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SAM 1 scs RUSVM > Infectious diseases > Flashcards

Infectious diseases Flashcards

1
Q 
Which of the following is not a clinical sign seen in dogs with salmonella? 
Watery or mucoid diarrhea
Hematochezia
Neutrophilia
Hypovolemia
A

Neutrophilia- it can cause neutroPENIA

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2
Q

What crystals are sometimes seen with leptospira infections in dogs?

A

Billirubin

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3
Q

What is the source of infection for salmonella?

A

Contaminated food or water

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4
Q

What does Campylobacter look like? What it it’s gram classification?

A

Motile gull wing-shaped rods

Gram negative

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5
Q

What type of antibiotic is used to treat campylobacter?

A

Macrolides (however, efficacy is unknown)

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6
Q

What clinical signs are associated with helicobacter infections in dogs?

A

Chronic gastritis

Small bowel diarrhea (large amounts, unformed, 2-3x per day)

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7
Q

What does botulism toxin cause and what is its MOA?

A

LMN disease/paralysis

Prevents presynaptic release of ACh at NMJ

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8
Q

Does Clostridium botulinum cause flaccid or spastic paralysis?

A

Flaccid

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9
Q

How is salmonella diagnosed (what test)? Does a negative result rule out infection?

A

Fecal culture

NO, negative doesn’t rule it in, positive doesn’t rule it out.

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10
Q

What antibiotics are used to treat salmonella in dogs?

A

Chloramphenicol
Trimethoprim-sulphonamide
Amoxicillin
Ampicillin

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11
Q

T/F Most cats are asymptomatic carriers of campylobacter.

A

True

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12
Q

T/F Helicobacter species are relatively easy to culture, making this the best way to diagnose an infection.

A

False, they are difficult to culture.

Histo of gastric biopsies, EM and molecular evaluation or PCR on gastric samples can be done.

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13
Q

What shape is Brucella canis?

A

Coccobacilli (intracellular, gr -, aerobic)

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14
Q

T/F Cat’s develop similar clinical signs to dogs with brucellosis.

A

False, cats are resistant to this bacteria.

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15
Q

Where is the highest concentration of brucella found in dogs?

A

Vaginal discharges and semen.

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16
Q

In what fluids does Lyme like to “hide”?

A

Synovial and CSF

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17
Q

What does triple therapy mean and that does it treat?

A

2 antibiotics + 1 antacid
(Amoxi + Metronidazole + Omeprazole or Famotidine)
To treat helicobacter infections

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18
Q

T/F Brucellosis is the most problematic in young, neutered dogs.

A

False, intact male dogs

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19
Q

What titer level indicates an active brucella infection?

A

> 200

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20
Q

What bacterial infection in dogs can cause fever, tachypnea, widespread petechiae, icterus, vomiting and can cause intestinal intussusception?

A

Leptospirosis

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21
Q

What multi-antibiotic regiment is indicated for the treatment of brucellosis? Is it easy to eradicate?

A

Doxy + IM streptomycin

No, it is very difficult to get rid of.

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22
Q

T/F Lepto is rarely seen in cats.

A

True

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23
Q

To diagnose actonomyces and nocardia infections a cytology and culture must be done. What do you need to tell the lab to do if you suspect these bacteria?

A

Hold the culture for 10 days because it grows slowly.

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24
Q

T/F Actinomyces is associated with wounds, while nocardia is associated with ingestion of contaminated food/meat.

A

False, both are associated with wounds.

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25
Q

Actinomyces and Nocardia are both gram ___ bacteria that grow in a ___ pattern .

A

Positive

Branching/filamentous

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26
Q

For Actinomyces the antibiotics of choice are ____. For Nocardia the antibiotics of choice are___.

A

Penicillins

Trimethoprim sulphonamides

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27
Q

T/F Lyme disease affects mammals and avian hosts.

A

True

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28
Q

How long does the tick need to remain attached to transmit Borellia burgorferi?

A

Until engorgement, 48-50 hours.

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29
Q

What bacterium do you suspect if you notice a draining tract that is oozing icky stuff with yellow granules?

A

Actinomyces.

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30
Q

Outer surface protein (Osp) ___ helps B. burgorferi adhere to the midgut of infected ticks. Osp ___ reacts with the warms f the new environment to transmit the bacterium.

A

A

C

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31
Q

OspA is used to diagnose Lyme disease.

A

False, the antibody to OspC-6 is used. (98.8% sensitive, 100% specific)
OspA is in the vaccine

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32
Q

What is the most common clinical sign with Lyme disease?

A

Non-erosive polyarthritis (shifting leg lameness)

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33
Q

What 2 dog breeds are over-represented in PLG caused by Lyme disease?

A

Labradors and Goldens (Think Lyme ->like a Lime-> Lemon-> Yellow -> Yellow dogs)

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34
Q

T/F Most dogs that are exposed to Borrelia burgdorferi develop mild clinical signs of lyme disease.

A

False, most do not develop clinical signs.

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35
Q

T/F Lyme disease in dogs causes a persistent red rash or red lesion that becomes more severe over time.

A

False, it develops within the first week and then disappears.

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36
Q

Which bacterial diseases cause fever in dogs?

A

Brucella
Lyme (Borrelia burdorferi)
Rickettsial diseases
Leptospirosis

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37
Q

T/F Brucella is zoonotic.

A

True

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38
Q

Any Lyme positive dog should be tested for ____. If ___ is elevated, treat for Lyme.

A

Proteinuria

UPC

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39
Q

T/F Lyme disease causes immunosuppresion, so there is no way the dog could mount an effective immune response to the bacterium.

A

False, we don’t treat dogs seropositive dogs without clinical signs because they might be able to overcome the infection on their own.

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40
Q

When do you begin the vaccination cycle for Lepto in dogs? How many vaccines do you give and when will the booster be due?

A

Start at 12 weeks, give 2 vaccines 2-4 weeks apart, then booster annually.

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41
Q

T/F Infected males rarely recover from brucella and often become sterile.

A

True

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42
Q

What form of transmission is most common for leptospirosis?

