Infectious Diseases of the Nervous System (bacteria, protozoa, helminths) Flashcards

1
Q

Infections of the membranes surrounding the brain

A

Meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Infections of the substance of the brain

A

Encephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Infections of localized site of the brain

A

Brain abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Infections of the ventricular system of the brain

A

Ventriculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Infections of the outer layer of meninges, between the dura and skull

A

Epidural abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Inflammation of the spinal cord

A

Myelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Inflammation of peripheral nerves

A

Neuritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Irritation of the brain and spinal cord with symptoms stimulating meningitis, but without actual inflammation

A

Meningismus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Nuchal refers to this part of the body

A

Nape of the neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Is there pain with conjunctivitis?

A

No, mostly just irritation or discomfort
(unless there is also involvement of the cornea)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Is conjunctivitis most commonly caused by viruses or bacteria?

A

Most cases are viral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Does conjunctivitis caused by extra- or intracellular bacteria present with purulent exudate and sticky eyelids?

A

Extracellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Does conjunctivitis caused by extra- or intracellular bacteria present as nonpurulent with watery discharge?

A

Intracellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Is preauricular lymphadenopathy present in conjunctivitis caused by extra- or intracellular bactera?

A

Intracellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Is purulent exudate seen in conjunctivitis caused by extra- or intracellular bactera?

A

Extracellular
(have sticky eyelids)
(Intracellular presents as nonpurulent with watery discharge)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Does conjunctivitis caused by Adenovirus or Coxsackie/Enterovirus present as pharyngoconjunctival fever?

A

Adenovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Does conjunctivitis caused by Adenovirus or Coxsackie/Enterovirus present as acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis?

A

Coxsackie virus A24 and Enterovirus 70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If pharmacotherapy is needed to treat bacterial conjunctivitis, an ophthalmic solution containing this drug is used

A

Fluoroquinolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

2 types of Adenovirus that commonly cause conjunctivitis

A

Types 8 and 19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

This virus infects the conjunctiva via blood

A

Measles virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

This virus reactivating in ophthalmic division of trigeminal ganglia causes corneal lesion dendritic ulcer

A

Herpes simplex virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

These types of Chlamydia trachomatis cause trachoma and commonly blindness

A

Types A-C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

These types of Chlamydia trachomatis cause inclusion conjunctivitis
Infection occurs via fingers, or in newborns via birth canal

