodal age distribution

A

lymphoma

60
Q

Max periodontal pocket depth in dogs and cats–>

A

dogs is 1-3mm
Cats is 1mm and less

61
Q

Roundworms are ___ and _____ in dogs only but only ____ in cats

A

Transmammary and transplacental in dogs and only transmammary transmission in cats

62
Q

Coccidia tx is

A

Sulfa/Albon

63
Q

Best first line antibiotic for bacterial pyoderma is what?

A

Cephalexin and Clavamox

64
Q

What is the only pathogen to use fluoroquinolones for as the first line tx?

A

Pseudomonas

65
Q

What are the 4 serovars for leptospirosis vax?

A

Pomona, Icterohemorrhagia, Grippotyphosa, and canicola

66
Q

What is the Dirofilaria immitis lifecycle?

A

Overall takes 7-9 months
consists of mosquito becoming infected- matures in malpighian tubules- larval stages L1, L2, L3- L3 is transmitted to p through mosquito bites- molts into L4 in the patient’s body- matures to juvenile on day 50-70 and then migrates to the pulmonary artery where it reaches sexually maturity at day 120 post infection

67
Q

dogs are most likely to get caval syndrome if there’s more than how many worms and if they are in what anatomical locations?

A

If there are more than 40 worms and if they are in the right ventricle, atrium, +/- the vena cava

Caval syndrome occurs when worms obstruct the tricuspid valve

68
Q

HWT only detects ____ whereas the other tickborne diseases are ____ tests

A

antigen; antibody

69
Q

How to do the modified knott test:

A

Mix 1mL EDTA with 9mL 2% formalin and centrifuge, pour off the liquid and add a drop of methylene blue to sediment and place on slide, examine under microscope on low power for microfilariae

this test is used for a more accurate microfilariae result because it is more concentrated technique and can also be used to differentiate D. immitis from non-pathogenic A. reconditum

70
Q

What do we see on rads usually with heartworm infection?

A

Cardiac silhouette will have right enlargement (reverse D) and there will be enlarged, torturous truncated pulmonary arteries esp. in the caudal lobes

71
Q

what should you do before giving melarsomine to your HW + p?

A

2 months of prevention with 1 month of Doxycycline

72
Q

When should you test for HW micofilariae post injection with melarsomine? When should you retest for the antigen snap test??

A

Test for HW microfil. 1 month post injection; do an antigen snap test 9 months post last injection

73
Q

elective sx can be done how soon after tx of heartworm disease?

A

6 months

74
Q

What an attenuated/liver or modified live vaccine?

A

Long duration immunity with induction of cellular and humoral immunity, may result in viral shedding, requires careful storage and reversion to virulence is possible but very, very rare

75
Q

Inactivated (killed) vaccins–

A

Cannot induce disease, less immunogenic and has a shorter immunity than attenuated, requires adjuvant to induce immunity and may not protect against infection, protects against disease instead
Ex: Rabies and flu

76
Q

Recombinant vaccine-

A

uses gene of pathogen inserted into a virus/bacteria plasmid/ protein. Has significant variability in immunity duration and booster

77
Q

Toxoid vaccine–

A

creates immunity to toxin produced by organism instead of organism
ex- rattlesnake vaccine

78
Q

Attenuated vaccines are ones that can usually prevent ___ and ___ and what vaccines are these types?

A

Prevents infections and disease; all parvo and adenovirus vax are attenuated vacines

79
Q

what vaccine types have the shortest duration of immunity?

A

Toxoid vaccines

80
Q

What are some non core vax in cats?

A

Bordetella and Chlamydia

81
Q

Age of onset of atopic dermatitis is usually….

A

4 months to 7 years

82
Q

What are some non-abx tx of atopic dermatitis???

A

Flea control, allergy diet, add glucosamine, atopica, cyclosporine, apoquel, cytopoint, shampoos/other topicals

83
Q

What drug is a JAK inhibitor that also causes IL3 inhibition but 2,4,6,13 as well and we should not use it with another immunosuppressant

A

Apoquel

84
Q

How old does a p need to be before you can use apoquel?