A

Indirect via contaminated water, soil and food.

Direct is also possible- urine, sex juice, bite wounds, ingestion of infected tissue

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43
Q

Within the first week of a lepto infection, the organism can be detected in the ____, after than it can be detected in the ___.

A

Blood
Urine
(That’s why it is best to submit both urine and blood to the lab for testing).

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44
Q

Rocky mountain spotted fever is caused by _________.

A

Rickettsia rickettsia

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45
Q

Salmonella is gram ____ and it ___-shaped

A

Negative

Rod

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46
Q

T/F Dogs and cats can potentially pass Lyme disease to their owners. Always inform of this risk the owners so they can take precautions.

A

False, cats and dogs do not shed infectious organisms.

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47
Q

Attachment to which epithelial cells results in lepto carrier states?

A

Renal tubular

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48
Q

For how many weeks does bacteremia TYPICALLY last with brucellosis?

A

1-4weeks

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49
Q

Are younger or older dogs more commonly infected with lepto?

A

Younger

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50
Q

T/F Clostridium tetani is gram positive while Clostridium botulinum is gram negative.

A

False, both gram positive.

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51
Q

T/F Urine contaminated with lepto is highly infectious for both people and dogs.

A

True, avoid mucus membrane contact

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52
Q

Does the lepto vaccine present a carrier state?

A

Nope

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53
Q

T/F Paralysis following an infection with C. botulinum begins in the front limbs and moves back.

A

False, starts in the hind and moves up.

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54
Q

What organs does lepto spread to?

A 
Kidney
Spleen
CNS
Eyes
Genital tract
(Liver)
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55
Q

What is the antibiotic that the ACVIM has decided is the best choice for treating lepto? How long is the treatment course?

A

Doxycycline (BID PO or IV)

q2weeks

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56
Q

Why is the anti-toxin for C. botulinum not useful?

A

It does not contain the specific C type antitoxin.

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57
Q

T/F Lepto organisms remain viable for several months in urine with an acidic pH.

A

False, high pH

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58
Q

What 2 antibacterials can be used to treat C. botulinum?

A

Metronidazole

Penicillins

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59
Q

What 2 antibiotics are mainly used to treat C. tetani? What does this treatment do?

A

Metronidazole
Pen G
They reduce toxin formation.

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60
Q

What are the 2 toxins formed by C. tetani? Which one causes spastic paralysis?

A

Tetanoleptin and Tetanospasm. Tetanospasm causes paralysis.

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61
Q

T/F Doxycycline eliminates the carrier status in lepto infected dogs.

A

True

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62
Q

How long does it take for tetanus toxin to wear off?

A

3-4 weeks

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63
Q

Tetanus toxin inhibits the release of the inhibitory neurotransmitters ___ and ____.

A

Glycine

Gamma-aminobutyric acid

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64
Q

Which form of Clostridium is spore-forming?

A

Tetani

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65
Q 
Which of the following is associated with a C. tetani infection?
Tenesmus
Trismus
Tachyphagia
Triphala
A

Trismus (lock jaw)

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66
Q

Anti___, anti___ and anti_____ can be used to treat C. tentani infections or symptoms.

A

Anti-toxin
Anti-biotics
Anti-convulsants

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67
Q

What is the treatment for Myoplasma haemocanis?

A

Doxycycline

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68
Q

What 2 ways can you diagnose M. haemocanis?

A

PCR and blood smear

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69
Q

A dog presents to your clinic with endocarditis. You cannot find an underlying cause. What bacterial disease is on your list of differential diagnoses?

A

Bartonella

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70
Q

Otto von Bisbark, a young dog, is brought to your clinic, he is drooling all over the place, his ears are dawn back, and his facial expression makes you think he is making fun of you, but is bummed about it. When the phone rings, the dog finches. Your colleague exclaims”RABIES!” and runs to her car to grab her shotgun. In addition to her terrible bedside manner, you know she is probably wrong. What is your primary differential?

A

Tetanus.

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71
Q

Doxycyline is given with ____ or ____ to dogs, and with ____ to cats with bartonellosis.

A

Enrofloxacin or rifamptin (dogs)

Pradofloxacin (cats)

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72
Q

What is the best way to diagnose Canine Bartonellosis?

A

Bacterial isolation via PCR

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73
Q

Joan of Bark presents to your clinic after having her spleen removed a while back because she was in a car accident and it ruptured. Now she is presenting with clinical signs consistent with a tick-borne bacteria. Which bacterium comes to mind?

A

Myoplasma haemocanis

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74
Q

What may you see on a thoracic radiograph of a dog infected with C. tetani as well as a puppy infected with Neospora caninum?

A

Megaesophagus

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75
Q

Ehrlichia canis and chaffeensis cause _____ erlichiosis, while E. ewingii causes ____ ehrlichiosis.

A

Monocytotrophic

Granulocytotrophic

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76
Q

Anaplasma phagocytophilum causes ____ anaplasmosis, while A. platyl causes _____ anaplasmosis,

A

Granulocytotrophic

Thrombocytotrophic

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77
Q

Which rickettsial diseases are zoonotic?

A

E. chaffeensis, E. ewingii, and A. phagocytophilum

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78
Q

After entering the blood, where do Rickettsiae replicate?

A

Endothelial cells

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79
Q

Which species of ehrlichia is most pathogenic?

A

Canis

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80
Q

What causes the peripheral edema seen in many rickettsial diseases?

A

Hypoalbuminemia caused by vasculitis

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81
Q

Which Anaplasma organism is usually non-clinical?

A

Platys

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82
Q

T/F If you cannot find a tick on the dog, you should not treat for a rickettsial disease.

A

False.

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83
Q

Which diagnostic test is most sensitive to identify the type of rickettsial organism infecting your patient?

A

PCR

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84
Q

You are practicing in California and Napoleon Bonabark presents with fever, ocular discharge, periorbital edema, vomiting and lymphadenopathy. Napoleon was recently on a fishing trip. What disease do you suspect?

A

Salmon poisoning- Neorickettsia helminthoeca

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85
Q

Which Rickettsial organism uses Ixodes tick species as a vector?

