Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MRCGP > Infectious Disease > Flashcards

Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Treatment Campyloabcter/undercooked meat

A

Clarithromycin 250mg – 500 mg BD PO for 5–7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Treatment giardia

A

Metronidazole 400mg TDS PO for 5days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

C diff treatment

A

10 days Vancomycin 125mg QDS PO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When should you give a tetanus vaccine?

A

5x as part of vaccination schedule

If wound is tetanus prone:
Puncture injuries involving soil (gardening)
Wounds containing foreign bodies
Compound or open fractures
Wounds or burns with systemic sepsis
Heavy contamination with soil, manure.
wounds or burns that show extensive devitalised tissue.
wounds or burns that require surgical intervention that is delayed >6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Management of cellulitis

A

Flucloxacillin 500mg -1g QDS PO
OR
Clarithromycin 500mg BD PO
Co-amox if face

Review after 48hrs, if improving, continue for 7-14 days
If joint involved-> T+O
If oribital-> ophthalm
If head + neck-> ENT
If sepsis-> admit medicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When does a bite need antibiotic prophylaxis?

A

Human- only if broken skin + drawn blood (or if person/location high risk) Doxycycline 200mg stat then 100mg BD + metronidazole 400mg TDS 3 days
Dog- only if broken skin + drawn blood, co-amox 625 TDS 3 days
Cat- if deep or if broken skin + drawn blood, co-amox 625 TDS 3 days
If human bite, also assess risk HIV/HepB/HepC
Bat bite- admit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Treatment of infected bite

A

5-7 days
Human- Doxycycline 200mg stat then 100mg BD + metronidazole 400mg TDS
Dog/Cat- co-amox 625 TDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Fever in returned traveller differentials if returned<2 weeks ago

A

COVID-19, influenza, malaria, typhoid, yellow fever, leptospirosis, zika, Ebola, typhus, rickettsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Fever in returned traveller differentials if returned 2-6 weeks ago

A

Malaria, HepA-E, schistosomiasis, amoebic liver abscess, HIV, Brucellosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Fever in returned traveller differentials if returned >6 weeks ago

A

Malaria (vivax)
HepA-E, HIV
Schistosomiasis
TB
Rabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Who is at higher risk of Hep B?

A

Asia, africa, middle east, S+ E Europe, Central + South America, Carribbean
Sex workers, inmates, healthcare workers, needlestick injuries, MSM, IVDU, blood products pre 1990, dialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Features of acute hepatitis

A

Fever
Abdominal pain, anorexia, nausea, vomiting
Icteric features, jaundice, dark urine, pale faeces
Enlarged tender liver or spleen
Urticaria, and joint pains (hep A +B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Referral criteria Hep B

A

Admit if: acute hepatitis/liver failure/liver decompensation

Urgent hepatology if:
↑bilirubin, ↑PT
symptoms>3m

Routine hepatology if: anti‑HBc positive (+ notify public health)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is Hep C treated?

A

Direct acting antivirals up to 95% of patients are cured and have a sustained viral response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Who is at risk of Hep C?

A

SE Asia, middle east, africa
Healthcare workers
Sex workers
IVDU
Tattoo/piercings
Blood products pre 1992

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Ramsay Hunt syndrome?

A

Herpes zoster oticus
Infection of facial nerve
Facial palsy common

17
Q

Features of herpes zoster ophthalmicus

A

pain around the eye.
rash and skin eruption in the V1 dermatome, usually spreads up into the hair line.
Hutchinson sign (vesicle tip of nose)
upper lid may be swollen and eye mildly red.
early conjunctivitis and mild corneal changes (mucous plaques on the surface) are common in the first 10 days.
Aciclovir + admit ophthalm

18
Q

Management of shingles

A

Admit if:
Red eye
Concern re herpes zoster ophthalmicus
Immunocompromised child
Immunocompromised adult, systemically unwell

Aciclovir within 72hrs rash onset if:
-Immunocompromised adult
-Neck/limbs/perineum involvement
-Mod severe pain or rash
-Age>50 to reduce risk neuralgia
Can start up to 7 days after rash if severe/risks

Avoid work, school, or nursery if the rash is weeping and cannot be covered.

