Inflammation, Inflammatory Disorders, and Wound Healing Flashcards

1
Q

What are two stimuli for acute inflammation?

A

Infection - goal is eliminate pathogen

Tissue necrosis - goal is to clear necrotic debris

Pathoma, page 11

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2
Q

What is the role of TLRs in innate immunity/acute inflammation? Give an example.

A

TLRs are receptors present on cells of the innate immune system (e.g. macrophages, DCs) that enable the cells to recognize microbial PAMPs (pathogen-associated molecular patterns). Activation of TLR stimulates upregulation of NF-kB to “switch on” innate immunity. A classic example is TLR4/CD14 of macrophages and LPS of gram-negative bacteria.

TLRs are ALSO present on cells of ADAPTIVE immunity (e.g. lymphocytes).

Pathoma, page 11

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3
Q

How are arachidonic acid generated? What are the enzymes involved with generating AA metabolites? What functions do each category of metabolites carry out?

A

AA are released from phosphoplipid membrane by phopholipase A2, then acted upon by either cyclooxygenase or 5-lipooxygenase to produce either prostaglandins (PGs) or leukotrienes (LTs), respsectively.

PGs:

1) PGI2/D2/E2 - vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
2) PGE2 - pain and fever

LTs:

1) LTB4 - attracts/activates neutrophils
2) LTC4/D4/E4 - vasoconstriction, bronchospasm (slow reacting substances of anaphylaxis), and increased vascular permeability

Pathoma, page 11

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4
Q

What four mediators of neutrophils?

A

Leukotriene B4
C5a
IL-8
Bacterial products

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5
Q

Where are mast cells distributed? What are three “triggers” of mast cell activation? How do the immediate and delayed responses of mast cells contribute to immune response?

A

Mast cells are widely distributed throughout connective tissues.

Activators of mast cells include:

1) Tissue trauma
2) Complement C3a and C5a
3) IgE cross-linking by antigen

Immediate response involves preformed histamine granules that mediate vasodilation (arterioles) and increased vascular permeability (post-capillary venules).

Delayed response involves AA metabolites, ESPECIALLY LTs, to help maintain innate immune response.

Pathoma, page 12

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6
Q

What are the three complement pathways? What are the factors involved?

A

Pathways:

1) Classical - C1 binds IgG or IgM that is bound to antigen
2) Alternative - direct activation by microbial products
3) Mannose-binding lectin - MBL binds microbial mannose

All pathways result in activation of C3 convertase, which mediates C3 –> C3a and C3b. C3b produces C5 convertase, which mediates C5 –> C5a and C5b. C5b complexes with C6-9 to form MAC.

C3a and C5a - activates mast cells –> degranulation
C5a - chemotactic factor for neutrophils
C3b - opsonin for phagocytosis
MAC - C5b, C6-9. perforates microbial membrane

Pathoma, page 12

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7
Q

What are the two inflammatory mediators of pain?

A

PGE2, generated from cyclooxygenase acting on arachidonic acid.

Bradykinin, generated from Hageman factor (XII)-activated kinin that cleaves high-molecular weight kininogen (HMWK). Bradykinin also mediates vasodilation and increased vascular permeability, similar to that of histamines.

Pathoma, page 12

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8
Q

How is Hageman Factor (Factor XII) activated and what other pathways does it stimulate?

A

Released by liver in inactive form and activated by exposure to subendothelial or tissue collagen.

Activates:

1) Coagulation/fibrinolytic system - can lead to DIC, especially during severe gram-negative sepsis
2) Complement system
3) Kinin system

Pathoma, page 12

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9
Q

Describe normal flow pattern within undilated blood vessel. How does that change with inflammation and what mediates that change?

A

Normally, in undilated vessels heavy molecules travel in laminar flow within the center of the vessel. However, upon activation of inflammation vasodilation of post-capillary venules occur (mediated by prostaglandins, histamines).

Vasodilation results in margination of these molecules, which then travel in the periphery of vessels to allow interaction with endothelial surface molecules.

Pathoma, page 13

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10
Q

What is the mechanism of leukocyte rolling and what factors are involved?