A

Anaplsa phagocytophilum

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86
Q

Arf Vader comes to your clinic for an exam. You know it has some form of rickettsial disease. Which antibiotic will you use?

A

Doxycycline.

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87
Q

In the acute phase of a rickettsial disease, the anemia will be ___, however eventually it will become ____.

A

Regenerative

Non-regenerative.

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88
Q

Which canine RNA dirvus is spread through water droplets to the URT epithelium where it then multiplies in tissue macrophages; from there it speeds along the lymphatics?

A

CDV

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89
Q

In canine distemper virus, what usually accompanies nasal and digital hyperkeratosis?

A

Neurological signs

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90
Q

What are you looking for on in the early phase of CDV on a blood smear?

A

Intracytoplasmic inclusion boies (in erythrocytes)

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91
Q

T/F HYPERglobulinemia a very common finding in rickettsial diseases.

A

True

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92
Q

Ruth Bader Ginsbark is 5 month old puppy with an unknown vaccination history is brought to your clinic. She is listless, has dry eyes, is inappetent, and has had bloody diarrhea. The owner tells you that Rush used to love sniffing around and would always sit in the kitchen with him while he cooked. Since she started acting sick, she doesn’t even lift her head to sniff a juicy roast. What disease do you suspect and what is the clinical sign called that the owner is describing?

A

CDV

Anosmia

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93
Q

You do a CSF tap to diagnose canine distemper virus in a dog with an unknown vaccination status. If the dog has had a vaccine against distemper, will this test be useless?

A

No, antibodies against CDV will not be found in the brain/CSF of a vaccinated animal.

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94
Q

Which antibodies form first when the immune system responds to a pathogen?

A

IgM

Later, IgG forms

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95
Q

T/F If you find CDV IgM antibodies in an animal that has not been vaccinated in the last 2 weeks, you can be confident in your diagnosis of CDV.

A

True

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96
Q

T/F Vaccines are available for CDV and CAV

A

True

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97
Q

Which form of canine adenovirus is hepatic? Which is respiratory?

A

CAV-1 is hepatic (aka Canine Infectious Hepatitis)

CAV-2 is respiratory

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98
Q

Which form of canine adenovirus causes “blue-eye”? Which dogs get this?

A

CAV-1

Dogs that recover or are in a persistent stage of infection.

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99
Q

Which 4 substances can you run PCR on to diagnose CDV?

A

Buffy coat cells
Whole blood
Serum
CSF

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100
Q

What is the gold standard for checking immunity against CDV?

A

Serum antibody testing for neutralizing antibodies (IgG)

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101
Q

T/F Icterus is common with CAV-1.

A

False. The disease progresses too quickly for the bilirubin concentrations to get high enough.

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102
Q

Compared to a vaccinated animal, the serology titers in a dog infected with CAV are (High/Low?)

A

Very high

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103
Q

The build-up of what compound causes hepatic encephalopathy in dogs with CAV-1?

A

Ammonia

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104
Q

T/F The modified live vaccine for CAV-2 provides good cross-protection for CAV-1.

A

True

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105
Q

What type of vaccine is most commonly used for CDV- modified live, killed, or vector vaccine?

A

Modified live

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106
Q

How long is the incubation period for canine parvovirus?

A

1-5 days

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107
Q

Which breed of dog is over-represented in terms of parvovirus infections?

A

Rottweilers

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108
Q

Canine and feline parvovirus requires ______ cells for replication, this is why it targets primarily the ____ and _____.

A

Rapidly replicating/dividing cells
GIT
Bone marrow

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109
Q

T/F Since parvovirus cannot survive outside of rapidly dividing cells, fomites do not play an important role in transmission.

A

False, it is very stable in the environment.

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110
Q

To diagnose canine parvovirus a fecal ELISA test to detect viral ____ is used.

A

Antigen

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111
Q

T/F A Fecal ELISA antigen test can distinguish between vaccination and natural parvovirus infection in both dogs and cats.

A

False, however fecal PCR can.

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112
Q

How long is parvovirus shed?

A

4-5 days

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113
Q

T/F Ataxia and seizures are clinical signs seen in both forms of corona virus.
What are the two forms of canine corona virus?

A

False, only the pantropic form

Pantropic and enteric

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114
Q

T/F: Parvovirus should be treated with specific, narrow-spectrum antibiotics.

A

False, broad spectrum and usually a combo of gram + (e.g. penicillin), anerobic (e.g. aminoglycoside) ad gram- (e.g. metronidazole) antibiotics.

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115
Q

How is canine rotavirus diagnosed?

A

Fecal ELISA for rotavirus antigen

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116
Q

T/F: A puppy with parvo should be fasted during the viremic phase to help “starve” the virus.

A

False. So very very false. You want to place a feeding tube.

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117
Q

How long does immunity to parvovirus last post-infection?

A

> 20 months

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118
Q

T/F: Just like CDV, parvovirus infections have a poor prognosis even with extensive, intensive treatment.

A

False, 80-90% survive but treatment is very expensive. (It is poor for CDV though)

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119
Q

Why is it important to hydrate a puppy before beginning treatment with an aminoglycoside antibiotic? What is the other side effect seen with these drugs?

A

It is nephrotoxic.

Also ototoxic, can cause deafness.

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120
Q

T/F Corona virus always causes diarrhea in dogs.

A

False.

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121
Q

How can a puppy contract canine herpes virus?

A

In utero
During birth
Contact with litter mates
Oronasal secretions from dam

122
Q

How old are dogs that develop a fatal generalized infection from canine herpes virus?

A

<1 week old

123
Q

T/F: Corona viruses are very host-specific.

A

False.

124
Q

What is the most reliable test for diagnosing canine herpes virus?

A

PCR

125
Q

Which virus causes Fading Puppy Syndrome or acute death in neonates, while causing mild or inapparent URIs in older puppies and adults?

A

Canine herpes virus

126
Q

How can you prevent canine herpes virus?

A

Vaccination

127
Q

How many weeks post infection with rabies virus do CNS signs develop in dogs?