A

Types D-K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

These 3 microbes can cause eyelid infection (styes) and “sticky eye” in neonates

A

Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
These 2 organisms are the most common cause of conjunctivitis with trauma in adults
Pseudomonas aeruginosa E. coli
26
Inflammation of the cornea that can threaten vision
Keratitis
27
Is there pain with keratitis?
Yes
28
Is there discharge with keratitis?
Usually no
29
Does this describe conjunctivitis or keratitis: Presents with pain and usually without discharge
Keratitis
30
Treatment for bacterial keratitis is typically eye drops containing this drug
Fluoroquine
31
Does conjunctivitis or keratitis etiology have causes including Bacillus species and several gram negative genera, including the Enterobacteriaceae and Pseudomonas
Keratitis
32
Inflammation of the choroid and retina, often caused by infections such as toxoplasmosis, cytomegalovirus, or tuberculosis
Chorioretinitis
33
Chorioretinitis is often caused by infections including these 3 organisms
Toxoplasmosis Cytomegalovirus Tuberculosis
34
Is Chlamydia trachomatis gram positive or negative?
Negative
35
Chlamydia trachomatis has a biphasic development cycle, and this is the metabolically inert, infectious form
Elementary body
36
Chlamydia trachomatis has a biphasic development cycle, and this is the metabolically active, non-infectious form
Reticulate body
37
Is the elementary body form of Chlamydia trachomatis metabolically inert or active?
Inert (is the infectious form)
38
Is the reticulate body form of Chlamydia trachomatis metabolically inert or active?
Active (is the non-infectious form)
39
Is the reticulate body form of Chlamydia trachomatis infectious or non-infectious?
Non-infectious
40
Is the elementary body form of Chlamydia trachomatis infectious or non-infectious?
Infectious
41
This obligate intracellular bacteria is an important cause of preventable blindness in the developing world
Chlamydia trachomatis
42
These 4 strains of Chlamydia trachomatis cause trachoma
Strains A, B, Ba and C
43
This organism causes a chronic inflammatory granulomatous process of the eye surface leading to corneal ulceration, scarring, pannus formation, and blindness Blindness is the result of conjunctival scarring and eyelid deformities
Chlamydia trachomatis (causes Trachoma)
44
These strains of Chlamydia trachomatis cause inclusion conjunctivitis
Strains D-K
45
This drug is the treatment for Chlamydia trachomatis eye infections
Azithromycin
46
Initial diagnostic goals with CNS infections is to obtain this
CSF
47
Empirical therapy with this drug should be initiated in patients with suspected encephalitis, pending results of diagnostic studies
Acyclovir
48
Is CSF normally clear or cloudy?
Clear and colorless (may appear cloudy or turbid in patients with increased concentrations of WBCs, RBCs, bacteria or protein)
49
Yellow or yellow-orange supernatant of centrifuged CSF that is usually a result of RBC lysis
Xanthochromia
50
Xanthochromia is a yellow or yellow-orange supernatant of centrifuged CSF, that is a result of this
RBC lysis
51
These 5 symptoms are the classic presentation of acute meningitis
Fever Headache Meningismus Photophobia Altered mental status
52
Fever, headache, meningismus, photophobia and altered mental status are distinct of presentation of this condition
Acute meningitis
53
What is the primary cell type seen in CSF findings in bacterial causes of meningitis?
Neutrophils
54
What is the primary cell type seen in CSF findings in viral causes of meningitis?
Mononuclear cells
55
Glucose is normal in meningitis caused by this type of microbe (Bacterial, cryptococcal, tuberculosis, or viral?)
Viral (all other caused low glucose)
56
WBC count is significantly elevated in this type of microbe that causes meningitis (Viral, bacterial, tuberculosis, or cryptococcal?)
Bacterial (is still elevated in other causes)
57
These 3 bacteria cause acute bacterial meningitis in patients aged less than 1 month
Streptococcus agalactiae E. coli Listeria monocytogenes
58
These 5 bacteria cause acute bacterial meningitis in patients aged 1-23 months
Strep agalactiae E. coli H. influenzae S. pneumoniae N. meningitidis
59
These 2 bacteria cause acute bacterial meningitis in patients aged 2-50 years
S. pneumoniae N. meningitidis
60
These 4 bacteria cause acute bacterial meningitis in patients aged more than 50 years
S. pneumoniae N. meningitidis L. monocytogenes Aerobic gram negative bacteria