A

Selectins are expressed on endothelial cells. P-selectins are released by Weibel-Palade bodies after stimulation by histamines. E-selectins are induced by TNF and IL-1.

Selectins interact with leukocytic sialyl Lewis X factor to mediate the rolling process.

Pathoma, page 13

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11
Q

Which molecules are involved in the adhesion phase of neutrophil recruitment?

A

ICAMs/VCAMs are upregulated on endothelial cells by TNF/IL-1. Integrins are upregulated on leukocytes by C5a and LTB4.

Interactions between these two groups of molecules result in firm adhesion.

Pathoma, page 13

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12
Q

What are the clinical findings of leukocyte adhesion deficiency (LAD)? Cause of deficiency?

A

LAD is commonly due to autosomal recessive defect of integrin CD18 on leukocytes, thereby impairing leukocyte adhesion.

Common findings include delayed umbilical separation, increased neutrophil circulation (decrease in marginal pool population in lungs), and increased bacterial infections + lack of pus formation.

Pathoma, page 13

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13
Q

Which chemotactic factors mediate neutrophil transmigration and chemotaxis?

A

C5a, LTB4, IL-8, bacterial products

Pathoma, page 13

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14
Q

Describe the mechanism of phagocytosis.

A

Phagocytosis usually “blind” action with no specificity, but can be guided by opsonins like IgG and C3b.

Phagocytosis starts off with extension of pseudopods from leukocytes that uptakes target to form phagosome. Phagosome then trafficks to meet and fuse with lysosome to form phagolysosome that leads to destruction of pathogen.

Pathoma, page 13

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15
Q

Etiology for Chediak-Higashi syndrome? Clinical features?

A

Autosomal recessive mutation resulting in defect in protein-trafficking (“railroad track defect”).

Increased risk of pyogenic infections, albinism, giant granules in leukocytes, defective primary hemostasis, peripheral neuropathy

Pathoma, page 13

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16
Q

Cause of chronic granulomatous disease? How do we screen for CGD and what is the mechanism for this test?

A

X-linked or autosomal recessive defect in NADPH oxidase –> poor O2 dependent killing.

Recurrent infections and granuloma formation with CATALASE-POSITIVE organisms: Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas cepacia, Serratia marcescens, Nocardia, Aspergillus. (SPANS).

We use nitroblue tetrazolium test (NBT) with incubated leukocytes, which turns blue if NADPH oxidase can convert O2 to superoxide–colorless if defective.

Pathoma, page 14

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17
Q

Mechanism in generating O2 dependent killing for leukocytes?

A

O2 –> superoxide by NADPH oxidase (oxidative burst)

Superoxide –> H2O2 by superoxide dismutase (respiratory burst)

H2O2 –> HOCl (bleach) by myeloperoxidase

Pathoma, page 13-14

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18
Q

Mechanism for O2 independent killing?

A

Less effective than O2 dependent killing.

Involves enzymes present in leukocyte secondary granules: macrophage lysozymes, major basic protein in eosinophils.

Pathoma, page 14

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19
Q

How is pus formed?

A

Pus is formed as a result of resolution of neutrophils. After controlling infection via phagocytosis/O2 dependent or independent killing mechanisms, neutrophils undergo APOPTOSIS and disappear within 24 hours after resolution of inflammatory stimulus.

Pus consists of dead neutrophils in fluid.

Pathoma, page 14

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20
Q

How do macrophages home to site of infection? What is their primary mechanism of killing?

A

Arrive in tissue using similar mechanisms to neutrophils.

However, unlike neutrophils, their primary mechanism of killing is O2 independent killing with enzymes (lysozymes) in secondary granules.

Pathoma, page 14

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21
Q

Describe the means (and factors involved) by which macrophages mediate the following processes:

1) Resolution and healing
2) Continued acute inflammation
3) Abscess
4) Chronic inflammation

A

1) If neutrophils do a good job in clearing infection, macrophages secrete anti-inflammatory cytokines (IL-10 and TGF-B).
2) If infection requires more neutrophils to manage, macrophages secrete neutrophil-recruiting chemotactic cytokine IL-8.
3) If infection/acute inflammatory process needs to be walled off to protect organ macrophages can mediate formation of fibrosis around area with fibrogenic growth factors/cytokines.
4) If neutrophils are insufficient in clearing infection (e.g. virus), macrophages can activate CD4 T-cells via MHC II presentation.