A

3-8

128
Q

T/F Rabies causes ascending spastic paralysis.

A

False, ascending FLACCID paralysis

129
Q

What are the phases of rabies in dogs, in order?

A

Prodromal (2-3 days)
Furious/Psychotic (1-7 days)
Paralytic/Dumb (1-10 days)

130
Q

Why care modified live vaccines not used for rabies virus?

A

There is a risk of it converting to a live form in vivo.

131
Q

What canine protozoal disease involves promastigotes that are transferred via a vector and then replicate in macrophages as amastigotes?

A

Leishmania infantum

132
Q

What component of a rabies vaccine causes hyper-stimulation of the immune system?

A

The adjuvant, aluminum

133
Q

Pseudorabies is also known as porcine _____-1

A

herpesvirus

134
Q

T/F Pseudorabies is always fatal.

A

True

135
Q

What 2 forms does Giardia duodenalis occur in?

A

Trophozite and cyst

136
Q

G. duodenalis attaches to the brush border of villous epithelium from the ___ to the ileum in dogs and the ____ to the ileum in cats.

A

Duodenum

Jejunum

137
Q

Eat’n Hawk patient of yours tried to make friends with a bunch of rabid raccoons. They did not want to be this dog’s friend and tried to eat him instead. Eat’n is an adult dog and his owner has been religiously vaccinating him since he was 16 weeks old. What is the protocol to deal with this situation?

A

Re-vaccinate immediately and monitor closely for 45 days.

138
Q

How is pseudorabies spread?

A

Contaminated pork products

139
Q

What is the primary clinical sign with giardia?

A

Diarrhea

140
Q

What does the Fecal ELISA SNAP test for giardia test for?

A

Antigen

141
Q

T/F Dogs are reservoir hosts for Leishmania infantum for dogs and humans

A

True

142
Q

How is cryptosporidium transmitted?

A

Fecal-oral

143
Q

T/F Unlike Giardia, the ELISA test for crypto looks for the antibody rather than the antigen.

A

False, both are antigen

144
Q

What type of diarrhea is caused by crpto in dogs?

A

Small bowel- high volume, low frequency

145
Q

Why is the high dose required to treat giardia in young dogs dangerous?

A

It is neurotoxic at that level.

146
Q 
Which of the following species of Isospora affect cats: 
Canis
Felis
Rivolti
Burrowsi
Ohioensis
Neorivolta
A

Felis and rivolti, the others affect dogs

147
Q

T/F Fecal floatation can be used to diagnose giardia, crypto and coccidiosis.

A

False, only crypto

148
Q

Which protozoal disease can cause mental depression in dog?

A

Coccidiosis

149
Q

Do you use static or cidal drugs to treat coccidiosis in dogs?

A

Static

150
Q

What predisposes a dog to developing an intestinal infection due to coccidiosis?

A

Immunosuppression (and being young)

151
Q

T/F Neospora caninum is a naturally occurring infection in dogs.

A

True

152
Q

Which 2 body system are most affected by Neospora caninum?

A

Neurologic and muscular

153
Q

Which biochemistry values are characteristically increased in a dog with a Neospora caninum infection?

A

CK (10-20k)

AST

154
Q

Do you test for the antigen or antibody when you’re diagnosing Neospora caninum?

A

Antibody

Can use ELISA, indirect FA or immunoprecipitation

155
Q

Which canine protozoal disease is treated with toltrazuril or dicazuril?

A

Coccidiosis

156
Q

Puppies < 6 months old are predisposed to developing clinical signs associated with Neospora caninum. It causes _____ paralysis, affecting the ____limbs more than the ___ limbs.

A

Ascending
Pelvic
Thoracic

157
Q

T/F There is no licensed veterinary drug available to treat giardia.

A

True

158
Q

What is the insect vector associated with Leishmania infantum?

A

Sand fly

159
Q

One of your clients calls and is very distressed. She just picked up Princess Sparkle from the Barkington Hotel, where she was staying while mommy and daddy were on vacation, and she sounds like she has something stuck in her throat! Because mommy is smart, she checked the mucus membranes in Princess Sparkles mouth and they are nice and pink, so she knows she isn’t suffocating. She is up to date on her bordetella vaccine. Your client is unable to come to your office today, but could bring her in about a week from now. What do you suspect and what advise to you give your client?

A

You suspect uncomplicated kennel cough.
You advise your client to restrict exercise.
If Princess does not seem to be getting better, she should come in for a visit as soon as possible to be safe.
If she is not deteriorating and doesn’t develop a wet cough or other signs of illness her owner can expect the symptoms to resolve within 2 weeks.
If the cough is bothering her, you can prescribe a cough suppressant.

160
Q

When do you vaccinate a puppy for rabies?

A

16 weeks

161
Q

What do most dogs who have contracted Leishmania present with?

A

Lymphadenopathy and skin lesions on the head

162
Q

Which hemoprotozoan parasite infects erythrocytes?

A

Babesia

163
Q

What tissues can you aspirate to find Leishmania?

A

Bone marrow
Lymph nodes
S`kin

164
Q

Which canine protozoal infection causes periosteal reaction near muscle attachments?

A

Hepatozoonosis (H. americanum)

165
Q

You are testing your patient Corgi Cox for Leishmania. You are certain that she contracted the organism within the last four weeks. Could you do a serology test for IgG antibodies ?

A

Yes, it is not the best test but antibodies develop within 2-4 weeks.

166
Q

T/F Hepatozoon canis causes severe disease .

A

False, H. canis is usually incidental while H. americanum causes severe disease.

167
Q

What is the most sensitive test for Leishmania?

A

PCR

168
Q

T/F NSAIDs or corticosteroids can be used to treat the pain associated with hepatozoonosis in dogs.

A

False, do not give corticosteroids! NSAIDs are good though.

169
Q

T/F Just like with rabies, you have to contact the CBC if your patient tests positive for Leishmania.

A

True

170
Q

The species of babesia that is the most common in the USA is also least pathogenic. What species is this?