61
Streptococcus agalactiae, E. coli, and Listeria monocytogenes cause acute bacterial meningitidis in this age group
<1 month
62
S. agalactiae, E. coli, H. influenzae, S. pneumoniae, and N. meningitidis cause acute bacterial meningitidis in this age group
1-23 months
63
S. pneumoniae and N. meningitidis cause acute bacterial meningitidis in this age group
2-50 years
64
S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis, L. monocytogenes, and aerobic gram negative bacilli cause acute bacterial meningitidis in this age group
>50 years
65
What is the empirical therapy for acute bacterial meningitis in patients preterm to <1 month old?
Ampicillin + Cefotaxime + Gentamicin
66
What is the empirical therapy for acute bacterial meningitis in adult patients 1 month to 50 years old?
Cefotaxime + Vancomycin + Dexamethasone
67
What is the empirical therapy for acute bacterial meningitis in pediatric patients aged 1 month to 50 years old?
Cefotaxime + Vancomycin +/- Dexamethasone
68
What is the empirical therapy for acute bacterial meningitis in patients greater than 50 years old, or with other diseases?
Ampicillin + Ceftriaxone + Vancomycin + Dexamethasone
69
What is the specific drug therapy for acute bacterial meningitis for gram positive diplococcus (S. pneumoniae)?
3rd gen cephalosporin + Vancomycin (Penicillin G can be used alone or in combination with other antibiotics if susceptibility is known)
70
What is the specific drug therapy for acute bacterial meningitis for gram positive cocci (group B strep)?
Ampicillin + Gentamicin
71
What is the specific drug therapy for acute bacterial meningitis for gram positive bacilli or coccobacilli (L. monocytogenes)?
Ampicillin +/- Gentamicin
72
What is the specific drug therapy for acute bacterial meningitis for gram negative diplococcus (N. meningitidis)?
3rd generation cephalosporin or Penicillin G
73
What is the specific drug therapy for acute bacterial meningitis for gram negative coccobacilli (H. influenzae)?
Dexamethasone + 3rd generation cephalosporin
74
What is the specific drug therapy for acute bacterial meningitis for gram negative bacilli (P. aeruginosa, E. coli, Enteric gram negatives)?
3rd or 4th generation cephalosporin + Gentamicin
75
Is Neisseria meningitidis gram positive or negative?
Negative
76
With is the shape of Neisseria meningitidis?
Kidney-shaped diplococci +/- capsule
77
Is Neisseria meningitidis oxidase positive or negative?
Positive
78
Neisseria meningitidis grows on blood and chocolate agar, as well as this agar that specifically isolates Neisseria
Thayer-Martin (VPN) agar
79
Thayer-Martin (VPN) agar isolates this species of microbe
Neisseria
80
Bacteria with distinct capsular types A, B, C, Y, W-135
Neisseria meningitidis
81
Neisseria meningitidis is carried in this part of the body of healthy people
Nasopharynx
82
Patients who have been in close contain with Neisseria meningitidis receive prophylaxis with either of these 2 drugs
Ciprofloxacin or Rifampin
83
Sudden onset fever, sore throat and headache occur with Neisseria meningitidis, after an incubation period of:
1-3 days
84
Bacteria that often presents with a hemorrhagic rash with petechiae (meingococcemia) The rash is macular and non-blanching, due to the septicemic nature of the organism
Neisseria meningitidis
85
Complications of infection with this bacteria include disseminated intravascular coagulation, endotoxic shock, renal failure
Neisseria meningitidis
86
Is Haemophilus influenzae gram positive or negative?
Negative
87
The majority of cases of Haemophilus influenzae are of this type, which has a capsule and IgA protease
Type B
88
What is the incubation period of Haemophilus influenzae?
5-6 days
89
This bacteria has a more insidious onset than meningococcal or pneumococcal meningitis Less fatal but serious sequelae including delayed language development, mental retardation, and seizures Permanent hearing loss is common
Haemophilus influenzae
90
Patients with close contact to Haemophilus influenzae receive prophylaxis with this drug
Rifampin
91
Haemophilus influenzae best grows on this agar
chocolate agar
92
This organism requires X (hematin) and V (NAD+) factors for growth
Haemophilus influenzae
93
Haemophilus influenzae requires X and V factors for growth What is X factor?
Hematin from RBC
94
Haemophilus influenzae requires X and V factors for growth What is V factor?
NAD+ from serum (S. aureus can excrete NAD, causing satellite phenomenon)
