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Pediatrics > Infectious Disease > Flashcards

Infectious Disease Flashcards

0
Q

What patient population is at increased risk for Staph aureus brain abscesses in children?

A

Cyanotic Congenital heart disease

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1
Q

At what age you you start using doxycycline?

A

8

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2
Q

What type of pneumonia is associated with increased risk of staph aerues emphyema?

A

Strep pneumoniae pneumonia

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3
Q

What typical infection/situation can be a set up of Strep pyogenes toxic shock syndrome in children?

A

Post op with the chicken pox

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4
Q

What infection causes neonatal rash called granulomatosis infantisepticum?

A

Listeria

Erythematous rash with papules

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5
Q

What are risk factors for strep pneumoniae infection?

A
  1. Asplenia
  2. Very young and very old
  3. Hypogammaglobulinemia
  4. HIV
  5. Cochlear implants
  6. Alaskan natives
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6
Q

What is syndrome seen with S. Pyogenes, toddler, purulent nasal discharge and pharyngitis?

A

Streptococcosis

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7
Q

What timeframe do you need to start antibiotics in strep infection to alleviate risk for rheumatic fever?

A

9 days

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8
Q

What are Pastia lines?

A

Scarlet fever rash lines in flexor surfaces in antecubital fossa -pathognomonic

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9
Q

What post strep complication is seen with impetigo/cellulitis?

A

Post strep GN

NOT rheumatic fever

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10
Q

What recurrent infection is a risk factor for development of necrotizing fasciitis in children?

A

Varicella

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11
Q

When do you prophylactically treat household members with post strep rheumatic fever or GN?

A

If household contact > 65 yo with other risk factors for invasive disease like HIV, DM, varicella, chemotherapy

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12
Q

What is the timeframe for early GBS disease in neonates?

A

Birth to 7 days

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13
Q

What is timeframe for late GBS disease?

A

7 days to 3 months

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14
Q

What is initial treatment of group B strep disease?

A

Penicillin plus aminoglycoside

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15
Q

What type of disease does group C strep cause?

A

Pharyngitis in college students

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16
Q

What is initial treatment for enterococcus?

A

Vancomycin or penicillin/ampicillin plus aminoglycoside

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17
Q

What shaped organism is Listeria?

A

Gram positive rod but can look like a diphtheroid

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18
Q

What is treatment of Listeria?

A

Ampicillin plus aminoglycoside of severe infection

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19
Q

What is cardiac complication which is seen with diphtheria?

A

Myocarditis

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20
Q

What is treatment of diphtheria?

A

Erythromycin plus antitoxin

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21
Q

What is first antibiotic for anthrax?

A

Ciprofloxacin or doxycycline

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22
Q

What patients have risk for clostridium septicum infection?

A

Underlying GI malignancy

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23
Q

What age group should you NOT send C. Difficle culture due to it being a common colonizer?

A
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24
Q

What is treatment for gas gangrene and C. Perfingens?

A

Penicillin

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25
Q

What cultural practice can predispose an infant to neonatal tetanus?

A

Placing manure on umbilical stump

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26
Q

What is treatment of tetanus?

A

Tetanus immunoglobulin plus flagyl

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27
Q

What brain infection does citrobacter cause?

A

Brain abscess

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28
Q

At what age do you start giving Tdap over Dtap?

A

7 years old

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29
Q

Which patients require prophylaxis for exposure to Neisseria meningitidis?

A

Household, close contacts within past 7 days, airplane flight > 8 hrs if seated directly next to patient

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30
Q

How old can you start to vaccinate children with MCV4 if they are high risk?

A

Age 2 -boost every 5 years

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31
Q

Which healthcare workers need abx prophylaxis if exposed to child with meningococcemia?

A

Only if exposed to oral secretions like intubating child

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32
Q

What timeframe after birth do you mostly seen gonorrhea ophthalmia?

A

2-7 days

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33
Q

What timeframe after birth do you seen chlamydia eye infection?

A

7-14 days

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34
Q

What is treatment of gonorrheal ophthalmia?