Pathoma, page 14

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22
Q

Give a brief description of T cell development. What are the minimum requirements for general T cell activation.

A

T cell progenitors produced in the bone marrow.

In thymus, they are “educated” and undergo receptor rearrangement to become either CD4+ OR CD8+ T cells. The TCR complex (TCR and CD3) used for antigen surveillance.

Activation requires:

1) Antigen/MHC complex binding
2) Second additional signal

Pathoma, page 14-15

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23
Q

CD4+ helper T cell activation? Different subsets and cytokines released?

A

Activation: APCs (DCs or macrophages) process extracellular antigens and present on MHCII (APCs) to CD4+. Secondary signal involves CD28 on CD4+ T helper cells and B7 on APC activates TC to secrete different cytokines depending on helper cell subtype.

Th1 subset:
IL-2 - aids in CD8 activation (second signal) + TC GF
IFN-gamma - macrophage activation

Th2 subset:
IL-4 - IgG --> IgE class switch
IL-5 - BC maturation to plasma cells + class switch to IgG.  Also plays role in eosinophil maturation and chemotaxis.  Class switch to IgA.    
IL-10 - suppresses Th1 phenotype

Pathoma, page 15

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24
Q

CD8+ cytotoxic T cell activation? Mechanism in cell killing?

A

Activation: First signal involves TCR complex and MHCI/Antigen interaction. MHCI present on ALL nucleated cells and platelets. Second signal is IL-2 from Th1 subset.

Killing via caspase activation and apoptosis. Achieved by either CD8 perforin/granzyme release or extracellular signaling pathway with TC FasL/target Fas interaction.

Pathoma, page 15

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25
Q

Describe the development of B cells. What are the two ways in which they can be activated?

A

IMMATURE B cells produced in bone marrow. They then undergo immunoglobulin rearrangement to become surface-expressing IgM or IgD naive B cells

One way activation can occur is by recognition of antigen by IgM or IgD, resulting in IgM or IgD-SECRETING plasma cells.

Another means of activation involves B cell antigen presentation to CD4 T helper cells via MHCII. Second signal B cell CD40 interaction with Th2 CD40L interaction –> results in IL4/5 secretion that mediates isotype switch, hypermutation, and maturation to plasma cells.

Pathoma, page 15

26
Q

What is the DEFINING feature of a granuloma? What are other potential characteristics?

A

Defining feature of a granuloma are (aggregates) of epithelioid histiocytes, which are macrophages with abundant pink cytoplasm (macrophages usually have clear, foamy cytoplasm).

Other features may include:

1) Being surrounded by giant cells
2) Rim of lymphocytes

Pathoma, page 15

27
Q

Noncaseating vs. caseating granulomas

A

Noncaseating granulomas lack central necrosis. Differentials can include reaction to foreign material, sarcoidosis, beryllium exposure, Crohn disease (HIST HALLMARK NON-CASEATING, ulcerative colitis do NOT have granulomas but instead have CRYPT ABSCESSES), cat scratch disease (stellate-shaped granuloma).

Caseating granulomas exhibit central necrosis. Etiologies include TB and fungal infections.

Pathoma, page 15

28
Q

Consider a patient for which biopsy reveals caseating granuloma. What test(s) would you run to elucidate the etiology?

A

TB - AFB/acid-fast stain (for mycobacterium)
Fungal infection - silver/GMS stain

Pathoma, page 15

29
Q

Mechanism for granuloma formation?

A

Macrophage interacts with T helper cells via MHCII/antigen presentation. Macrophages then secrete IL-12, which promotes CD4+ helper cells to differentiate into Th1 cells. Th1 cells then secrete IFN-gamma that stimulates macrophage conversion to epithelioid histiocytes and giant cells.

Pathoma, page 16

30
Q

Genetic abnormality for DiGeorge Syndrome? Embryonic abnormality and associated classical clinical features?