A

B. vogeli

171
Q

What is the treatment for B. vogeli administered IM and repeated in 2 weeks?

A

Imidocarb dipropionate (Imizol)

172
Q

What small form species of babesia is found in 50% of pit bulls tested in the USA?

A

B. gibsoni

173
Q

Sir Pantsalot presents with nasal ulceration and depigmentation, Systemically he is fine.
You perform a rhinoscopy and note white plaques. What do you suspect?

A

Nasal aspergillosis

174
Q

What do you sample for culture and sensitivity if you suspect nasal aspergillosis, the nasal plaques, nasal discharge or either?

A

Plaques are best (aspergillus is difficult to culture, but C&S may be necessary if systemic tx is warranted)

175
Q

You have diagnosed nasal aspergillosis in your patient. While you’re at lunch for 40 minutes a colleague decides to swoop your procedure. They anesthetized the patient, performed debridement, and flushed the nasal cavity with 1% clotrimazole. The dog is just waking up from anesthesia. Other than being upset that your case got swooped, why do you have good reason to yell at your colleague?

A

The clotrimazole must be infused into the nasal cavity for 1 hour, rotating the nose 90deg every 15 min.
Also, you may have not done x-rays yet and the cribiform plate must be intact before performing this procedure.

176
Q

What type of fungal rhinitis can cause chorioretinitis?

A

Cryptococcosis

177
Q

T/F Pneumonyssus caninum causes fungal rhinitis in dogs but is not found in cats.

A

False, causes PARASITIC rhinitis (they are mites)

178
Q

Your doggy patient was just rescued from a pit bull fighting ring and is presenting with a fever. The blood smear confirms babesia. What species of babesia do you suspect and what other clinical signs may accompany the fever?

A

B. gibsoni
Hemolytic anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Vasculitis

179
Q

What systemic antifungal drugs can be used in dogs?

A

Intraconazole
Posaconazole
Voriconazole

180
Q

Can cryptococcus affect dogs and cats?

A

Yes, cats more common

181
Q

Why may is dog on heartworm preventative less likely to get Pneumonyssus caninum?

A

Ivermectin and milbemycin treat these mites

182
Q

T/F Lymphoplasmacytic rhinitis (LPR) is more common in small, brachycephalic dogs.

A

False, medium to large breed dogs that are dolichocephalic

183
Q

You perform a CT on Colli Golightly who has mucopurulent nasal discharge containing some blood, ocular discharge, sneezing and stridor. The scan reveals a destroyed nasal septum,obliterated frontal sinus and cribiform plate. Do these results indicate lymphoplasmacytic rhintis (LPR)? Do the symptoms?

A

No, the CT results do not point toward LPR.

The clinical signs are consistent with LPR.

184
Q

What are the three of the multiple pathogens involved in Canine Infectious Respiratory disease complex?

A 
Bordetella
Parainfluenza virus
CAV-2
Myoplasma 
CDV
Corona
CHV-1
185
Q

What s the most common clinical sign of Canine Infectious Respiratory Disease Complex?

A

Coughing (kennel COUGH)

186
Q

Smacky the Wonderdog presents to you with a dry cough which you can elicit by gently squeezing the trachea, has serous oculonasal discharge, but otherwise seems healthy. What do you suspect?

A

Uncomplicated CIRD/kennel cough

187
Q

What are the clinical signs associated with complicated kennel cough? Which airways are involved?

A

Overall sick pooch
Moist cough
Mucopurulent oculonasal discharge

Involves both upper and lower airways and can develop into bronchopneumonia.

188
Q

T/F Penicillins are recommended for complicated kennel cough infections associated with Bordetella.

A

False, they do not reach a very high concentration in respiratory secretions. Doxycycline for 2 weeks is the treatment of choice.

189
Q

Which canine respiratory disease has a high morbidity but low mortality, is spread through direct or indirect routes, and can result in hemorrhagic pneumonia?

A

Canine influenza (severe/complicated)

190
Q

How long is the incubation for Kennel Cough/CIRD? When do clinical signs develop?

A

3-7 days

CS 4-10 days post-exposure

191
Q

T/F Canine influenza can be prevented by vaccination.

A

True

192
Q

What canine respiratory infection generally affects younger dogs in kennels and can be diagnosed bronchoscopy as well as fecal examination?

A

Oslerus osleri

193
Q

T/F Bronchiectasis, damage to the bronchial structure resulting in a thickened wall and dilation secondary to a chronic respiratory condition, is irreversible.

A

True, the dilation is caused by a destruction of the muscle and elastic tissue

194
Q

T/F The most common cause of pneumonia in dogs is bacterial.

A

True

195
Q

Which lung lobe is usually involved with bacterial pneumonia?

A

Middle right (with cranioventral distribution)

196
Q

T/F Radiographic changes are seen before clinical signs in bacterial pneumonia/

A

False, radiographic signs come later

197
Q

What are the types of bacteria (the quadrants) that need to be covered by the broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy needed for the empirical treatment of bacterial pneumonia?

A

Gram +
Gram -
Anaerobes
Myocplasma spp

198
Q

What can you add to saline in a nebulizer for treating bacterial pneumonia?

A

Gentamycin

199
Q

What are the respiratory clinical signs associated with mycotic pneumonia?

A 
Abnormal respiratory pattern
Tachypnea
Cough
Exercise intolerance
Systemic signs (weightloss, chorio-retinitis, anterior uveitis)
200
Q

____ or serum antigen titers can be used to diagnose myoctic pneumonia.

A

Urine

201
Q

What parentral treatment with nephrotoxic effects can be used to treat mycotic pneumonia? If money is no object, what formulation could you prescribe that has fewer side effects?

A

Amphotericin B (IV or SQ)

The lipid complex form is less nephrotoxic but more expensive.

202
Q

Which type of respiratory fungal infection often presents with fever, emaciation, lymphdenomegaly and a harsh dry cough? Ocular, skin and bone lesions are also possible.