A

Ceftiaxone 50mg/kg IM x 1 but needs eval for sepsis

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35
Q

Who requires chemoprophylaxis for exposure to pertussis?

A

All household/close contacts

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36
Q

What is ecthyma gangrenosum?

A

Round indurated black lesion cause by pseudomonas - risk of neutropenic patient with typhlitis

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37
Q

When do you give antibiotics for treatment of Salmonella?

A

Child < 3 months

Immunocompromised patients

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38
Q

What location does salmonella typhi like to seed?

A

Gallstones

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39
Q

What skin finding is seen in salmonella typhi?

A

Rose spots on trunk- look like small angiomas

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40
Q

Which diarrheal organisms has common complications of rectal prolapse or seizures?

A

Shigella

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41
Q

What are best treatment of shigella in kids?

A

Ceftriaxone
Cipro if older than 18
Azithromycin

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42
Q

When can a child with shigella return to daycare?

A

Diarrhea resolved and stool studies negative

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43
Q

Which bacterial cause of pneumonia has a “pleomorphic” appearance?

A

Haemophilus influenzae

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44
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial periorbital cellulitis in children?

A

Pneumococcus

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45
Q

Who do you give antibiotic prophylaxis to if exposed to INVASIVE stains of H. Flu?

A

Rifampin 20mg/kg daily x 4 days to all household contacts and daycare attendees

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46
Q

What organism is common cause of culture negative endocarditis?

A

Brucellosis

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47
Q

What infection does Kingella typically cause?

A

Osteomyelitis in child

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48
Q

Which bacteria is associated with chitterlings?

A

Yersinia enterolitica

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49
Q

What rickettsia disease is associated with slaughter houses?

A

Q fever

Or cats/cattle birthing products

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50
Q

What states is erlichiolisis mostly in?

A

Texas
Oklahoma
Missouri
Arkansas

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51
Q

What states is anaplasmosis mostly in?

A

Northeast

Midwest

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52
Q

What is bacteria associated with lemierre disease?

A

Fusobacterium

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53
Q

How do you treat lymphadenitis cause by mycobacteria avium intracellularae?

A

Excision

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54
Q

What is the most common extrapulmonary manifestation of TB in children?

A

Lymph node involvement
TB usually bilateral
Atypical mycobacterium unilateral

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55
Q

What age group does a PPD of 10 mm equal a positive result?

A
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56
Q

What do you treat kids with for latent TB of isoniazid intolerant?

A

Rifampin x 6 months

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57
Q

Negri bodies in cytoplasm of neurons is pathognomonic for what disease?

A

Rabies

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58
Q

When can only 3 drug regimen (rifampin, INH, PZA) be given?

A

New TB pt with

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59
Q 
What organism is:
Weakly acid fast
Branching, beaded filamentous shape
Causes thin walled cavitary lesions in lungs
Focal brain abscesses
Neutrophilic chronic meningitis
A

Nocardia

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60
Q 
What organism is:
Microaerophilic or facultative anaerobe
Has yellow "sulfur" granules
Usual presentation is cervicofacial involvement following dental infection
Can cause PID if IUD in place
A

Actinomyces

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61
Q

What are the most common organisms that cause infections in patients with CGD?

A 
Staphylococcus
Salmonella
Serratia
Burkholderia 
Asperguillosis
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62
Q

What causes Weil Disease?

A

Leptospirosis

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63
Q

What do you test for leptospirosis?

A

Blood culture or urine culture (positive longer)

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64
Q

What is treatment of leptospirosis?

A

Penicillin or doxycycline

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65
Q

What is best sequence of testing for Lyme disease?

A

ELISA then confirm with western blot

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66
Q

What is a heart complication of Chagas’ disease?

A

Heart block
Myocarditis
CHF

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67
Q

What HLA is associated with poor responders to abx treatment for Lyme disease?

