Infectious disease Flashcards

1
Q

how long should you avoid sports with EBV

A

> 3weeks; heterophile can be positive for up to a year and spleen is palpable only when its 2 or 3x normal

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2
Q

symptoms of parvovirus B19 in adults

A
  1. nonspecific rash
  2. polyarticular, symmetric arthritis involving peripheral joints including MCP, PIP, wrist, knees, and ankles
  3. fatigue
  4. fever
  5. diarrhea
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3
Q

agents that can cause a viral arthritis

A

hepatitis B and C, HIV, rubella

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4
Q

Tx of PPD+ pts? regular and HIV+

A

isoniazid and pyridoxine for 9 months; pyridoxine for protection again neuropathy caused by isoniazid; needs greater than 5mm of induration in HIV pts and greater thn 10mm (recent immigrants, iv drugss, hospitals, prisons, nursing homes, homeless shelters, reactivation co morbidities, kids15mm in everyone else

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5
Q

symptoms of bartonella infection

A

bacillary angiomatosis in immunocompromised and pts have cutaneous and visceral angioma-like blood vessel ggrowths; Abx for tx

nonspecific symptoms: fever, wt loss, malaise, abd pain & characteristic lesions of skin and viscera - classsic cutaneous lesions are large pedunculated exophyticc papule with a collarette of scale that resembles a large pyogenic granuloma or cherry angioma

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6
Q

PCP pna tx mild and mod/sever

A

IV TMP-SMX for all cases; possible outpt oral if very mild disease; add corticosteroids if PaO235

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7
Q

organism in osteomyelitis after a puncture wound

A

pseudomonas

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8
Q

most ocmmon cause of pna in nursing homes

A

step pneumoniae

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9
Q

most common pneumonia in those with neurologic disorders

A

advanced dementia, parkinson’s disease, and stroke (think aspiration pneumonia)

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10
Q

indications for meningococcal vaccine

A
  1. primary vaccine: age 11-12 (or13-18 if previously not vaccinated), optional at age 19-21 (if not previously vaccinated) for high risk pts and first year college students entering residential housing
  2. booster: age 16-21 if primary vaccine before 16th bday
  3. age>21 consider if at high risk (complement deficiency, asplenia, hiv, exposure to community outbreak, travel to hyperendemic/epidemic countries, military recruits
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11
Q

live attenuated vaccines (6)

A

polio, MMR, rotavirus, influenza, yellow fever, varicella zoster

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12
Q

causes of esophagitis in HIV and what CD4 count:

A

candida, hsv(vesicles and round/ovoid ulcers, CMV (deep, linear ulcers), idiopathic/aphthous

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13
Q

tx for syphilis and penicillin allergy

A

doxycycline, for tertiary use ceftriaxone, for pregnancy desensitize with penicillin first

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14
Q

symptoms of malaria

A

cyclical fever with constitutional nonspecific signs and gastrointestinal manifestations with anemia and thromocytopenia on lab

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15
Q

common life threatening side effects of HIV therapy

  1. didanosine
  2. abacavir
  3. NRTIs
  4. NNRTIs
  5. nevirapine
  6. idinavir
  7. efavirenz, what class?
A
  1. didanosine= pancreatitis
  2. abacavir= hypersensitivity syndrome, lactic acidosis, hepatitis
  3. NRTI= lactic acidosis
  4. NNRTI= stevens-johnson syndrome
  5. nevirapine= liver failure
  6. idinavir= crystal-induced nephropathy
  7. efavirenz = NNRTI, vivid dreams and hallucinations in 50% of patients
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16
Q

vaccines for asplenic adult pts and when you should get them

A
  1. pneumococcus: PCV13 and PPSV23 (revaccination with PPSV23 5 years later and age 65)
  2. h.influenzae: 1 dose
  3. meningococcal and every 5 years
  4. influenza: inactivated annually
  5. HAV, HBV, Tdap once as a substitue for Td and Tc every 10 years

** when considering splenectomy administer 14 days before or 14 days after the surgery

17
Q

endocarditis associated with UTIs

A

enterococcus faecalis

18
Q

opportunic infection prophylaxis in HIV

A
  1. PCP
19
Q

cirteria for lyme disease prophylaxis; must meet all 5

A
  1. tick is adult or nymphal ixodes/deer tick
  2. attached >36hrs or engorged
  3. no c/i to doxy (20% infection rate
  4. prophylaxis started within 72 hours of tick removal
20
Q

symtoms of a necrotizing surgical site infection

A
  • pain, edema, erythema spreading beyond site
  • systemic symptoms
  • parasthesias/anethesia at edges of wound
  • purulent, cloudy-gray discharge (“dishwater drainage”)
  • subQ gas or crepitus
21
Q

elichiosis, vector, endemic region, symptoms, lab abn, tx

A

lone star deer tick, southeast and south central US, acute febril illness with AMS and no rash, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia, doxycycline

22
Q

what is ecythema gangrenosum and what organism is it associated with

A

P. aeruginosa - lesions typically present with small erythematous macule that progresses to a larger nontender lesion with nodules with central necrosis; its caused by bacteria infiltrating media and adventitia of blood vessels

23
Q

why would there be blood in the CSF of a HSV encephalitis patient

A

if there’s frontotemporal destruction

24
Q

strep pharyngitis and impetigo are associated with what complications

A

strep pharyngitis = rheumatic fever

impetigo = post strep glomerulonephritis

25
Q

Drug-induced esphagitis is caused by:

A

tetracyclines, aspirin and other NSAIDs, alendronate, KCL, quinidine, and iron

26
Q

Tx for cat bite wounds:

A

amox/clav for 5 days (for pasturella), p. multocida is resistant to erythromycin 50% of the time

27
Q

how does osteomyelitis spread in those with arterial insufficieny? how about it kids?

A

contiguously, not through lymphatics or hematogenous (this is for kids)

28
Q

What do blood cultures show in disseminated gonococcal infection

A

Can be negative due to fastidious nature of infection