Infectious, Inflammation Flashcards by L Sv

What is an epitope?

each small element of an antigen that a lymphocyte antigen receptor can recognise

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what is a hapten and why is it clinically relevant

a small molecule (ex a drug) that can elicit and immune response (can be recognised by a lymphocyte antigen) when bound to a carrier protein. Some drugs may bind host proteins and inappropriate stimulate a drug reaction. Ex ketoconazole, penicillin degradation product benzylpenicilloic acidprotein’s surface

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Which region on an antibody is responsible for antigen specificity?

Fab region (N-terminal heavy and light chain variable region)

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Which region of the antibody is responsible for the biological activity of the antibody after binding to its target

Fc region (heavy chain C-terminal region). Fc Region: different heavy chains depending on which type of infection: IgD, IgM, IgG, IgA, IgE

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What interactions are used to hold antibody- antigen in place:

Van der Waals forces, hydrogen bonds, electrostatic forces, hydrophobic forces

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What is avidity:

strength of overall binding of the two molecules

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Name two viruses surface antigens

capsid and spike proteins

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What is the capsid?

The protein shell of the virus, enclosing its genetic mutation

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Give some examples on links between innate and adaptive immune system.

IgM and IgG can enhance innate immune mechanism

IgG opsonizing-antibody enhance phagocytosis by binding to antigen. The Fc region of the immunoglobulin is then recognised by phagocytic cells

Fc regions also recognised by NK cells. NK cells degranulate (perforin and granzymes) when bound and lead to antibody-dependant cellular toxicity. Especially effective against enveloped viruses that exit the infected cell by budding on the cell surface

IgE specialised antibodies produced in the presence of antigen (ex parasite). Mast cells and basophils with Fc epsilon receptor adsorb the antigen specific IgE and become “sentizitized” to the parasite

IgM or IgG can initiate classical complement pathway, leading to MAC and release of C3a and C5a

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Give some examples of indicators in antibody titer test

Enzyme, fluorochrome, inorganic particle, radioligand

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What is the principle behind antiserum diagnostics immunoassays

Canine IgG injected into other species. That species will make antibodies against the IgG. The antibodies are chemically labelled and used to detect the presence of canine IgG binding to a specific antigen

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What type of test is the SNAP FeLV test?
a. ELISA
b. compliment fixation test
c. Lateral flow test
d. Immunofluorescense antibody test

Answer: a. ELISA (lepto Witness test is a lateral flow)

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Give 3 examples of innate immune defences against virus

Enterocyte barrier, secretions,
innate immune cells (γδ T cells,
macrophages,
dendric cells,
NK cells

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Give an example of a pattern recognition receptors (PRR) in the cytoplasm that gets activated in viral infection and name 2 interferons that gets secreted after binding if the PRR and the virus

RIG-1 (TLR3, 7, 8, 9are in the endosomal
IFN type I and II

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Name two transcription factors triggered by binding of viral PAMP to PRP on dendritic cell

NF-kappaBeta, IRF

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Give three immunological ways/mechanisms bacteria induce disease in the intestinal tract

enterotoxin that bind to host cell receptors/ion channels and induce osmotic imbalance and secretory diarrhea
Disrupt epithelial surface (enteropathogenic e coli cause attaching and effacing lesions
Invade intestinal mucosa and regional lymph nodes causing a pyogranulomatous inflammatory response
Endotoxemia (gram negative)
Exotoxins (gram positive)

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Which bacterial structures does TLR4, 5, 9 recognise

4 lipopolysaccarider
5 flagellin
9 bacterial CpG DNA

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Th1 cells assist macrophage activity via with interferon?

IFNy

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What are the functions of igA and IgG in bacterial infection in the intestinal tract

Ig A: mucosal defense incl interfering with bacterial adhesins
Ig G: systemic, opsonization, complement activation, neutralization of toxin

What are excretory-secretory (ES) proteins?

Helminth antigenic molecules

What substances are degranulated when IgE binds to Fce receptors on mast cells, there is a crosslinking and further excretory-secretory (ES) protein is absorbed

histamine, heparin, proteases, cytokines

Is cell mediated or humoral immune system the major effector in antiviral immune response?