A

HLA DR4

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68
Q 
What condition is associated with:
Chronic oral and facial rash
Alopecia
Esophageal stricture
Occasionally hypothyroidism/Addison disease/DM/vitiligo/hypothyroidism
A

Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis

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68
Q

At what age is it uncommon to have thrush in infant and should prompt consideration of other immunodeficiency?

A

> 5 months

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70
Q

What congenital infection has 4-10x greater risk of developing IDDM?

A

Rubella

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71
Q

What other complications of candidal fungemia need to be checked for if positive blood culture with candida?

A

Retina exam- chorioretinitis
Renal fungal balls
Hepatic infiltration

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72
Q

What are 3 deadly syndromes associated with candidemia?

A
  1. Septic peripheral thrombophlebitis
  2. Septic thrombosis of great veins
  3. Hepatosplenic candidiasis
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73
Q

What infection causes “cannon ball” skin lesions?

A

Cryptococcous

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74
Q

What is seen on India ink stain if positive for cryptococcous?

A

Large “halo” due to thick capsule

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75
Q

What is treatment of choice for CNS coccidiomycosis?

A

Fluconazole

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76
Q 
What organism causes the following:
Interstitial pneumonia
Splenomegaly 
Palate ulcers
Anemia, neutropenia or thrombocytopenia
A

Histoplasmosis

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77
Q

What organism causes disease in loggers or hunters in Arkansas or Wisconsin?

A

Blastomycosis

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78
Q

What fungus has a “spaghetti and meatball” appearance on skin scraping?

A

Malassezia furfur

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79
Q

What two disease entities does malassezia furfur cause?

A
  1. tinea versicolor

2. Bilateral interstitial pulmonary infiltrates in NICU babies on TPN and lipids (needs olive oil to grow in lab)

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83
Q

What are the 4 forms on sporotrichosis?

A
  1. Cutaneous form
  2. Lymphatic form
  3. Pulmonary
  4. Disseminated
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84
Q

What does a positive IgG VCA antibody mean in EBV infection?

A

That they have been exposed at some point in their life. Does not help with acute or past infection. If the only antibody positive is this one it does mean they are in convalescent period

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85
Q

What is treatment of sporotrichosis?

A

Cutaneous/lymphatic - oral potassium iodide or itraconazole

Pulmonary/disseminated - amphoB or itraconazole

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87
Q

What is the treatment of congenital toxoplasmosis?

A

Pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, leucovorin x 12 months

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89
Q

What is antifungal for mucormycosis?

A

AmphoB or posaconazole

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90
Q

What infection in pregnancy can cause

  • mental retardation
  • chorioretinitis/retinochoroiditis
  • microcephaly
  • hydrocephalus
  • HSM
  • cerebral calcifications
  • TTP
A

Congenital toxoplasmosis

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91
Q

What are two treatments for chloroquine resistant P. falciparum?

A
  1. Mefloquine

2. Pyrimethamine/sulfadoxine

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92
Q

What blood disorder do you need to screen for prior to starting primaquine?

A

G6PD deficiency - can get hemolytic anemia

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93
Q

What is main malaria prophylaxis for chloroquine resistant areas?

A

Mefloquine
Doxycycline
Atovaquone/proguanil

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94
Q

How long should you take malarial prophylaxis in relation to traveling?

A

1-2 weeks prior to arrival to endemic area and 4-6 weeks after leaving

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95
Q

What organism causes major outbreaks of diarrhea in Wisconsin associated with swimming pools/ contaminated city water?

A

Cryptosporidium

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96
Q

What is the treatment of diarrhea caused by Isospora belli?

A

TMP/SMX

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97
Q

What organism causes diarrhea with raspberries from Guatemala?

A

Cyclospora

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98
Q

Which type of malaria is most commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome?

A

P. malariae

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99
Q

What medication helps eradicate the hypnozoites (causes relapses) from the liver in P. ovale and P. Vivax infections?

A

Primaquine

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100
Q

What are Osler nodes?

A

Tender nodules on palms finger tips and soles associated with endocarditis

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100
Q

What are Osler nodes?

A

Tender nodules on palms finger tips and soles associated with endocarditis

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102
Q

What is the 2nd most common infectious cause of HUS after E. coli O157:H7?