A

At least 1 year old

85
Q

Cytopoint drug MOA

A

selective with antibody that inhibits IL31- advantages are that it has 24 hour onset, lasts 4-6 weeks, and no age restriction and is safe with other meds

86
Q

what is the age of onset for food hypersensitivity

A

< 1 year old, or more than 7 years old
Bimodal age distribution

87
Q

General characteristics and effects of canine distemper virus–

A

airborne transmission, resp./GI signs, C/S begin ADR, then coughing, anorexia circling, convulsions, can cause perm. neuro issues

88
Q

Adenovirus CS-

A

Fever, conjunctivitis, tonsils are enlarged, congestion of mm

89
Q

B cells/lymphocytes-

A

humoral immunity, T lymphocytes mean cell-mediated, cytokine response

90
Q

What are CBC results that are consistent with inflammation?

A

Leukocytosis with mature neutrophils, left shift, leukopenia if severe

91
Q

T lymphocytes–

A

Cell-mediated, cytokine response

92
Q

Degenerative left shift-

A

more bands than segments
remember bands are the babies (immature neutrophils)

93
Q

stress leukogram–

A

mature neutrophils, lymphopenia, monocytosis

94
Q

nonregenerative anemia are usually ____ and ____ or ____ and ____

A

normochromic and normocytic or microcytic and hypochromic

95
Q

Anisocytosis means

A

different RBC sizes

96
Q

Polycythemia means…

A

increased PCV, RBC, Hgb

97
Q

CBC parameters that describe the RBC size is ….

A

MCV

98
Q

What is the term for variation in RBC shape?

A

Poikilocytes

99
Q

Spherocytes are densely stained RBC with central pallor and mean what?

A

IMHA, Mismatched blood transfusion, or ZInc

100
Q

What is the term for RBC fragments usually secondary to trauma of RBC

A

Schistocytes

101
Q

What are acanthocytes?

A

Irregular, speculated RBC with a few, unevenly distributed projections (cats with hepatic lipidosis, dogs with Hemangiosarcoma)

102
Q

What is the gold standard for eval. a patient’s response to anemia?

A

Reticulocytes (immature RBC with increased RNA and organelles)

103
Q

What do ferrets sometimes get as far as viruses?

A

RV, influenza, helicobacter infections

104
Q

___ stones are the most common urinary stones in ferrets. Ferrets have adrenal associated issues sometimes…..How an we prevent them?

A

Struvite; can spay and neuter (adrenal dz ferrets will have alopecia, males with sexual behaviors, females with vulvular enlargement and alopecia being symmetrical and starts caudal and moves cranially

105
Q

what heart valve is on the right side?

A

tricuspid

106
Q

T/F Kittens younger than 4 weeks old should not be vaccinated against panleukopenia because risk of causing cerebellar hypoplasia

A

True

107
Q

___ vaccines have the possibility of inducing disease

A

attenuated

108
Q

What are the 5 principles of effective communication?

A

Ensuring an interaction rather than a direction transmission process, reducing unnecessary uncertainty, planning and thinking in terms of outcomes, demonstrating dynamism NOT absolutism, and following a helical model

109
Q

we love shot put communication T/F

A

False, shot put is usually unidirectional and one and dose conversations

110
Q

we prefer _____ communication vs shot put

A

helical model communication

111
Q

Banded neutrophils are

A

babies/immature

112
Q

T lymphocytes vs. B lymphocytes

A

B lymphocytes- Large, antibodies, humoral immune response

T lymphocytes - Helper T cells, killer T cell, cell-mediated immune response

113
Q

what are some causes for pre-renal azotemia???

A

dehydration, heart diseases (hypovolemic state), other causes of hypovolemia like heat stroke, vomiting, diarrhea, burn patients, if patient is on ACE inhibitors, high protein diet (people food, raw diet, puppy and kitten food- is very high protein)

114
Q

what are some causes of renal azotemia??