95
Haemophilus influenzae requires X and V factors for growth Which one is hematin from RBC?
X
96
Haemophilus influenzae requires X and V factors for growth Which one is NAD+ from serum?
V
97
Is Streptococcus pneumoniae gram positive or negative?
Positive
98
Streptococcus pneumoniae does this type of hemolysis
Alpha-hemolytic
99
Is Streptococcus pneumoniae catalase positive or negative?
Negative
100
This bacteria causes around half of all meningitis cases
Streptococcus pneumoniae
101
Virulence factors of this bacteria include IgA protease, pneumolysin O, autolysin, and protein A
Streptococcus pneumoniae
102
This organism can be differentiated from viridans streptococci by being sensitive to optochin (a quinine derivative) and sensitive to bile due to increased autolytic amidase
Streptococcus pneumoniae
103
Streptococcus pneumoniae can be differentiated from this organism by being sensitive to optochin (a quinine derivative) and sensitive to bile due to increased autolytic amidase
Viridans streptococci
104
Streptococcus pneumoniae can be differentiated from viridans streptococci by being sensitive to this
Optochin (a quinine derivative) and to bile (due to increased autolytic amidase)
105
Mortality and severe neurologic deficits are 4-20 times more common in patients infected with this bacteria than those with meningitis from other organisms
Streptococcus pneumoniae
106
This bacterial meningitis involves children and adolescents, with acute onset (6-24 hours) and skin rash
Neisseria meningitidis
107
This bacterial meningitidis involves children less than 5 years old, with onset often less acute (1-2 days)
H. influenzae
108
This bacterial meningitidis affects patients of all ages, but especially children less than 2 years old and the elderly. Acute onset may follow pneumoniae and/or septicemia in elderly
S. pneumoniae
109
This species of Neisseria ferments glucose AND maltose
N. meningitidis
110
This species of Neisseria ferments only glucose
N. gonorrhoeae
111
This technique in the diagnosis of bacteria meningitis involves anticapsular antibodies to visualize and type the capsule for all encapsulated pathogens
Quellung reaction
112
This technique in the diagnosis of bacteria meningitis involves the detection of capsular antigens in CSF/blood
Latex particle agglutination
113
What is the type of vaccine against N. meningitidis?
Meningococcal polysaccharide-diphtheria toxoid conjugate vaccine
114
What is the type of vaccine against H. influenzae?
Type B (Hib) conjugate vaccines
115
What are the 2 types of vaccine against S. pneumoniae?
PCV13 (protein conjugate) PPSV23 (capsular polysaccharide alone)
116
S. agalactiae is in this group of Strepcocci
Group B
117
Group B streptococci are this type of hemolytic
Beta-hemolytic
118
Is Group B streptococci catalase positive or negative?
Negative
119
Group B streptococci can be distinguished from Group A due to their resistance to this drug
Bacitracin
120
This protein helps identify S. agalactiae (a Group B streptococcus)
CAMP factor
121
Most cases of S. agalactiae are of this type in early onset neonatal GBS meningitis
Type III
122
Chemoprophylaxis should be used for all colonized or at risk women for S. agalactiae, and involves this drug administered through IV at least 4 hours before delivery
Penicillin G
123
Do patients aged less than 7 days typically have early or late onset disease with S. agalactiae?
Early (pneumonia, meningitis, sepsis)
124
Is early or late onset disease with Group B strep (e.g. S. agalactiae) more fatal?
Early onset (~60% fatal, serious sequelae in many survivors)
125
Is E. coli gram positive or negative?
Negative
126
This strain of E. coli produces capsule with sialic acid residues attached to it and prevent binding to C3b and MAC formation
K1
127
E. coli K1 produces capsule with residues of this
Sialic acid
128
The fimbriae of E. coli have adhesions specific for these two structures
Vascular endothelium Epithelial lining of choroid plexus
129
This bacteria has fimbriae adhesions specific for vascular endothelium and epithelial lining of choroid plexus
E. coli
130
Is Listeria monocytogenes gram positive or negative?
Positive
131
Listeria monocytogenes does this type of hemolysis
Beta-hemolytic
132
Is Listeria monocytogenes catalase positive or negative?
Positive
133
In addition to Strep agalactiae, this bacteria is also CAMP positive
Listeria monocytogenes
134
In addition to Strep agalactiae, Listeria monocytogenes is also positive for this protein