A

S. pneumoniae

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103
Q

What trimester is congenital toxoplasmosis cause the most severe infection?

A

1st

104
Q

What organism can be mistaken for malaria and more common in asplenia patients?

A

Babesia

105
Q

What is the treatment of babesia?

A

Clindamycin and quinine

106
Q

How do you diagnosis a liver ameba abscess?

A

Serology. Aspirate usually does not show organisms

107
Q

What are drugs used to treat Giardia?

A

Metronidazole
Tinidazole
Nitrazoxanide

108
Q

What is Romana sign in Chagas’ disease?

A

Unilateral firm edema of the eyelids

109
Q

What worm infestation can cause a Loeffler syndrome (eosinophilic hypersensitivity reaction in lungs)?

A

Ascaris

110
Q

Which worm infection can often cause rectal prolapse?

A

Whipworm (trichuriasis trichiura)

111
Q 
What congenital infections presents with:
Blueberry muffin baby
Cataracts/glaucoma
Sensorineural deafness
Cardiac defect
Radiolucencies in long bones
HSM
Bulging anterior fonts belle
Hemolytic anemia
A

Congenital rubella

112
Q

Which is the only helminthic infection that DOES replicate in the body?

A

Strongyloides

113
Q

What organism causes Chagas’ disease?

A

T cruzi

114
Q

What organism causes elephantiasis (lymphatic filariasis)?

A

Wuchereria bancrofti

115
Q

What is larva currens?

A

Serpiginous rash with erythematous tracks caused by strongyloides infection

116
Q

What causes VISCERAL larva migrans?

A

Toxocariasis

117
Q

What organism can cause

  • migratory pneumonia
  • hypergammaglobulinemia
  • eosinophilia
  • fever
  • HSM
A

Toxocara canis

118
Q

What form of Taenia solium is ingested to get an intestinal tapeworm?

A

Cysticerci

119
Q

What form of Taenia solium is ingested causes cysticercosis/neurocyctercerosis?

A

Egg

120
Q

What organism is the common cause of tapeworm in humans?

A

T. saginata - beef tapeworm

121
Q

What is preferred treatment of intestinal tapeworms?

A

Praziquantal

122
Q

What causes katayama fever?

A

Schistosomiasis

123
Q

What is the most serious complication that can occur with schistomatosis?

A

Cirrhosis/esophageal varices

125
Q

What is treatment of schistomatosis?

A

Praziquantel for 1 day!

126
Q

What is drug of choice for acyclovir resistant HSV?

A

Foscarnet

128
Q

How long are children with chickenpox contagious?

A

Until all lesions crusted over

If in hospital for 21 days or 28 if VariZIG given

129
Q

What is the most common complication of chicken pox?

A

Secondary bacterial infections of the skin

130
Q

What is most common CNS complication of chicken pox?

A

Cerebellar ataxia and encephalitis

131
Q

What congenital infection presents with

  • cicatricial skin scarring
  • limb atrophy
  • cortical atrophy
  • seizures
  • chorioretinitis
  • neurologic defects
A

Congenital varicella

132
Q

What is prophylaxis for maternal/pregnant woman exposed to varicella?

A

VariZIG within 4 days of exposure

NOT vaccine as it is live

133
Q

What organism is common with:
Meningitis
7th nerve palsy
Foot drop

A

Lyme

134
Q

What pts need VariZIG if exposed?

A
  1. Immunocompromised
  2. Pregnant
  3. Newborns whose mothers develop varicella
135
Q

What organism is common with:
Meningitis
7th nerve palsy
Foot drop

A

Lyme

136
Q

What fluke can cause biliary obstruction?

A

Clonorchis sinensis

137
Q

What antivirals decrease the chance of post hermetic neuralgia?

A

Famciclovir

Valacyclovir

138
Q

What is another name for HHV5?

A

CMV

139
Q

Which HIV drug is most likely the cause of a macrocytosis?

A

AZT

140
Q

What infection is increased if you give ibuprofen to kids with chicken pox?

