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PANRE review > Infectious Disease > Flashcards

Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What is the likely cd4 count of an aids patient p/w cryptococcal meningitis?

A

<50

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2
Q

Pt with exposure to bats/birds with pulm symptoms and oral ulcers with punctate lesions on X-ray?

A

Histoplasmosis

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3
Q

Tx of choice for PJP?

A

Bactrim

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4
Q

How does botulism act?

A

Inhibits the release of acetylcholine

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5
Q

Rice water stool

A

Cholera

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6
Q

Pt with gastroenteritis with fever, and pain and vomiting. Likely which pathogen?

A

Salmonella

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7
Q

Pea soup floating diarrhea

A

Salmonella

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8
Q

Blood in diarrhea with fever with punctate lesions on colonoscopy

A

Shigella

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9
Q

India ink stain positive

A

Cryptococcus

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10
Q

Pt with history of bird exposure p/w fever, cough, dyspnea. Diagnosis? Tx?

A

Cryptococcus treat with diflucan for 10+ weeks

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11
Q

Fever with rash/petechiae, hyponatremia, thrombocytopenia, elevated LFTs. Diagnosis? Treatment?

A

Rocky Mountain spotted fever, treat with doxy unless pregnant: chloramphenicol

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12
Q

At what temperature fever is irreversible brain damage caused?

A

> 106.8

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13
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for fever of unknown origin (3)?

A

Fever > 101.8, > 3 weeks with at least 1 weeks work up for a cause

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14
Q

What medium does streptococcus grow on in the micro lab?

A

blood agar

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15
Q

Pt presents with fever, diffuse erythematous rash that blanches and is rough like sandpaper or goose bumps. Her face is flushed with circumoral pallor and strawberry tongue. Diagnosis?

A

Scarlet fever induced by strep pharyngitis

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16
Q

Thick honey colored crust skin lesions

A

strep/staph impetigo - must be treated with antibiotics

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17
Q

15 yo patient presents with a lacunar rash with central clearing and strange purposeless movements. Diagnosis? Names for these sypmtoms. What is the greatest mortality risk of this position.

A

Acute Rheumatic fever - erythema marginatum and sydenham chorea. Mortality risk: carditis leading to death or irreversible valvular injury

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18
Q

What is the treatment for strep pharyngitis for a PCN allergic patient?

A

macrolides

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19
Q

Pt presents with severeal lesions that are vesicular with a purple-to-black center which the patient says were just red bumps before. Cultures of the contents of the vesicle yield gram-positive box-shaped rods in chains. Diagnosis?

A

Anthrax

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20
Q

What is the treatment of choice in a patient with anthrax?

A

cipro

21
Q

What is the composition of oral rehydration solution?

A

I cup water, 1 tsp salt, 4 tsp sugar

22
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Shigella?

A

Bactrim

23
Q

What is the treatment of choice in diphtheria?

A

PCN or emycin

24
Q

What is the treatment of choice for pertussis?

A

emycin

25
Q

Pt presents with acute onset fever, malaise, HA and sore throat. On exam, vesicles are seen in the posterior pharynx. What is the likely cause?

A

Herpes initial infection

26
Q

Pt presents with fever, HA, altered mental status. CSF fromLP shows elevated protein and normal glucose. What is the next step in establishing the diagnosis?

A

send HSV DNA by PCR and get an MRI

27
Q

What is the risk to the fetus of a mother with herpes? What can be done?

A

visceral and CNS infection, often C-section is performed

28
Q

11 yo F has just gotten over the flu and presents with vomiting, jaundice and new onset seizures. Labs show increased LFTs, ammonia levels and prolonged PTT. Diagnosis? Tx?

A

Reye’s syndrome reactive to influenza, treatment is supportive

29
Q

What is the recommended time frame to start antiviral medications in a patient with influenza?

A

48 hours

30
Q

What are the indications/contraindications to zostavax?

A

indications: > 60, contra: allergy to gelatin or neomycin or other contraindications for live vaccine

31
Q

How is an animal tested for rabies?

A

Brain dissection and testing using fluorescent antibody markers

32
Q

What is the treatment for a confirmed rabies bite?

A

infiltration of the wound with immunoglobulin + IM injection and vaccine administrations on days 0, 3, 7, 14 and 28

33
Q

How often is CD4 count monitored in HIV/AIDS patients?

A

if > 350 q6 months otherwise q3 months

34
Q

What is the typical medication course and effectiveness of post HIV exposure prophylaxis?

A

4 weeks, 70% effective

35
Q

What should an HIV (+) mother be counseled about with her infant?

A

Transmission methods including breast milk

36
Q

Pt presents with fever, malaise, splenomegaly no throat pain. Likely diagnosis?

A

CMV

37
Q

HIV patient has neovascularization on ophthalmic exam looking almost like a pizza pie. Likely diagnosis?

A

CMV retinitis

38
Q

Tissue biopsy of a patient with vague symptoms and myalgias shows intracytoplasmic inclusions (owl’s eyes), diagnosis?

A

CMV

39
Q

What is the treatment of choice in candidal fungemia?

A

amphotericin B

40
Q

What is the treatment of choice for histoplasmosis?

A

Itraconazole PO for weeks to months

41
Q

What is the treatment for cryptococcus?

A

amph B

42
Q

What do you treat PJP with who have sulfa allergies?

A

Dapsone pr petamidine

43
Q

What medication should a pregnant woman traveling to a malaria risk country take for prophylaxis?

A

Chloroquine

44
Q

How long after initial infection are the VDRL/RPR tests effective for syphilis?

A

4-6 weeks

45
Q

What follow up test is performed with a positive RPR/VDRL to confirm syphillis?

A

FTA-ABS

46
Q

What is the treatment of syphillis?

A

PCN

47
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Gonorrhea?

A

Im Ceftriaxone or Oral cefixime - treat for chlamydia as well with either doxycycline or azithromycin

48
Q

What is the treatment for chlamydia in pregnancy?

A

Emycin

49
Q

Pt presents with vaginal pruritus and yellow-green malodorous discharge. Red macular lesions are visible on the cervix and flagellates are seen on wet mount. Dx? Tx?

A

Trichomonas - Flagyl 2g single dose

PANRE review (14 decks)

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