CAMP
135
Listeria monocytogenes can be grown on this type of agar
Charcoal yeast extract agar
136
Listeria monocytogenes is a facultative intracellular parasite of this type of cell
Mononuclear phagocytes
137
Can Listeria monocytogenes cross the placenta?
Yes
138
This bacteria is an important cause of meningitis in immunocompromised adults, in addition to GI infections
Listeria monocytogenes
139
This protein on the surface of Listeria monocytogenes polymerizes actin and helps the bacteria move and spread
ActA
140
ActA is a protein that polymerizes actin in order to help this bacteria move and spread
Listeria monocytogenes
141
Granulomatosis infantiseptica is a severe form of early onset of infection with this bacteria, that is characterized by the formation of abscesses and granulomas in multiple organs and a high mortality rate unless treated promptly
Listeria monocytogenes
142
Does Listeria monocytogenes have a low or high mortality rate?
High
143
Infection with this bacteria is rare and insidious, and always has a focus elsewhere in the body It causes severe damage to vessels, nerves, and the arachnoid membrane with complications like nerve damage, vasculitis, cerebral infarction
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
144
This spirochete is the causative agent of neurosyphilis
Treponema pallidum
145
Neurosyphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum, and is treated with this drug
Penicillin
146
Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi, and is treated with this drug
Ceftriaxone
147
This is a spirochete with tight, regular coils, and is motile by means of endoflagella It is too thin to be seen by routine light microscopy; specimens are visualized by darkfield illumination or immunofluorescence staining
Treponema pallidum
148
Do brain abscesses cause seizures?
Yes
149
What is the typical source of brain abscesses?
Bacteremia seeding from a distant site
150
What is the treatment for bacterial brain abscesses?
Drainage and Cefotaxime (if S. aureus is suspected, Vancomycin should be added)
151
Treatment for bacterial brain abscesses includes Cefotaxime, but this drug should be added if S. aureus is suspected
Vancomycin
152
Treatment for bacterial brain abscesses includes Cefotaxime, but Vancomycin should be added if this organism is suspected
S. aureus
153
Is Nocardia asteroides gram positive or negative?
Positive
154
This bacteria is an aerobic gram positive rod forming thin branching filaments (was initially thought to be a fungus due to its appearance)
Nocardia asteroides
155
Is Nocardia asteroides catalase positive or negative?
Positive
156
Is Nocardia asteroides urease positive or negative?
Positive
157
This bacteria that forms thin branching filaments can cause ring enhancing lesions on CT
Nocardia asteroides
158
Nocardia asteroides typically infects this type of patient
Immunocompromised (especially transplant patients)
159
What drugs are used to treat Nocardia asteroides?
TMP-SMX (sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim) and Imipenem
160
Does Clostridium tetani form spores?
Yes
161
This bacteria is an obligate anaerobe gram positive spore-forming bacilli with terminal round spores
Clostridium tetani
162
Clostridium tetani causes tetanus by this specific toxin
A-B neurotoxin (tetanospasmin) is a plasmid-encoded zinc endopeptidase
163
This organism has an A-B neurotoxin, that is a plasmid-encoded zinc endopeptidase
Clostridium tetani
164
Clostridium tetani releases A-B neurotoxin (tetanospasmin), that is carried in peripheral nerve axons and the blood to the CNS, where it binds to neurons and blocks these 2 inhibitory mediators in spinal synapses (causing convulsive contractions)
Glycine and GABA
165
This bacteria releases a toxin that binds to neurons and blocks inhibitory mediators in spinal synapses
Clostridium tetani
166
Does Clostridium tetani bind to neurons and block excitatory or inhibitory mediators in spinal synapses?
Inhibitory (glycine and GABA) Causes convulsive contractions of voluntary muscles
167
This bacteria causes convulsive contractions of voluntary muscles Excitatory paralysis
Clostridium tetani
168
This bacteria has seven antigenic types of prophage encoded, heat labile, acid-stable exotoxins (A-G) Produces the most potent toxins known to man It is made in association with germination of spores
Clostridium botulinum
169
This bacteria acts at neuromuscular junctions inhibiting acetylcholine release