A

S pyogenes

141
Q

What congenital infection has

  • HSM
  • IUGR
  • jaundice
  • blueberry muffin baby
  • microcephaly
  • chorioretinitis
  • sensorineural hearing loss
  • periventricular intracranial calcifications
A

CMV

142
Q

What causes heterophile negative mononucleosis like syndrome?

A

CMV

143
Q

Which antibiotics bind IRreversibly to 30S subunit to work?

A

Amino-glycoside

144
Q

What is seen in biopsy specimen if CMV pneumonitis?

A

Inclusion bodies

146
Q

Which antibiotics bind IRreversibly to 30S subunit to work?

A

Amino-glycoside

147
Q

How long should people avoid contact sports after EBV infection?

A

1-3 months

148
Q

Which HIV is associated with kidney stones?

A

Indinavir

149
Q

What does the EBNA+ mean with EBV infection?

A

Convalescent or post EBV infection.

150
Q

What does a patient likely have if they have mononucleosis symptoms but heterophile negative?

A

CMV

151
Q

What virus causes Forchheimer spots (pinpoint red spots on soft palate)?

A

Rubella

152
Q

Which HIV is associated with kidney stones?

A

Indinavir

153
Q

Which enterovirus is most responsible for herpangina?

A

Coxsackie A

154
Q

What viruses have giant multinucleated cells in Tzanck smear?

A

HSV

VZV

155
Q

What virus is classically associated with post auricular lymphadenopathy, macular rash that starts on face that spreads to neck then trunk then arms then legs?

A

Rubella

157
Q

What are the three C’s of measles?

A

Coryza
Conjunctivitis
Cough

158
Q

What vitamin deficiency causes worsening measles infection?

A

Vitamin A

159
Q

Do Koplik spots occur before after the rash of measles?

A

2-3 days before

160
Q

Where does measles rash start?

A

Hairline and spreads downward

161
Q

Within how many days of exposure to measles can you give IVIG ?

A

6

162
Q

What are 3 types of pneumonia that can complicate influenza?

A
  1. Viral bronchopneumonia
  2. Secondary bacterial
  3. Diffuse viral hemorrhagic alveolitis
163
Q

What is a severe neurologic complication of congenital rubella?

A

Progressive rubella Panencephalitis - presents 2nd decade of life

164
Q

Which serotypes of adenovirus are most likely to cause severe infections?

A

3, 7, 21

165
Q

What is contraindication to using zanamivir for influenza?

A

Chronic lung disease or asthma

166
Q

If an epidemic of influenza A or B threatens an unimmunized nursing or children’s home, who should receive zanamivir?

A

Entire population. Also give all the flu shot

167
Q

What age do you stop giving a 2 shot series for first time immunization against influenza?

A

9 yo

168
Q

What is a potential liver complication of congenital coxsakievirus B?

A

Hepatic necrosis

169
Q

What is the typical paralysis caused by polio?

A

Asymmetric
Flaccid
NO reflexes
Descending

170
Q

How do you diagnose rabies?

A

Biopsy of nerves in nape of neck

Also available is PCR of saliva, CSF and blood

171
Q

What is treatment of possible rabies exposure?

A 
Rabies IVIG (RIG) and vaccinate
Infiltrate wound with RIG and administer the rest IM
172
Q

Who should get pre exposure prophylaxis for rabies?

A

Veterinarians or cave explorers

173
Q

What are common complications of mumps?

A
  1. Deafness
  2. Sterility
  3. Mastitis
174
Q

What is possible complication of Parvovirus B19 infection in pregnancy?

A

Fetal hydrops

175
Q

What are Roth spots?

A

Pale retinal lesions with surrounding hemorrhage

Endocarditis

176
Q

What is best was to diagnosis an acute infection of parvovirus?

A

IgM

177
Q

Where is hantavirus most prevalent?

A

Western and southwest US

178
Q

What is reservoir for hantavirus?

A

Deer mouse

179
Q

What virus classically has a “saddleback” fever?