A

Blastomycosis

203
Q

Which type of respiratory fungal infection is the second most common systemic fungal disease in cats, who present with mental depression, weight loss, fever, anorexia, pale mucus membranes, and abnormal lung sounds but uncommonly with a cough? What is the treatment of choice?

A

Histoplasmosis

Intraconazole

204
Q

What fungal disease occurring mostly in immunosuppressed animals causes firm to flucuant swelling over the bridge of cats’ noses and neurological signs in dogs and cats? It is also easily isolated because it is easy to grow.

A

Cryptococcosis

205
Q

My name is Harshy Mc Coughface. I am a respiratory fungal disease that likes dry environments and like both dogs and cats. When I infect a cat, cutaneous lesions are common. On an x-ray, I create a diffuse interstitial pattern with miliary interstate densities, solitary nodules and a hilar lymphadenopathy. When you test for me, you look for antibodies. What am I?

A

Coccidiodomycosis

206
Q

I’m a worm that causes parasitic pneumonia in cats. You can find my babies in poop. I can be fown in TTW/ETW or BAL cytology. You might think I’m feline asthma. What am I? What gets rid of me?

A

Aelurostongylus abstrusus

Fenbendazole or ivermectin

207
Q

You are practicing in an area near the Mississippi river with a large bat population. A dog is brought to you who is dyspnic and coughing with abnormal lung sounds. He is not eating. has lost weight and is febrile. What fungal disease do you suspect?

A

Histoplasmosis

208
Q

What fluke can form cysts in lungs which can easily rupture and cause pneumothorax?

A

Paragoniumus spp.

209
Q

What intracellular bacteria that causes Cats Scratch Disease in humans is transmitted to cats by Ctenocephalides felis? Which species is most common?

A

Bartonella

B. henselae

210
Q

What bacteria attaches to and grows on the surface of red blood cells? The large form causes anemia, the small form rarely causes clinical signs in cats.

A

Mycoplasma

M. haemofelis - large form; Candidatus Mycoplasma haemominutum - small form

211
Q

What virus cases Feline Panleukopenia?

A

Feline parvovirus

212
Q

What is the reservoir for Cat Scratch Disease for humans?

A

Cats

213
Q

Are males or females more likely to show clinical signs with Myoplasma? Other than through arthropods and fleas, how is it often transmitted? What viruses are also commonly transmitted this way?

A

Males

Through saliva and fighting

FeLV and FIV

214
Q

Through what two mechanisms does Mycoplasma cause hemolytic anemia in cats?

A

Immune mediated RBC destruction

Hemolysis due to attachment to RBCs (Intravascular by directly damaging the membrane, extravascular due to being phagocytized by mononuclear cells)

215
Q

When treating Bartonella in cats, what antibiotics can you use and what side effects must you be aware of?

A

Enrofloxacin - neuro side effects and retinal degeneration (so can’t give >2.5mg/kg BID)

Doxycycline - esophagitis

Maybe Azithromycin but data is lacking

216
Q

T/F FPV/ Feline Panleuk and FeCOV have a long shedding periods.

A

False, short.

217
Q

Where does FPV initially replicate? How long is the plasma-phase viremia?

A

Oropharynx 18-24hrs post infection

Then viremia for 2-7 days

218
Q

While many cats are subclinically infected with FPV, the most common form causes fever, depression, anorexia, vomiting, lymphadenopathy and bleeding issues. Is this the acute or peracute form?

A

Acute

The peracute form affects youngsters and causes death within 12 hours due to septic shock.

219
Q

Why may you not find Mycoplasma on a blood smear in an infected cat? What can you do to improves the odds of finding it?

A

Cyclic parasitemia

Take a sample close to a capillary bed (e.g. ear) and make the smear immediately.

220
Q

Does the ELISA for FPV test for antibodies or antigen? What sample do you run?

A

Antigen

Feces

221
Q

What type of vaccine (killed, live or modified live) is used in cats to provide rapid and effective immunity to FPV?

A

Modified live

222
Q

T/F Compared to FVP, CVP causes mild disease.

A

True

223
Q

This feline virus is a ubiquitous enteric infection that must get incorporated into the host genome to multiply?

A

Feline coronavirus

224
Q

T/F Both Type I (unique feline strain, more common) and Type II (recombination of feline and canine COV) serotypes of feline coronavirus can cause FIP.

A

True.

225
Q

Do most cats infected with FeCOV develop FIP?

A

No, very few do.

226
Q

What are some reasons FIP has becomes more common in the USA?

A 
More cats
More indoor cats
More pure bred cats
More cats in shelters
Unbalanced diets
227
Q

IL- __and__, TNF-___, and MMP-___ are released by monocytes infected with FeCOV.

A

IL-6 and IL-I
TNF-alpha
MMP (Metalloprotinase) - 9

228
Q

An absent CMI response and strong humoral response causes the ____ form of FIP.

A

Effusive

229
Q

An intermediate CMI response results in the ____ form of FIP which causes lesions in the ___ and ___.

A

Non-effusive
CNS
Eyes

230
Q

T/F FIP causes peritonitis in cats.

A

False.

231
Q

The increased damage to this system is the reason why the effusive form of FIP causes fluid and protein accumulation in body cavities.

A

Blood vessels

232
Q

Which acute phase protein produced by the liver can help in diagnosing FIP/FeCOV? What is the dog standard for diagnosing this virus?

A

Alpha-1 acid glycoprotein (AGP)

Indirect FA testing or Histopathology immunohistochemistry staining (for antigen)

233
Q

What therapy is indicated to cure FIP?

A

None, it is not curable.

Can give glucocorticoids to improve QOL. Good nutrition is also important.

234
Q

What feline virus found worldwide contributed to the most disease-related deaths in pet cats?

A

Feline leukemia virus (FeLV)

235
Q

Which feline virus has the following stages/types: Abortive, Regressive, Progressive and Focal/Atypical?

A

Feline leukemia virus (FeLV)

236
Q

The mutant FeCoV strain vaccination is administered ____ and produces a ___immune response resulting in the formation of protective ____.

A

Intranasally

Cell-mediated

Antibodies

237
Q

What stem cells does FeLV affect?