Clostridium botulinum
170
This bacteria causes muscle paralysis and death from respiratory failure Flaccid paralysis results
Clostridium botulinum
171
Infants may be infected with this bacteria from being fed honey contaminated with spores
Clostridium botulinum
172
This nonsuppurative poststreptococcal sequelae is characterized by rapid, irregular, and aimless involuntary movements of the arms, legs, trunk, and facial muscles
Sydenham chorea
173
The random, writhing movements of chorea are caused by this, that interferes with the normal function of a part of the brain (the basal ganglia) that controls motor movements
Autoimmune reaction
174
Sydenham chorea is a post infection sequelae of this bacteria
Streptococcus
175
What is PANDAS in the context of CNS infections?
Pediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal infections
176
These two protozoa are opportunistic pathogens that can invade the eye, nasal mucosa and extend to the brain Most infections occur during the summer from exposure during swimming
Naegleria fowleri and Acanthamoeba species
177
This organism is the most common cause of primary amebic meningoencephalitis
Naegleria fowleri ("brain eating amoeba")
178
What drugs are the treatment of choice for Naegleria fowleri?
Amphotericin B with miconazole and rifampin
179
Symptoms of infection with this protozoa include intense frontal headache, sore throat, fever, blocked nose, altered sense of tase and smell, stiff neck, Kernig sign
Naegleria fowleri
180
This protozoa usually causes granulomatous amebic encephalitis producing a single or multiple brain abscesses primarily in the immunocompromised
Acanthamoeba species
181
This drug is the treatment for Acanthamoeba species
Topical biguanide chlorhexidine
182
Keratitis can occur from eye trauma then contact with soil or water contaminated with this protozoan Presents with corneal ulceration and severe pain Contaminated contact lenses have been documented
Acanthamoeba species
183
What is the vector for Trypanosoma brucei?
Tsetse fly
184
Tsetse fly is the vector for this protozoan
Trypanosoma brucei
185
This is the infectious stage of Trypanosoma brucei
Trypomastigote
186
Posterior triangle cervical lymphadenopathy, or "Winterbottom's sign" occurs in the first stage of disease with this protozoan
Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
187
Is the first or second stage disease with Trypanosoma brucei gambiense considered hemolymphatic?
First stage (involves nonspecific signs and symptoms such as recurring fever due to antigenic variation, pruritis, and lymphadenopathy)
188
Is the first or second stage disease with Trypanosoma brucei gambiense considered meningoencephalitic?
Second stage (invasion of the CNS causes a variety of neuropsychiatric manifestations)
189
This protozoan causes West and East African sleeping sickness
Trypanosoma brucei
190
This protozoan has two subspecies that are morphologically indistinguishable, and cause West and East African sleeping sickness
Trypanosoma brucei
191
Which subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei is often fatal after several years duration?
Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
192
Which subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei has a shorter incubation period?
Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
193
With this subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei, acute disease occurs more rapidly and progresses to fulminating, rapidly fatal illness Death in 9-12 months if untreated
Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
194
What are the two subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei?
Trypanosoma brucei gambiense and rhodesiense
195
What is the drug of choice for the acute blood and lymphatic stage of disease with Trypanosoma brucei?
Pentamidine
196
What is the pharmacotherapy for Trypanosoma brucei when the CNS is involved?
Eflornithine plus nifurtimox
197
What is the reservoir for Toxoplasma gondii?
Common house cat
198
The common house cat is the essential reservoir for this intracellular coccidian parasite
Toxoplasma gondii
199
With this protozoan, transplacental infection can occur and is devastating, part of TORCH syndrome
Toxoplasma gondii
200
Are most infections with Toxoplasma gondii benign or serious?
Benign and asymptomatic
201
CNS manifestations in the immunocompromised with this protozoan include diffuse encephalopathy, meningoencephalitis, and cerebral mass lesions MRI ring-enhancing lesions are seen