A

Dengue

180
Q

What are Roth spots?

A

Pale retinal lesions with surrounding hemorrhage

Endocarditis

181
Q

What is a rare form of encephalopathy thought related to measles virus?

A

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

182
Q

Are immunoglobulin levels in AIDS increased or decreased?

A

Increased

183
Q

What is the earlier detectable level for HIV transmission in newborn?

A

HIV DNA by PCR

184
Q

How can you determine if a child was NOT infected by HIV?

A

3 negative HIV DNA PCR testings with the last one > 4 months of age

185
Q

What are 2 major side effects of didanosine?

A
  1. Pancreatitis

2. Peripheral neuropathy

186
Q

What are major side effects of protease inhibitors?

A

Lipodystrophy

Diabetes development

187
Q

When do you institute HAART therapy in children?

A
  1. AIDS defining illness

2. CD4

188
Q

What is standard post exposure prophylaxis for needle stick injuries?

A

ZDV, lamivudine, lopinavir/ritonavir

189
Q

What is the threshold for starting PCP prophylaxis in HIV in children?

A

All HIV positive 6 yo

190
Q

What is potentially fatal side effect of abacavir?

A

Hypersensitivity reaction

191
Q

Which abx bond REVERSIBLY to 30S subunit to function?

A

Tetracyclines

192
Q

What criteria do you need to add corticosteroids to treat PCP PNA?

A

PaO2 35

193
Q

What is possible GI side effect of recurrent courses of pentamidine?

A

Islet cell destruction causing irreversible hypoglycemia

194
Q 
What infection is associated with:
HIV +
Palate ulcers
Splenomegaly
Bone marrow suppression
Interstitial pneumonia
A

Histoplasmosis

195
Q

When can you stop PCP prophylaxis is AIDS patients?

A

CD4 > 200 for at least 3 months

196
Q

What HIV drug is teratogenic?

A

Efavirenz

197
Q

When can you stop MAC prophylaxis in AIDS patients?

A

CD4 >100 for 3 months

198
Q

What is most common organism to cause endocarditis of a prosthetic valve?

A

S epidermidis

199
Q

Which meningococcal strain causes most meningitis cases?

A

B

200
Q

What organism should you consider in:
Meningitis
Swimming in brackish water (cow ponds)

A

Amebic meningitis

201
Q

What is diagnosis of choice for neurosyphilis?

A

CSF-VRDL

202
Q

What is treatment of ETEC diarrhea?

A

Azithromycin or Ciprofloxacin

203
Q

Which adenovirus subtypes are associated with diarrhea?

A

40 and 41

204
Q

Which diarrheal illness is prolonged with antibiotics?

A

Salmonella

205
Q

What infections is ampicillin still the drug of choice?

A

Listeria
Enterococcus
Salmonella

206
Q

Which carbapenum lowers seizure threshold?

A

Imipenum

207
Q

Which carbapenum is NOT effective against pseudomonas?

A

Ertapenum

208
Q

What is an acute renal complication of acyclovir?

A

IV form can Precipitate in renal tubules and cause renal failure

209
Q

What antibiotic must be avoided in 3rd trimester of pregnancy secondary to increase risk of kernicterus?

A

Bactrim

210
Q

Which antibiotics block DNA gyrase of bacteria?

A

Quinolones

211
Q

What organism is associated with
Meningitis
6th nerve palsy
Basilar enhancemt on head CT

A

TB

212
Q

Where do Janeway lesions present with endocarditis?

A

Palms and soles

213
Q

What are two major side effects of zidovudine or AZT?

A

Bone marrow suppression

Myopathy

214
Q

If a child wakes up and there had been a bat in the room do they need rabies prophylaxis?

A

Yes

215
Q

What immunodeficiency is associated with more severe CNS consequences of enteroviral meningitis?

A

Agammaglobulinemia

216
Q

What are major side effects of protease inhibitors?

A

Lipodystrophy

Diabetes development

217
Q

When do you institute HAART therapy in children?