19
Q

Features of EBV

A

Fever
Pharyngitis, usually with exudate
Lymphadenopathy, usually posterior cervical lymphadenopathy
Fatigue
Atypical lymphocytosis
Hepatosplenomegaly
Jaundice
Rash (esp if given penicillins)

20
Q

Management of meningococcal sepsis/meningitis with non blanching rash

A

Admit via 999.
IM/IV benzylpenicillin, proximally
Age<1- 300 mg.
Age 1–9- 600 mg.
Age>10- 1200 mg.
Notifiable disease

21
Q

Who needs prophylaxis when neisseria meningitidis infection is confirmed?

A

prolonged close contact during the 7 days before onset of illness (household, dormitory, boy/girlfriends, or university students sharing a kitchen in halls).
Transient close contact with a case if large resp droplets/secretions from case around the time of admission to hospital.
Ciprofloxacin or rifampicin ASAP after the diagnosis of the index case.

22
Q

Symptoms of mumps

A

Parotid swelling
Anorexia, headache, fever, myalgia
Orchitis
Pain or discomfort of the angle of the jaw
Dry mouth
Aseptic meningitis

Notifiable disease, paramyxovirus

23
Q

Features of bordatella

A

paroxysmal cough- can last 3 months
cough ending in vomiting or apnoea
inspiratory whooping
Untreated patients are infectious from the early catarrhal stage to 21 days after the onset of cough

24
Q

Management suspected bordatella

A

Take swab
Admit if child<6m or child with chronic lung disease/apnoea/cyanosis
Azithromycin (erythromycin if pregnant)
Isolate until 48hrs of abx given

Close contacts at risk should be given abx prophylaxis if age<2 months or pregnant or healthcare worker in obs/paeds

25
Q

Staph aureus decolonisation

A

Mupirocin nasally BD 5 days
Chlorhexidine wash OD 7 days

26
Q

Impetigo treatment

A

Non-bullous localised:
hydrogen peroxide 1% cream TDS 5 days
OR fusidic acid 2% TDS 5 days
If fusidic acid resistant, mupirocin
Non-bullous, widespread:
Fusidic acid 2% TDS 5 days
Flucloxacillin QDS 5 days
Bullous:
Flucloxacillin QDS 5 days

Isolate until all lesions are healed, dry, and crusted over or until 48 hours after commencing treatment
Advise re hygeine, towels

27
Q

Features of scarlet fever

A

Fever, sore throat, headache, fatigue, n+v
Blanching rash, pinpoint, sandpaper, on trunk 12-48hrs after symptoms then spreads, palms and soles spared
Skin peeling on fingers
Strawberry tongue
Cervical lymphadenopathy
Pharyngitis with petechiae on palate

28
Q

Management scarlet fever

A

Consider swab
10-day course of phenoxymethylpenicillin
Notify public health
Isolate for 24hrs after abx started

29
Q

What is rheumatic fever?

A

Immune mediated reaction to group A strep infection
can cause carditis and endocarditis (leading to valvular heart disease) and reactive arthritis.

30
Q

Features of scabies

A

Itchy rash caused by a 0.3 mm mite that burrows into the skin surface and triggers a hypersensitivity skin reaction to the protein in the mite and/or its faeces
Transmission skin to skin but also bedding/furniture
Extremely itch rash, flexor surfaces/groin, burrows + pustules/vesicles

31
Q

Management scabies

A

Permethrin, all over, wash off after 12 hours. Reapply after 7 days
Apply to whole household
Ivermectin PO if permethrin fails, 7 days

32
Q

Management threadworms

A

Mebendazole PO for whole household (if age>2)
May be repeated in 2 weeks if not cleared
Vigorous hygeine methods (incl daily shower to remove eggs)

33
Q

Which malaria prophylaxis can be used in pregnancy?

A

Chloroquine (not in epilepsy, some resistance)
Proguanil (+ folic acid) (not supplied UK)

34
Q

Which malaria prophylaxis can epileptics use?

A

Doxycycline
Atovaquone with proguanil

35
Q

Who can’t use doxycycline?

A

Children + pregnant women, breastfeeding

36
Q

Features of legionnaires

A

Dry cough
High fever, chills, rigors, excessive sweating
Dyspnoea, pleuritic chest pain
Headaches, myalgia
N+V, abdominal pain, diarrhoea

37
Q

How can you catch legionnaires?

A

Exposure to potentially contaminated and aerosolised water sources, e.g. humidifiers, air conditioners, or hot-water systems

38
Q

Treatment of headlice

A

Wetcombing
dimeticone 4% gel, lotion, or spray (Hedrin)
Malathion

MRCGP (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions