Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What is the likely cd4 count of an aids patient p/w cryptococcal meningitis?

A

<50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Pt with exposure to bats/birds with pulm symptoms and oral ulcers with punctate lesions on X-ray?

A

Histoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Tx of choice for PJP?

A

Bactrim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How does botulism act?

A

Inhibits the release of acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Rice water stool

A

Cholera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pt with gastroenteritis with fever, and pain and vomiting. Likely which pathogen?

A

Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pea soup floating diarrhea

A

Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Blood in diarrhea with fever with punctate lesions on colonoscopy

A

Shigella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

India ink stain positive

A

Cryptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pt with history of bird exposure p/w fever, cough, dyspnea. Diagnosis? Tx?

A

Cryptococcus treat with diflucan for 10+ weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Fever with rash/petechiae, hyponatremia, thrombocytopenia, elevated LFTs. Diagnosis? Treatment?

A

Rocky Mountain spotted fever, treat with doxy unless pregnant: chloramphenicol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

At what temperature fever is irreversible brain damage caused?

A

> 106.8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for fever of unknown origin (3)?

A

Fever > 101.8, > 3 weeks with at least 1 weeks work up for a cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What medium does streptococcus grow on in the micro lab?

A

blood agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pt presents with fever, diffuse erythematous rash that blanches and is rough like sandpaper or goose bumps. Her face is flushed with circumoral pallor and strawberry tongue. Diagnosis?

A

Scarlet fever induced by strep pharyngitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Thick honey colored crust skin lesions

A

strep/staph impetigo - must be treated with antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

15 yo patient presents with a lacunar rash with central clearing and strange purposeless movements. Diagnosis? Names for these sypmtoms. What is the greatest mortality risk of this position.

A

Acute Rheumatic fever - erythema marginatum and sydenham chorea. Mortality risk: carditis leading to death or irreversible valvular injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the treatment for strep pharyngitis for a PCN allergic patient?

A

macrolides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pt presents with severeal lesions that are vesicular with a purple-to-black center which the patient says were just red bumps before. Cultures of the contents of the vesicle yield gram-positive box-shaped rods in chains. Diagnosis?

A

Anthrax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the treatment of choice in a patient with anthrax?

21
Q

What is the composition of oral rehydration solution?

A

I cup water, 1 tsp salt, 4 tsp sugar

22
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Shigella?

23
Q

What is the treatment of choice in diphtheria?

A

PCN or emycin

24
Q

What is the treatment of choice for pertussis?

25
Pt presents with acute onset fever, malaise, HA and sore throat. On exam, vesicles are seen in the posterior pharynx. What is the likely cause?
Herpes initial infection
26
Pt presents with fever, HA, altered mental status. CSF fromLP shows elevated protein and normal glucose. What is the next step in establishing the diagnosis?
send HSV DNA by PCR and get an MRI
27
What is the risk to the fetus of a mother with herpes? What can be done?
visceral and CNS infection, often C-section is performed
28
11 yo F has just gotten over the flu and presents with vomiting, jaundice and new onset seizures. Labs show increased LFTs, ammonia levels and prolonged PTT. Diagnosis? Tx?
Reye's syndrome reactive to influenza, treatment is supportive
29
What is the recommended time frame to start antiviral medications in a patient with influenza?
48 hours
30
What are the indications/contraindications to zostavax?
indications: > 60, contra: allergy to gelatin or neomycin or other contraindications for live vaccine
31
How is an animal tested for rabies?
Brain dissection and testing using fluorescent antibody markers
32
What is the treatment for a confirmed rabies bite?
infiltration of the wound with immunoglobulin + IM injection and vaccine administrations on days 0, 3, 7, 14 and 28
33
How often is CD4 count monitored in HIV/AIDS patients?
if > 350 q6 months otherwise q3 months
34
What is the typical medication course and effectiveness of post HIV exposure prophylaxis?
4 weeks, 70% effective
35
What should an HIV (+) mother be counseled about with her infant?
Transmission methods including breast milk
36
Pt presents with fever, malaise, splenomegaly no throat pain. Likely diagnosis?
CMV
37
HIV patient has neovascularization on ophthalmic exam looking almost like a pizza pie. Likely diagnosis?
CMV retinitis
38
Tissue biopsy of a patient with vague symptoms and myalgias shows intracytoplasmic inclusions (owl's eyes), diagnosis?
CMV
39
What is the treatment of choice in candidal fungemia?
amphotericin B
40
What is the treatment of choice for histoplasmosis?
Itraconazole PO for weeks to months
41
What is the treatment for cryptococcus?
amph B
42
What do you treat PJP with who have sulfa allergies?
Dapsone pr petamidine
43
What medication should a pregnant woman traveling to a malaria risk country take for prophylaxis?
Chloroquine
44
How long after initial infection are the VDRL/RPR tests effective for syphilis?
4-6 weeks
45
What follow up test is performed with a positive RPR/VDRL to confirm syphillis?
FTA-ABS
46
What is the treatment of syphillis?
PCN
47
What is the treatment of choice for Gonorrhea?
Im Ceftriaxone or Oral cefixime - treat for chlamydia as well with either doxycycline or azithromycin
48
What is the treatment for chlamydia in pregnancy?
Emycin
49
Pt presents with vaginal pruritus and yellow-green malodorous discharge. Red macular lesions are visible on the cervix and flagellates are seen on wet mount. Dx? Tx?
Trichomonas - Flagyl 2g single dose