Cell mediated

In leishmania, what different immune responses (cell or humoral) does resistant and susceptible animals have

resistant animals have a cell mediated response, susceptible has a humoral response

Which (ampicillin or clindamycin) do you pick when you suspect enterococcus or streptococcus?

Ampicillin

Which (ampicillin or clindamycin) do you pick when you suspect toxoplasma gondii or neospora canininum?

clindamycin

Do you use cephalosporin if you suspect anaerobes?

No. unpredictable activity and lack of evidence of efficacy

Give 2 examples of DAMPS

DAMPs include ex cytoplasmic content as ATP, stress proteins (heats hock proteins). HMGB1

Give two examples of MAMPS/PAMPS

MAMPS/PAMPS include ex peptidoglycan (cell wall esp gram positive, lipopolysaccharides (outer membranes of gram neg), repeating mannose sugars, double stranded DNA

Give two examples of cells that express toll like receptors

Expressed by dendritic cells, macrophages, B cells, NK cells, endothelial cells, epithelial cells, fibroblasts

Give 3 examples of PRR (pattern recognition receptors

TLR, C-type lectin receptors, NOD like receptors (also called NLR), RIG like receptors

What are neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs)

- Released by neutrophils - Core of nuclear DNA to which proteins (ex histone, lactoferrin, cathepsins, myeloperoxidase, neutrophil elastase) are attached. - Immobilize extracellular pathogens, that are then destroyed by substances within the NETs or phagocytosed by other phagocytic cells such as macrophages

Name 5 positive and 5 negative acute phase proteins

o C-reactive protein (soluble pattern recognition receptor, PRR), major o serum amyloid A (SAA), major o serum amyloid P (SAP) o fibrinogen o prothrombin o lipase binding protein o alpha-1-acid glycoprotein o Haptoglobin, minor o Procalcitonin (dog) o Ceruloplasmin o Plasminogen, plasminogen activators (-PA), plasminogen activator inhibitor 1 (PAI-1) o mannose-binding lectin o hepcidin o complement factors o alpha-2 macroglobulin - negative acute phase proteins, suppressed by infl cytokines o albumin o transferrin – binds iron o transthyretin o retinol-binding protein o protein C o protein S o antithrombin o transcortin o adiponectin o serum alpha-1 proteinase inhibitor

what are the 4 pathways of the complement system

o Alternative o Lectin o Classical o Terminal

What are the main cell type that type 1 and type II interferon detects.

Type I: virus Type II: macrophages

Via what pathway does interleukin 2 signal. And what disease does a mutation here cause

IL2 is a cytokine, signals via JAK/STAT pathway Canine x-linked severe combined immune deficiency (SCID) IL-2rY mutation -> incapable of responding to IL-2

6 proinflammatory cytokines

TNFa, IL1, IL6, IL8, IL12, IFNy, bradykinin, PAF, IL17, IL23

5 anti-inflammatory cytokines

IL4, IL5, IL9, IL10, IL13, IL22, TGFB, IFNa/B

1 antiviral interferon

IFNa/B

State 3 things you see on a radiograph with a splenic torsion

- Reverse C - Absence of splenic head on VD - Enlargement - Decreased serosa detail - Air vasculogram

What % of splenic masses are neoplastic and % of them are hemangiosarcoma?

2/3 of splenic masses are neoplastic. Of those 60ish%, 50-60% are hemangiosarcoma

Characteristics recognized more commonly with malignancies in spleens?

increased age, golden retrievers, Labrador, German Shepards, hemoperitoneum, lower mass-to-spleen ratio, lower splenic weight, lower total protein, lower PLT count, requirement for transfusions

Factors associated with poor short-term survival for dogs undergoing splenectomy for splenic masses?

preoperative thrombocytopenia, anaemia, intraoperative ventricular arrhythmias, and blood product administration

Most common reasons for short term death undergoing splenectomy?

uncontrolled haemorrhage, portal system thrombosis, PTE

thrombocytopenia: primary, secondary, non-immune mediated in %

o 57% primary o 28% secondary (neoplasia (9,8%), infectious (9,8%), liver disease (5%), drug exposure (3%)) o 15% non-immunmediated due to bone marrow aplasia or consumption coagulopathy.

negative prognostic indicator in IMTP

- melena - elevated BUN - P selectin expression - GpIIbilla expression - ROTEM increased coagulopathy