A

NSAIDs, infectious (Lyme and Lepto), kidney failure (more than 70% functioning loss), nephrotoxin ingestion (raisins and grapes), gentamicin, amikacin (aminoglycoside drugs), ethylene glycol (antifreeze), lilies in cats, amyloidosis (Shar peis predisposed and Siamese), ischemia or infarcts in the kidneys, chemo drug S/E

115
Q

Glucose more than ____g/dL in dogs and ____ g/dL in cats means glucose will be spilling over in the urine

A

more than 180g/dL in dogs and more than 280g/dL in cats

116
Q

what does it mean if urine PC ratio is more than 1???

A

likely protein losing nep.

117
Q

if we have a p with elevated bilirubin and we see they are jaundiced, we know the bilirubin is more than __

A

2

118
Q

ALT half life in dogs vs cats

A

3-6 hours in dogs and about 3 days in cats

119
Q

what liver function test do we reach for if bilirubin is high?

A

bile acids

120
Q

Causes for liver insufficiency

A

Sago Palm, Carprofen/NSAIDs, Leptospirosis, mushrooms, sulfa drugs, blue-green algae, acetaminophen especially in cats, diazepam in cats, chemo drugs, phenobarbital, neoplasia (liver cancers and hemangiosarcoma mostly), any bile duct disease, significant gall bladder disease like gall bladder mucocele, gall stones, bad pancreatitis, FIP, marijuana, xylitol, Ketoconazole

121
Q

Pedicle tie is specific to female CATS not dogs, even puppies
T/F

A

T

122
Q

What is an extension of the proper ligament and suspensory ligament needs to be isolated and cut

A

suspensory ligament

123
Q

Retractors of the bladder “CUB”

A

colon, urinary bladder

124
Q

what test can we do if we want to know if a p is spayed or neutered

A

antimullerian hormones

125
Q

dogs have ____ ovarian pedicles and ____ uterine bodies, cats are the OPPOSITE

A

short ovarian pedicles and long uterine bodies

126
Q

Know things about excessive dog barking

A

Excessive noise from dogs barking is a particular welfare concern because of both the magnitude and duration, sound levels in shelters can easily exceed 100decibals and any sound in the 90-120 db range can cause irreversible hearing loss in humans, 50-70db can cause hearing loss in rabbits and rodents

Wear hearing protection, noise cancelling architecture, keep cats in other rooms away from dog rooms, play music, make sure dogs can see each other

127
Q

Know where shelters are supposed to maintain their overall population

A

Has to do with capacity for care but look up
Capacity for care, the population in their care must not exceed the capacity for care
Spend at least 15 mins of care time per day feeding and cleaning each animal housed in the shelter (9 mins for cleaning and 6 mins for feeding)

For example: 40 animals would mean 40 animals at 15 mins/animal= 10 hours

128
Q

Know some of the acceptable forms of humane euthanasia in a shelter

A

The most humane methods used for euthanasia of shelter animals are IV or intraperitoneal injection of a sodium pentobarbital solution

IP route for only cats, kittens, and small puppies and they should be placed in a quiet, dark confined regions prior to event to prevent excitement

Intra-cardiac injections are unacceptable UNLESS the p is unconscious, comatose or under anesthesia (lack of deep pain/toe withdrawal reflex)
Premed with ketamine and xylazine

DO NOT use acepromazine because it does not provide any analgesia and has unpredictable effects
Avoid using xylazine alone because it can cause vomiting which is a welfare concern especially if a muzzle is being used

Death must be verified by multiple methods by trained staff

Sticking the heart with a needle and making sure it does not contract, no pupillary nor corneal reflexes, no toe withdrawal, no pulse, no respiration, no heartbeat, presence of rigor mortis,

129
Q

cyclosporin is a ___ cell suppressant. What is its MOA?

A

T cell; Cyclosporine inhibits the intracellular enzyme calcineurin which makes it immunosuppressive

130
Q

flea allergies are a type ___ and ___ hypersens

A

1 and 4

131
Q

atopica aka ____

A

cyclosporine

132
Q

cytopoint binds to ____ and does not affect other cells, can use in puppies and p with cancer

A

Il-31 inhibitor

133
Q

which type of vaccines do NOT replicate?

A

Killed/inactivated and recombinant

134
Q

what type of feline vaccines are inactivated/killed?

A

FVRCP vaccine, FeLV, FIV, RV

135
Q

read the guidelines

A

CVS Final (3 decks)

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