Toxoplasma gondii
202
Most infections with Toxoplasma gondii do not need therapy, except the immunocompromised, which should be treated with this
Pyrimethamine plus sulfadiazine
203
This protozoan is a coccidian parasite of blood cells
Plasmodium falciparum
204
Infection with this protozoan can cause capillary plugging from accumulation of malarial pigment and masses of cells can result in coma and death
Plasmodium falciparum
205
This is a rat lung worm, with larvae that causes eosinophilic meningitis
Angiostrongylus cantonensis
206
Infective larvae of Angiostrongylus cantonensis are found in this kind of animal
Mollusks (such as slugs and land snails)
207
This drug is the treatment for Angiostrongylus cantonensis
Corticosteroids (albendazole can be used)
208
This species of helminths can cause damage as larval migrans in the skin and nervous system The worm is visible as it snakes its way along
Toxocara species
209
This drug is the treatment for Toxocara species infections
Albendazole (or by cryotherapy) Corticosteroids for serious infections
210
Parasitic nematode causing Trichinosis
Trichinella spiralis
211
Trichinella spiralis lives in these organs of mammals
Duodenum and jejunum
212
Nematode that lives in the mucosa of the duodenum and jejunum of flesh eating mammals
Trichinella spiralis
213
This nematode is transmitted by consumption of undercooked meats, particularly pork
Trichinella spiralis
214
This nematode can infect the CNS as meningoencephalitis and cerebrovascular accident Humans are dead-end hosts; larvae will die and calcify
Trichinella spiralis
215
Treatment of Trichinella spiralis during the GI phase consists of this drug Otherwise symptomatic treatment
Albendazole
216
Nematode that causes river blindness
Onchocerca volvulus
217
Larvae of this nematode are transmitted by Simulium blackfly vector
Onchocerca volvulus
218
All stages of infection with this nematode contain Wolbachia bacterial endosymbionts
Onchocerca volvulus
219
Infection with this nematode involves the skin, subcutaneous tissue, lymph nodes and eyes Diagnosis by demonstrating microfilariae in a skin snip
Onchocerca volvulus
220
Development of an encephalopathic syndrome in people with very high levels of L. loa can follow treatment of this nematode
Onchocerca volvulus
221
Parasitic nematode referred to as the African eye worm
Loa loa
222
Loa loa is transmitted by deerflies (mango flies or mangrove flies) of this genus
Chrysops
223
This nematode is transmitted by deerflies (mango flies or mangrove flies) of the genus Chrysops
Loa loa
224
This nematode is confined to equatorial rain forests of Africa
Loa loa
225
First signs of infection with this nematode are fugitive or Calabar swellings, mainly in the extremities as worms migrate through subcutaneous tissues creating large, nodular areas that are painful and pruritic
Loa loa
226
Infection with this nematode is diagnosed by clinical observations of Calabar swelling or migrating worms in the eye
Loa loa
227
This drug is the treatment for Loa loa infections Risk of severe allergic reaction
Diethylcarbamazine
228
Cysticercosis is caused by this helminth
Taenia solium (pork tapeworm)
229
This condition is the leading cause of seizure disorders in endemic regions of Taenia solium
Neurocysticercosis
230
This organism causes neurocysticercosis, the leading cause of seizure disorders in endemic regions
Taenia solium (pork tapeworm)
231
Are cases of cysticercosis mild or severe?
Most are entirely asymptomatic
232
This organism is considered a canine tapeworm Ingestion of eggs by humans hatches a 6 hooked larvae called a oncosphere Penetrates the intestinal wall and enters circulation Primarily liver and lungs but also CNS Larvae form hydatid cysts, slowing growing tumor-like structures where tapeworm heads develop
Echinococcus granulosus
233
Surgical resection of the cyst is the treatment of choice for infection with this helminth Cysts accumulate fluid as they grow Most hydatid cysts are symptomatic and highly allergenic
Echinococcus granulosus
234
This organism is considered the lung fluke (Trematode)
Paragonimus westermani
235
Migrating larval worms of this species can penetrate the spinal cord and brain, causing severe neurologic symptoms such as visual disturbances, motor weakness, and convulsive seizures (cerebral paragonimiasis)
Paragonimus westermani
236
What is the drug of choice for treating Paragonimus westermani?
Triclabendazole