A

22q11 microdeletion –> failure to develop 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches.

Lack of thymus –> T cell deficiency
Lack of parathyroid –> hypocalcemia
Abnormalities of heart, great vessels, face

Pathoma, page 16

31
Q

Defects in SCID? Potential etiologies? Treatment?

A

Defect in cell-mediated (T-cell) AND humoral (B-cell) immunity.

Etiologies:

1) Cytokine receptor defects - necessary for B and T cell proliferation/maturation
2) Adenosine deaminase deficiency (ADA) - necessary for purine salvage pathway –> adenosine/deoxyadenosine build up is toxic to lymphocytes
3) MHCII deficiency - necessary for CD4+ helper T cell activation and cytokine production (remember CD4+ aids in both CD8+ and B cell activation).

Treatment:
Sterile isolation (“bubble baby”)
Stem cell transplant

Pathoma, page 16

32
Q

X-linked agammaglobulinemia

A

X-linked mutatation of Bruton tyrosine kinase (Btk) needed for maturation of naive B cells (pre and pro-B cells) to Ig-secreting plasma cells.

Prone to bacterial infections, as well as enteroviral (pox, coxsackie) and Giardial infections (both infect mucosal surfaces of the GI tract, normally protected by IgA).

Pathoma, page 16

33
Q

Hyper-IgM syndrome

A

Characterized by elevated IgM and low IgA/G/E –> recurrent pyogenic infections (due to poor opsonization), especially at mucosal surfaces.

Defect in either CD40L on T cells or CD40 on B cells necessary for activation of CD4+ helper cells to Th2 to secrete cytokines IL-4/5 necessary for B cell activation/class-switching.

Pathoma, page 17

34
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome due to? Triad of clinical features?

A

X-linked mutation in WASP gene (needed for actin polymerization).

TIE:
Thrombocytopenia: increased risk for bleeding (i.e. petechiae of skin/mucosal surfaces)
Immunodeficiency (humoral and cell-mediated)
Eczema

Pathoma, page 17

35
Q

C5-9 complement deficiencies result in increased risk for…

A

Neisseria infections (N. gonorrheaa and meningitidis)

Remember C5b and C6-9 forms MAC!

Pathoma, page 17

36
Q

C1 inhibitor deficiency results in…

A

Hereditary angioedema of skin (esp. periorbital) and mucosal surfaces

Pathoma, page 17

37
Q

Describe the process in development of central tolerance in the thymus?

A

T cell progenitors produced in the bone marrow and travel to the thymus where they will become double positive T cells (CD4+/CD8+).

In the thymic cortex, they then undergo positive selection, where they are assessed for their ability to recognize MHC/Ag (MHC restriction). Failure to pass positive selection results in apoptosis.

In the thymic medulla, the T cells are now single positive (CD4+ or CD8+) and proceed to negative selection, during which central tolerance is developed. Dendritic cells and medullary epithelial cells present thymic and peripheral self-antigens, respectively, to the T cells. Recognition of self-antigens results in apoptosis. AIRE is necessary for expression of self-antigens and development of central tolerance!

Pathoma, page 17

38
Q

What is the result of mutation(s) in the AIRE gene?

A

Results in autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome as a consequence of inability to develop central tolerance.

Pathoma, page 17

39
Q

Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome (ALPS)?

A

Result of mutations in Fas apoptosis pathways –> cannot kill T or B cells that are self-reactive in the context of loss of peripheral tolerance.

Need viable factors of the pathway: Fas/CD95, FasL, caspases (esp. caspase 10).

Antibodies produced against own cells –> cytopenias

Proliferation of lymphocytes –> expansions of lymphoid compartments/generalized lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly; may eventually result in lymphoma

Pathoma, page 17

40
Q

What are regulatory T cells (Treg) and what roles do they play in immunity?

A

Tregs are a subset of CD4+ T cells that help monitor/prevent activation of self-reactive T cells. They express CTLA4 that competitively binds B7 to suppress second signal necessary for T-helper cell activation. Additionally, they also produce anti-inflammatory cytokines IL-10 and TGF-beta.

Pathoma, page 17

41
Q

What is the clinical significance of CD25 and FOXP3 in Tregs?

A

CD25 (IL-2R) polymorphisms associated with autommune diseases like MS and DM1.

FOXP3 (TF necessary for cell development and maintenance) mutations lead to IPEX syndrome: immune dysregulation, polyendocrinopathy, enteropathy, X-linked.

Pathoma, page 17

42
Q

Explain how bystander activation and molecular mimicry may provide an explanation for environmental triggers of autoimmunity in a genetically predisposed individual.

A

In a genetically predisposed individual (i.e. one that already has mutations/polymorphisms) would have a pool of self-reactive immune cells. However, those not-yet-activated cells alone are not sufficient to result in autoimmunity.

In bystander activation, some form of infection/environmental trigger “revs up” the immune system, and as a “bystander” effect of that is also expansion of those self-reactive cells that can lead to autoimmunity.

In molecular mimicry, a bacterial infection may expose body to a microbial molecule that is similar to self antigen. As a result, the self-reactive cells would be activated to expand.

Pathoma, page 18

43
Q

What is the current paradigm in explaining the pathophysiology for SLE? How is deficiency of early complement proteins associated with SLE?

A

SLE is believed to be a result of type III HSR deposition of antigen-antibody complexes that result in damage to multiple tissues.

For example, if UV radiation hits and damage tissues and results in DNA damage cells will undergo apoptosis. If apoptotic debris is not cleared properly antibodies can be generated against the nuclear material. The antigen-antibody complexes can then be taken up by dendritic cells to activate TLRs, further amplifying the B cell immune response to produce more antibodies. The result is higher levels of these complexes that can activate complement to cause damage to multiple tissues. On labs, we would see a decrease in CH50 (measures complement C1-9 and ability to lyse RBCs), C3, C4 as these factors are used up.

Deficiency of early complement proteins of classical pathway (C1q, C2, C4) associated with SLE since complement is necessary to clear antigen-antibody complexes (C1q, C2, and C4 help make up the C3 convertase that will eventually activate opsonins for clearance).

Pathoma, page 18

44
Q

SLE clinical symptoms?

A

SOAP BRAIN MD

Serositis
Oral ulcers
Arthritis
Photosensitivity
Blood (cytopenias due to Type II HSR)
Renal (proteinuria)
ANA (anti-nuclear antibody)
Immunologic
Neurologic (psychosis, seizures)
Malar rash
Discoid rash
45
Q

How does erythrocytes/RBCs clear antigen-antibody complexes?

A

RBCs express CR1 that binds C3b and carries the antigen-antibody complex over to the spleen for clearance by splenic macrophages.

Pathoma, page 18

46
Q

What is unique about endocarditis classically found in SLE vs. “normal” endocarditis?

A

Libman-Sacks endocarditis is classic finding in SLE, where vegetations are found on BOTH sides of mitral valve.

On the contrary, in”normal” endocarditis we usually find vegetations involving only ONE side of the mitral valve.

Pathoma, page 18

47
Q

Antibodies found in serum of SLE patients that can be used for screening/diagnostic criteria? Significance of each?

A

Antinuclear antibody (ANA) - sensitive but NOT specific (seen in 5% normal populations and associated with many autoimmune disorders) –> GOOD SCREEN

Anti-dsDNA and Anti-Sm are HIGHLY SPECIFIC.
Anti-dsDNA associated with disease activity and renal nephritis –> can be prognostic/used to follow disease activity, especially for remissions.

Pathoma, page 18

48
Q

What are antiphospholipid antibodies an SLE can potentially develop?

What does the antiphospholipid antibody syndrome entail?

A

Anti-cardiolipin - used to screen for syphilis –> SLE patients can develop to give false positive for syphilis screening (need to do specific syphilis test to dx/rule out to make sure SLE patient did not get infected)

Lupus anticoagulant - can give falsely elevated PTT

Anti-B2 glycoprotein

The syndrome includes one of the antiphosphoplipid antibodies and hypercoagulable state (causes venous and arterial thrombosis).

Pathoma, page 19

49
Q

What type antibody is produced from drug-induced lupus? Drugs that commonly generate the antibody?

A

Antihistone antibody.

Procainamide, hydralazine, isoniazid.

Pathoma, page 19

50
Q

Serum factors associated with Sjogren Syndrome?

A

RF: often present even without RA; Sjogren’s can be primary (sicca syndrome) or secondary to another autoimmune disorder like RA

ANA

Anti-ribonucleoproteins: Anti-SSA/Ro and anti-SSB/La; associated with extraglandular manifestations like neuropathy

Pathoma, page 19

51
Q

Why is it important to screen pregnant SLE patients?

A

Pregnant women with anti-SSA at risk for delivering babies with neonatal lupus and congenital heart block

Pathoma, page 19

52
Q

What are we looking for on biopsy for Sjogren Syndrome?

A

Lip biosy, minor salivary glands: lymphocytic sialdadenitis –> lymphocyes attacking minor salivary glands

Pathoma, page 19

53
Q

Cancer risk for Sjogren?

A

INCREASED RISK FOR B-CELL LYMPHOMA (marginal zone) –> UNILATERAL enlargement of parotid gland LATE in disease course

Pathoma, page 19

54
Q

Pathophysiology for systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)?

A

1) Autoimmune reaction against self-antigens in the endothelium or connective tissue –> endothelial dysfunction. Result is increase in adhesin molecules that facilitate WBC migration into connective tissue. Increase in endothelin and decrease in NO for overall vasoconstriction.
2) Increase in TGF-B and PDGF –> activation of fibroblasts –> fibrosis –> vasoconstriction + fibrosis over time = ischemia –> additional fibrosis –> end organ damage –> systemic sclerosis

Pathoma, page 19

55
Q

Antibodies found in limited vs. diffuse type diffuse sclerosis?

A

Limited: anti-centromere antibodies
Diffuse: antibodies to DNA topoisomerase I (anti-Scl-70)

Pathoma, page 20

56
Q

Clinical findings for limited scleroderma?

A

Limited skin involvement (hands and face) with LATE visceral involvement.

CREST:
Calcinosis/anti-Centromere antibodies
Raynaud’s
Esophageal dysmotility (can lead to dysphagia, GERD)
Sclerodactyly: hardening of skin
Telangiectasia: dilation of vessels –> red marks on skin

Pathoma, page 20

57
Q

Clinical findings for diffuse scleroderma?

A

Diffuse skin involvement with EARLY visceral involvement (ANY organ can be involved).
Commonly involved organs include:
1) GI tract - most common, classically esophagus
2) Vessels - Raynaud’s
3) Lung - interstitial fibrosis and pulmonary HTN
4) Kidneys - scleroderma renal crisis (sudden onset acute renal failure + severe HTN)

Pathoma, page 20

58
Q

Defining characteristic of mixed connective tissue disease from serum?

A

ANA + serum antibodies to U1 ribonucleoprotein.

Pathoma, page 20

59
Q

Different classes of tissues based on regenerative capacity?

A

Labile tissues possess stem cells that continuously cycle to regenerate the tissue.
Example:
1) Small/large bowel - stem cells in mucosal crypts
2) Skin - stem cells in basal layer
3) Bone marrow - HSCs (not visible in histology but CD34+)

Stable tissues comprised of quiescent (G0) cells that can reenter cycle to regenerate tissue when necessary.
Example: Liver and proximal renal tubues

Permanent tissues lack significant regenerative potential.
Example: myocardium, skeletal muscles, neurons

Pathoma, page 21

60
Q

What is the initial phase of repair? Main components of initial phase?

A

Initial phase involves formulation of granulation tissue, which consists of:

1) Fibroblasts - deposits type III collagen
2) Capillaries - provides nutrients
3) Myofibroblasts - contract wound

Pathoma, page 21

61
Q

How does the mechanism of replacement of granulation tissue to scar proceed?

A

Granulation tissue composed of type III collagen, which is charateristically pliable. Collagenase, along with COFACTOR ZINC, is required to remove type III collagen to be replaced by type I collagen to provide strength/stability.

Pathoma, page 21