A

Hematopoietic

238
Q

8 year old Purrdy Kittensworth, a pure bred Selkirk Rex, presents to your clinic because her owners have notices she hasn’t been interested in her food, seems to have lost weight and overall ADR. Her owner also swears she used to have blue eyes, but not they are more greenish brown. Upon examination you note a yellow tint to her gums, her temp is 103.6F, and her respiratory rate is 60 bpm. You do an ophthalmic exam and note keratic precipitates as well as a cloudiness in the anterior chamber. Purrdy’s parents didn’t want her to get autism so they have never vaccinated her. What is your top differential?

A

Non-effusive FIP caused by FeCOV.

239
Q

T/F Inheriting the non-pathogenic endogenous virus from their mother, protects the kittens against FeLV-A.

A

False, it increases the pathogenicity of FeLV-A

240
Q

Which group-associated antigen gene is used in the diagnosis of FeLV?

A

Gag protein p27

241
Q

Which sex is FeLV more common in?

A

Males

242
Q

T/F There is a higher prevalence of FeLV in adult compared to juvenile cats.

A

True.

243
Q

FeLV is predominantly spread through horizontally ____ .

A

Saliva

244
Q

These cats never get FeLV because they have high levels of neutralizing antibodies in circulation. What type of FeLV infection is this?

A

Abortive

245
Q

In a regressive FeLV infection, will the cat show clinical signs? If so what are they? If not, then why?

A

Yes; fever, malaise, and lymphadenopathy (due to viremia)

246
Q

T/F FeLV does not survive well outside the body and is readily inactivated in the environment. This is why close contact is needed for transmission.

A

True

247
Q

Furberella is an intact, adult female cat whom you test for FeLV. The ELISA comes up p27 antigen positive. When you re-check her in 3 months, she tests negative. What type of FeLV infection does she have? What should you recommend to the owner and why?

A

Regressive infection

Recommend spaying the cat because pregnancy can reactivate the virus.

248
Q

Cats who develop a(n) ____ FeLV infection can be p27 antigen positive or negative. The virus is restricted to certain tissues.

A

Focal / Atypical

249
Q

Cats with this type of FeLV infection remain persistently viremic and often die within 3 years.

A

Progressive

250
Q

T/F Cats with FeLV often get infectious diseases including FIP, FIV, URIs, hemotropic mycoplasmosis and stomatitis.

A

True

251
Q

T/F FeLV does not affect the nervous system.

A

False, can cause neuropathy.

252
Q

Your sister calls you because one of her neighbor’s, who has a plethora of cats, told her that one of her cats has tested positive for FeLV twice. Her neighbor was told that she had to find a new home for this cat but not to worry about her other cats because FeLV is not persistent in the environment. What do you say?

A

Other vet is an ignorant moron and may have facilitated a massive outbreak of FeLV.
Your sister’s neighbor needs to test all of her cats for FeLV and vaccinate the negative ones as soon as possible. She also needs to make sure her cats remain indoors.

253
Q

T/F Treating tumors caused by FeLV involves the use of antiviral rather than chemotherapeutic agents.

A

False, routine chemo is used.

The prognosis is worse for cats with FeLV who develop tumors,

254
Q

Are the hematological disorders caused by FeLV reversible? If not, what can you give to improve QOL? If yes, how can they be treated?

A

Most are reversible.

Can treat with blood transfusions, erythropoietin (rHuEPO) for anemia and G-CSF for neutropenia.

255
Q

T/F Antibody detection is not very specific or sensitive but can be used to diagnose regressive or progressive types of FeLV.

A

False, antibodies are useless because cats that are immune to FeLV have antibodies.

256
Q

What antiviral chemotherapy agents developed to treat human HIV are used to prolong the life and QOL in some cats with FeLV?

A

Zidovudine (AZT)

Didanosine

257
Q

What vaccine side effect can occur after vaccinating a cat against rabies and feline leukemia virus? Can you prevent it?

A

Injection site-associated sarcomas

Cannot prevent them, but can minimize the problem by injecting into the left rear leg for FeLV and the right rear leg for rabies. The tail is another good place.

258
Q

Scratchina Meowington III is FIV positive. She is expecting a litter soon. She is very smart and knows that the virus is found in high concentrations in the milk. Should she be worried that she’s going to pass on the virus in utero or postpartum while she is nursing them? Why?

A

No, transmission in utero or postpartum is very rare, as is transmission through the mucosal route.

259
Q

T/F Human IFN-omega or Feline INF-alpha can be used as immunomodulatory therapy to help decrease clinical signs and prolong life in cats with FeLV.

A

False, it’s Human IFN-alpha and Feline IFN-omega.

Feline INF-omega is better.

260
Q

What cells is FIV predominantly found in?

A

Blood lymphocytes and plasma cells

261
Q

What tissues does FIV replicate in initially? What do these tissues have in common?

A

Thymus
Spleen
Lymph Nodes

Are rich in lymphocyes

262
Q

After initial viremia, the immune system mounts an antibody response to decrease the amount of FIV in the system. The cat then enters a clinical _____ period.

A

Asymptomatic

263
Q

Which CD cell type is affected by FIV?

A

Both CD4+ and CD8+

264
Q

How many stages does FIV progress through and what are they?

A
  1. Acute phase
  2. Clinical asymptomatic phase
  3. Terminal phase (feline AIDS)
265
Q

T/F FIV antibodies develop within 60 days of exposure and are used to diagnose FIV with a high sensitivity.

A

True

266
Q

How long do maternal antibodies for FIV persist in kittens?

A

6 months

267
Q

Cats in the early stage of FIV infection may have negative test results. How many days after exposure should the test be repeated?

A

60

268
Q

How do you differentiate a vaccinated cat from an FIV+ cat?

A

ELISA

269
Q

Which of the following is incorrect:
The acute phase of FIV involved clinical signs like fever, malaise, lymphadenopathy and infections.

The asymptomatic phase lasts a few weeks and does not have any clinical signs associated with it.

The terminal phase can involve secondary infections, neurological changes, ocular disease and neoplasia.