A
  1. AIDS defining illness

2. CD4

218
Q

What is standard post exposure prophylaxis for needle stick injuries?

A

ZDV, lamivudine, lopinavir/ritonavir

219
Q

What is the threshold for starting PCP prophylaxis in HIV in children?

A

All HIV positive 6 yo

220
Q

What are 5 types of syndromes caused by adenovirus?

A
  1. Pharyngoconjunctivitis
  2. Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis
  3. Diarrhea
  4. Acute hemorrhagic cystitis
  5. Meningoencephalitis
221
Q

What HIV drugs have an increased risk of lactic acidosis in pregnant women?

A

Stavudine/zalcitabine combo

222
Q

Which abx bond REVERSIBLY to 30S subunit to function?

A

Tetracyclines

223
Q

What criteria do you need to add corticosteroids to treat PCP PNA?

A

PaO2 35

224
Q

What is possible GI side effect of recurrent courses of pentamidine?

A

Islet cell destruction causing irreversible hypoglycemia

225
Q 
What infection is associated with:
HIV +
Palate ulcers
Splenomegaly
Bone marrow suppression
Interstitial pneumonia
A

Histoplasmosis

226
Q

When can you stop PCP prophylaxis is AIDS patients?

A

CD4 > 200 for at least 3 months

227
Q

Which trimester is most likely to cause defects if congenital rubella occurs?

A

1st

228
Q

When can you stop MAC prophylaxis in AIDS patients?

A

CD4 >100 for 3 months

229
Q

What is most common organism to cause endocarditis of a prosthetic valve?

A

S epidermidis

230
Q

Which meningococcal strain causes most meningitis cases?

A

B

231
Q

What organism should you consider in:
Meningitis
Swimming in brackish water (cow ponds)

A

Amebic meningitis

232
Q

What is diagnosis of choice for neurosyphilis?

A

CSF-VRDL

233
Q

What is treatment of ETEC diarrhea?

A

Azithromycin or Ciprofloxacin

234
Q

Which adenovirus subtypes are associated with diarrhea?

A

40 and 41

235
Q

Which diarrheal illness is prolonged with antibiotics?

A

Salmonella

236
Q

What infections is ampicillin still the drug of choice?

A

Listeria
Enterococcus
Salmonella

237
Q

Which carbapenum lowers seizure threshold?

A

Imipenum

238
Q

Which carbapenum is NOT effective against pseudomonas?

A

Ertapenum

239
Q

What is an acute renal complication of acyclovir?

A

IV form can Precipitate in renal tubules and cause renal failure

240
Q

What antibiotic must be avoided in 3rd trimester of pregnancy secondary to increase risk of kernicterus?

A

Bactrim

241
Q

Which antibiotics block DNA gyrase of bacteria?

A

Quinolones

242
Q

What organism is associated with
Meningitis
6th nerve palsy
Basilar enhancemt on head CT

A

TB

243
Q

Where do Janeway lesions present with endocarditis?

A

Palms and soles

244
Q

What virus causes exanthem subitum (roseola infantum)?

A

HHV6

Sixth disease

246
Q

What antimalarial agent is plasmodium falciparum almost universally resistant to?

A

Chloroquine

252
Q

What HIV drugs have an increased risk of lactic acidosis in pregnant women?

A

Stavudine/zalcitabine combo

253
Q

Which organism causes cutaneous larva migrans?

A

Hookworm (necator americanus)

274
Q

What meat is trichinosis usually caused by?

A

Pork

275
Q

What is classic triad for legionella?

A

Pneumonia
Diarrhea
CNS symptoms (headache, confusion)

276
Q

What is a positive PPD in children

A

10 mm

277
Q

What organism is associated with PID in adolescents with an IUD?

A

Actinomyces

278
Q

What organism is associated with pneumonia with a staccato cough in a neonate?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

279
Q

What kind of mouth finding can help differentiate between histoplasmosis and C. Psittaci infections?

A

Palatal ulcers in histoplasmosis

280
Q

What type of bacteremia is common in iron overload states?

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

Pediatrics (9 decks)

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