A

The asymptomatic phase is of variable duration and can last years.
Everything else is correct.

270
Q

What treatments are available to improve the QOL and life expectancy in cats with FIV?

A

AZT (Zidovudine)

IFN-alpha immunomodulatory therapy

271
Q

T/F Cats infected with FIV have a lower life expectancy compared to cats infected with FeLV.

A

False, opposite

272
Q

Does the FIV vaccine provide total immunity against the virus?

A

No.

273
Q

T/F Toxoplasma gondii can affect all animals, but felids are their definitive host.

A

True

274
Q

What are the 3 infectious stages of T. gondii?

A

Sporozoites (in oocysts)

Tachyzoites (fast multiplication)

Bradyzoites (slow multiplication in tissue cysts)

275
Q

Is Toxoplasma gondii more prevalent in older or younger animals? What lifestyle also increases the prevalence?

A

Older

Raw meat diet

276
Q

T/F The enteroepithelial life cycle and the extra-intestinal life cycle for T. gondii occurs in all species.

A

False, the extra-intestinal occurs in all species but the enteroepithelial only occurs in the definitive host- the cat.

277
Q

In the extra-intestinal life cycle for T. gondii, tissue cysts form in _____, _____, and _____.

A

Muscle
Visceral organs
CNS

278
Q

Where are the commons sites for the initial replication and chronic persistent toxoplasma infections?

A 
Brain
Liver
Lungs
Skeletal muscle
Eyes
279
Q

Can toxoplasmosis be transmitted transplacentally or lactationally from queen to kitten?

A

Yes, it typically spreads systemically and causes Fading Kitten Syndrome.

280
Q

Why are the abdomens of kittens with systemic toxoplasmosis enlarged?

A

Hepatopathy

Ascites

281
Q

T/F Dogs develop chorioretinitis/ anterior uveitis with toxoplasmosis.

A

False, cats

282
Q

These three antibiotics are used to treat toxoplasmosis in cats:

A

Clindamycin
Pyrimethamine
Sulphanamide

283
Q

T/F Toxoplasmosis causes large bowel diarrhea in naive cats that ingest bradyzoites. The diarrhea is self-limiting.

A

False, small bowel diarrhea

284
Q

King Meowford’s owner is pregnant. Her OB/GYN tested her for toxoplasmosis about a year ago and she tested positive. Meowford also has toxoplasmosis. Should you advise his owner to have a friend watch King Meowford until after she gives birth? Why?

A

No, since she already had toxoplasmosis there is no risk to the fetus. Transplacental infection, where the tachyzoites spread to the fetus, can only occur if she is infected for the first time during the pregnancy.

285
Q

Tritrichomonas and Giardia organisms have a similar appearance. How can you distinguish them on a fresh fecal smear?

A

Giardia moves like a falling leaf (or a spooky ghost floating around)
Tritrichomonas moves in jerky, axial, rolling motions (spasTIC).

286
Q

What is the treatment for trichomoniasis in cats? What are the potential side effects?

A

Ronidazole (PO BID q14d)

Lethargy, inappetence, ataxia, seizures

287
Q

Fleas Witherspoon the cat has diarrhea. You know it is a protozoal infection. Her owners are very vigilant and observant. What could you ask them to further narrow down the probable agent causing the diarrhea?

A

How often she uses the litter box and how voluminous the feces is.

Toxo causes small bowel diarrhea, which is characterized by large volume poops 3-5 times daily. If there is blood in the stool it it black (digested).

Tritrichomonas causes large bowel diarrhea, which is characterized by frequent (>5x daily) small volume poops. If there is blood in the stool is is red (fresh).

288
Q

What sample do you send to the lab to test for trichomoniasis in cats?

A

Feces for PCR or culture (or you could do a fecal smear in house)

289
Q

T/F Nothing can be given to reduce oocyst shedding in cats, this is why it is so important to remove a cat with toxoplasmosis from a household if the owner is pregnant.

A

False, can give Monensin or Toltrazuril

It is still advised to re-home the cat if the owner is pregnant if the owner has tested negative.

290
Q

In feline cytauxzoonosis, where does the asexual shizogenous reproduction occur in the host? What can this lead to?

A

Mononuclear phagocytic cells

Vasculitis and vascular obstruction, also eventual cell rupture

291
Q

In feline cytauxsoonosis, hemolysis occurs when ____ cells take up __zoites by endocytosis producing classical _____.

A

Red blood (cells)

Mero(zoites)

Piroplasms

292
Q

What is pyrexia? Which protozoans cause it in cats?

A

Fever

Toxo and cytauxzoon

293
Q

T/F Cytauxzoon felis is transmitted by fleas.

A

False, ticks (Amblyomma americanum and Rhipicephalus sanguineus)

294
Q

Does a cat that survives the acute phase of cytauxzoonosis always recover completely, eliminating the protozoan?

A

No, while clinically recovery is complete, they can become chronic carriers.

295
Q

T/F Infection with Cytauzoon felis results in progressive clinical sings including anoerexia, lethargy and fever.

A

False, these CS are acute onset.

296
Q

Clinical disease caused by Cytauzoon felis occurs ___ weeks/days after transmission and includes increased vocalization, weakness, icterus, dark yellow urine, respiratory distress, obtunded mentation and even seizures.

A

1-3 weeks

297
Q

What is the best diagnostic tool for feline cytauxzoonosis?

A

Peripheral blood smear to look for signet ring-shaped piroplasms (safety pin and tetrad shape) and schizonts in mononuclear cells in the feathered edge

298
Q

What antiprotozoal drugs are used to treat feline cytauxzoonosis?

A

Imidocarb
Atovaquone
Diminazene aceturate

299
Q

What is the organisms that causes sporotrichosis in cats?

A

Sporothrix schenkii

300
Q

T/F Cats are highly susceptible to sporotrichiosis, which most often presents as multiple skin and mucosal lesions on the head.

A

True

301
Q

What js used to treat sporotrichosis in cats?

A

Itraconazole and saturated KI (potassium iodide) solution

SAM 1 scs RUSVM (3 decks)

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